seminar review final Flashcards

0
Q

The first drug of choice for a cat that experiences status epileptics is

A

Diazepam

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1
Q
A dog that experiences shock may have fluid replacement provided by all of the following. The least desirable is
A- crystalloids
B- hypertonic saline
C- dextrose
D- colloids
A

C- dextrose

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2
Q

Tension pneumothorax occurs occurs when

A

Pressure in thoracic cavity is greater than atmospheric pressure

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3
Q

Vomiting should not be induced in patients that have ingested

A

Kerosene

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4
Q

The mucous membranes of a dog in septic shock are

A

Brick red

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5
Q

The least desirable anesthetic protocol for an emergency cesarean section is

A

Barbiturate anesthetic

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6
Q

The underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thromboembolism is

A

Myocardial disease

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7
Q

To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, ________ may be administered every 4 to 8 hours.

A

Mannitol

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8
Q

Which of the following groupings of conditions has been triaged in the correct order?

A

Unconsciousness, dyspnea, abscesses

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9
Q

Avulsed incised wounds may be closed by first-intention healing

A

4 hours after injury

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10
Q

A patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. The least effective route of drug administration is

A

Cephalic

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11
Q

Fluid administration of 24 hours or more is recommended to be administered via a(n)

A

Through-the-needle catheter

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12
Q

A dog that has been hit by a car and has no palpable pulse or detectable heartbeat may need rhythmical compressions to stimulate the heart. These compressions should be performed at the

A

Third to sixth ribs

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13
Q

To minimize hemorrhage to the head of a canine trauma patient, pressure should be applied

A

To the area adjacent and ventral to the mandible

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14
Q
A trauma patient has had a primary survey performed.  During the secondary survey, it is noted that in lateral recumbency the patient demonstrates a jugular vein with normal distinction time but protracted relaxation time.  This may indicate all of the following except
A- hypovolemia
B- chronic right heart failure
C- chronic liver disease
D- acute heart failure
A

A- hypovolemia

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15
Q

A cat has significant arterial bleeding from a distal extremity. It is best to

A

Use a blood pressure cuff inflated to 30mm Hg above systolic pressure proximal to the bleeding

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16
Q

In emergency care cases in which it is not possible to administer large volumes of desired fluids, it may be beneficial to properly administer

A

Hypertonic saline

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17
Q

During emergency intubation, the cranial nerve _______ may be stimulated, resulting in ______.

A

X; bradycardia

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18
Q

A man phones the clinic where you work to say that he has just hit a dog with his car, and it is now lying on the side of the road. It appears to be breathing with minimal distress, there is blood coming from both nostrils, there is a small river of dark blood coming from a laceration on the lateral side of its hind leg, and it can raise its head and is attempting to stand. In advising the man, your recommendation is to do all of the following except
A- be aware of any signs of aggression
B- tie the mouth securely closed with your shoelace
C- transport the dog on a board lying on its side
D- apply direct pressure to the wound

A

B- tie the mouth securely closed with your shoelace

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19
Q

A normal CVP range is

A

0 to 10 cm H2O

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20
Q

Facilitation of the placement of a jugular catheter in an obese animal may be achieved by

A

Placing the animal in a sitting position

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21
Q

When monitoring patients on fluids and/or patients that undergo dieresis, urine output is an important consideration. The normal urine production for a healthy dog or cat is approximately

A

1 to 2 mL/kg/hr

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22
Q

Multiple parameters are measured are measured to determine a category of shock that an animal may be experiencing. The central venous pressure is high in which of the following types of shock?

A

Cardiogenic

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23
Q

Hypoglycemia is most common in patients that experience

A

Septic shock

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24
Q

In treating a shock patient it was necessary to bandage both hind limbs and the caudal abdomen. The correct way to remove the bandages is to

A

Slowly remove all bandages while monitoring that patient’s heart rate and blood pressure

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25
Q

Although the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of hypovolemic shock is controversial, it is generally agreed that their administration is most beneficial

A

In the early stages after initial fluid administration

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26
Q

The Sciff-Scherrington motor posture is characterized by

A

Bilateral extensor rigidity of forelimbs and bilaterally flaccid or paralyzed hind limbs or both

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27
Q

The Sciff-Scherrington motor posture is indicative of

A

Injury to T2 to L4

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28
Q

The PCV of the abdominal fluid of an animal with urologic injury is

A

Lower than the peripheral PCV

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29
Q

NSAIDs are also referred to as

A

Antiprostaglandins

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30
Q
Which if the following is a colloid solution?
A- blood
B- lactated ringers
C- normosol-r
D- plasmalyte 148
A

A- blood

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31
Q

Defibrillation is the passing of an electrical current through the heart to

A

Cause the cardiac cells to depolarize and then repolarize in a uniform manner

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32
Q
Which of the following is not a sign of shock?
A- elevated body temperature
B- increased respiratory rate and effort
C- tachycardia
D- pale mucous membranes
A

A- elevated body temperature

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33
Q

Gastric dilatation/volvulus (GDV) is a life-threatening emergency. It’s main damaging effect is the obstruction of the

A

Portal vein

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34
Q

The unit of measurement for insulin is

A

International units

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35
Q

The placement of a urinary catheter in a male care with a urethral obstruction usually serves all of the following purposes, except
A- ability to document rate of urine formation
B- prevent reobstruction within 24 hours
C- decompress bladder
D- administration of in situ antibiotics

A

D- administration of situ antibiotics

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36
Q

Dystocia in the dog or cat at be defined as active straining without delivery of a fetus for

A

More than 60 minutes

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37
Q

When approaching an animal that requires emergency treatment, the recommended way is to approach

A

Rostrally

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38
Q

Ocular exposure to a toxin has occurred in a dog. On examination, it is discovered that there is possible damage to the corneal epithelium. Which of the following procedures is contraindicated?
A- continuous flushing with physiologic saline
B- provision of mild sedative or analgesic or both
C- corticosteroid administration to prevent inflammation
D- use of antibiotic cream after flushing

A

C- corticosteroid administration to prevent inflammation

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39
Q

A client calls the clinic where you are working to say that 6 hours ago, her cat drank some ethylene glycol. Everyone else is at lunch, and you immediately page the veterinarian; however, the client wants to make her cat vomit to rid it of the toxin. You advise her

A

Not to induce vomiting and to immediately bring in the cat

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40
Q

Eclampsia produces elevated body temperatures, resulting from

A

Heat produced through muscle movement

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41
Q

A frantic client calls to say that her horse is acting strangely; the horse does not appear to be able to eat or drink and is moving with a stiff gait, there is a pink membrane present in the medial aspect of the eye, and it seems to be very agitated by loud noises. Considering this description, the horse is apparently suffering from

A

Tetanus

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42
Q

To place a nasal oxygenation catheter in a dog, you would

A

Measure to the medial can thus of the eye

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43
Q

A client calls to say she has come home to find her cat lying with the lamp cord in its mouth. You advise her to

A

Immediately disconnect the plug of the lamp cord from the wall socket

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44
Q

The most common artery to use when assessing the pulse of a dog or cat is the

A

Femoral

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45
Q

In small breeds of dogs examined in the veterinary clinic, the pulse rate can often exceed

A

200 beats/min

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46
Q

A pulse deficit is when the pulse is

A

Lagging behind the heartbeat

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47
Q

A sinus arrhythmia occurs when the pulse

A

Varies in a regular manner with every breath

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48
Q

Hyperpnea means

A

Excessively high respiratory rate

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49
Q

When doing physical therapy, which routine has the greatest capacity to reduce pain and muscle spasm?

A

Dry heat

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50
Q

A part of physical therapy of the respiratory tract is to

A

Pinch the trachea to stimulate coughing

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51
Q

What size needles are the most suitable for subcutaneous injections of fluids in dogs and cats?

A

18-20 gauge

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52
Q

The proper site for intraperitoneal injection is

A

At the level of the umbilicus to the right or left of the midline

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53
Q

When administering liquids via the oral route to a dog,

A

Place fluid between the teeth and the cheek, and allow the patient to swallow on its own accord

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54
Q

When assessing skin turgor in a canine patient, which area of the body is best to avoid?

A

The neck

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55
Q

Where is the popliteal lymph node located?

A

Proximal to the stifle at the caudal aspect of the leg

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56
Q

Knuckling is

A

A neurological abnormality

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57
Q

The rapid intravenous administration of large amounts of potassium can result in

A

Cardiac arrest

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58
Q

Potassium solutions can be administered to dogs and cats without causing severe pain by what routes?

A

Intravenous and subcutaneous

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59
Q

If a dog that receives parental fluids is oyrexic, how much additional fluid should be added to the maintenance fluid dose?

A

10%

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60
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication for fluid therapy?
A- pulmonary edema
B- cerebral edema
C- pitting of the soft tissues
D- swollen soft tissue from bruising caused by trauma

A

D- swollen soft tissue from bruising caused by trauma

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61
Q
Which of the following is used to monitor fluid therapy?
A- appetite
B- bowel movements
C- temperature
D- urine output
A

D- urine output

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62
Q

What part of the eye can be used to indicate fluid overload?

A

Conjunctiva

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63
Q

Rapid fluid replacement is contraindicated in condition of

A

Cerebral edema

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64
Q

A common colloid preparation administered intravenously is

A

Pentastarch

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65
Q

Fluid-therapy solutions administered subcutaneously are

A

Isotonic

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66
Q

The best route for rapid fluid administration of large amounts of fluids to patients with poor venous access is

A

Intraosseus

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67
Q
In trauma cases, fluid therapy should be used with caution in which of the following scenarios?
A- severe shock
B- mild shock
C- pulmonary contusions
D- severe skin damage
A

C- pulmonary contusions

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68
Q

What is the primary objective of first aid for a critically injured animal?

A

Keep the animal alive

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69
Q

Which of the following is the safest and most effective first aid for frostbite?
A- apply warm towels and massage the area
B- immerse the effected area in hot water
C- immerse the effected area in lukewarm water
D- rub the effected area with snow

A

C- immerse the effected area in lukewarm water

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70
Q
Which of the following methods of controlling hemorrhage from a traumatic wound is least likely to cause further damage to the animal?
A- clamping the wound with a hemostat
B- direct pressure
C- tourniquet 
D- applying silver nitrate
A

B- direct pressure

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71
Q

Which would be considered the least important physical measure evaluated during triage of a patient?

A

Weight

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72
Q

Patients in shock have

A

An initial increase in heart rate that then decreases as the patient nears death

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73
Q

The mucous membranes of patients in hemorrhagic shock are

A

Pale or white

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74
Q

The mucous membranes of patients with severe anemia and respiratory distress are

A

White

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75
Q

Normal urine output in cats and dogs is

A

1 to 2 mL/kg/hr

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76
Q

According to the principles of triage, which patient should first be seen but the veterinarian?
A- cat with a closed fracture
B- dog in respiratory distress
C- dog with otitis external
D- cat with a small laceration on a paw pad

A

B- dog in respiratory distress

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77
Q

Petechial hemorrhage on the mucous membranes can indicate

A

Thrombocytopenia

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78
Q
Which of these is not a characteristic of traumatic shock?
A- white mucous membranes
B- cool extremities
C- capillary refill time under 1 second
D- weak femoral pulses
A

C- capillary refill time under 1 second

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79
Q

According to the principles of triage, which patient should be seen first by a veterinarian?
A- dog with a small laceration on a pinna
B- dog with acute gastric dilatation/volvulus
C- cat with dystocia, not in shock, no kitten in birth canal
D- cat with possible linear foreign body in the bowel

A

B- dog with acute gastric dilatation/volvulus

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80
Q

Which if these signs is not an indication of dystocia?
A- green or black vulvar discharge
B- profuse vulvar hemorrhage
C- pup or kitten in the birth canal for 5 minutes
D- more than 1 hour of vigorous contractions with no pup or kitten produced

A

C- pup or kitten in the birth canal for 5 minutes

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81
Q
What is not usually a sign of acute gastric dilatation/volvulus?
A- unproductive attempts to vomit
B- hypersalivation
C- abdominal distinction
D- profuse diarrhea
A

D- profuse diarrhea

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82
Q

A client calls your clinic because she has notice pd a barbed fishhook embedded in her Doug’s lower lip. You should advise her to

A

Attempt to gently push the fishhook through the skin, the but and remove it. If this is not possible or successful, bring the animal to see the veterinarian as soon as possible

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83
Q

A client calls the clinic and tells you that her small poodle has stopped breathing, and she cannot feel a heartbeat. What should you reccommend?

A

Close the dog’s mouth and attempt mouth-to-nose resuscitation and chest compressions; immediately transport the pet to the hospital

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84
Q

A client calls your hospital and says that his Pekingese has suffered an eye proposes. Your advice to the client should include all of the following except
A- apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket
B- protect the globe from further trauma
C- keep the globe moist
D- immediately bring the dog to the veterinarian

A

A- apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket

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85
Q
Initial treatment for a cat with an open pneumothorax may include all of the following except
A- thoracocentesis
B- oxygen administration
C- covering the wound
D- radiographic examination
A

D- radiographic examination

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86
Q

On the average, an adult horse consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day?

A

10 to 15

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87
Q

Horses and rabbits are

A

Cecum fermenters

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88
Q

What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses?

A

Ca/P

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89
Q

Failure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause

A

Azoturia

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90
Q

When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed

A

By weight, not volume

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91
Q

Horses are generally fed grain to meet what need?

A

Energy

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92
Q
Deficiency of which of the following major nutrients is likely to have the most rapid negative effect on an animal?
A- water
B- protein
C- fat
D- carbohydrates
A

A- water

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93
Q
Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermia if chased?
A- hogs and sheep
B- goats and sheep
C- goats and hogs
D- cattle and goats
A

A- hogs and sheep

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94
Q
Which is a dairy breed?
A- Simmental
B- Charolais
C- Hereford
D- guernsey
A

D- guernsey

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95
Q

An all-meat diet will cause a deficiency in

A

Calcium

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96
Q
Which of the following housing conditions is most likely to aggravate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (heaves) in horses?
A- low temperature
B- feeding dusty hay
C- screen partitions between stalls
D- fresh wood shavings for bedding
A

B- feeding dusty hay

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97
Q

The most common health problem encountered in cattle that have been recently shipped is

A

Pneumonia

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98
Q

Which of these not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle?
A- feeding early in the day
B- placing fans over housing area
C- sprinkling or misting cows with water
D- cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor

A

A- feeding early in the day

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99
Q

When young livestock are exposed to poor ventilation or cold stress, what outbreaks often occur?

A

Pneumonia

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100
Q

The height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according to the size of the pigs in the pen. It should be set at a level that is

A

Just above the shoulder of the pigs

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101
Q

The number of nipple water devices in group pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. A pen of 20 pigs should have a minimum of

A

2 nipples per pen

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102
Q

What is a newborn pig let’s lower critical temperature?

A

90 to 95 F

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103
Q

The environmental temperature should be monitored routinely in a farrowing unit. Where should thermometers be placed?

A

Near the floor at the pigs’ level

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104
Q

What can a producer do to provide an acceptable environment for a lactating sow and her offspring?

A

Keep the overall area comfortable for the sow, and provide zones of supplemental heat for the piglets

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105
Q

Fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that

A

The slats are positioned vertically

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106
Q

As you walk through the nursery section of a swine production unit, you notice that many of the pigs have rectal prolapsed. What does this observation tell you about their behaviors?

A

The pigs are piling up

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107
Q

What common vice might become apparent if pigs are crowded into a pen with insufficient space for the number of animals?

A

Tail biting

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108
Q

Excessive carbon monoxide levels in a swine barn are usually associated with

A

Incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater

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109
Q

Feeders in finishing hog lens should have

A

One feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs

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110
Q

What would provide the best information on the mineral status of a horse?

A

Feed analysis

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111
Q

Sudden ration changes would not cause

A

Cachexia

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112
Q

Enteral feeding is indicated in a horse with

A

Dysphagia

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113
Q

Prolonged under nutrition in adult horses adversely affects all of the following except

A

Skeletal structures

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114
Q

A horse with cardiac disease may not require a major dietary change. The inky change may be to restrict intake of

A

Salt

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115
Q

Horses with active laminitis should be fed

A

Average-quality hay and no grain

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116
Q

What nutrient is not required for normal horn and hoof formation?

A

Vitamin K

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117
Q

Horses prone to esophageal obstruction should not be fed

A

Pellets

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118
Q

During pregnancy, goats require extra dietary energy during the last

A

2 months

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119
Q
Urea toxicity in small ruminants typically occurs within 1 hour after ingestion.  What is not a sign of urea toxicity?
A- low packed cell volume (PCV)
B- frequent urination and defecation
C- Incoordination
D- muscle and chin tremors
A

A- low packed cell volume (PCV)

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120
Q

In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin

A

A

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121
Q

Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)?

A

E

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122
Q

Lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids?

A

Vitamin C and calcium

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123
Q

Most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of

A

Dehorning

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124
Q

Goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketones during

A

Late gestation

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125
Q

Ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to

A

Rumen acidosis

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126
Q

Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridium in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called

A

Enterotoxemia

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127
Q

A llama’s stomach is functionally similar to, but anatomically different from, a true ruminant stomach. How many compartments does a llama’s stomach have?

A

3

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128
Q

Llamas, like true ruminants, can break down what feed constituent into short-chained fatty acids with the assistance of bacteria and Protozoa?

A

Cellulose

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129
Q

Which statement concerning feeding of llamas is most accurate?
A- they must be fed once daily
B- they must be fed twice daily
C- they must be fed free choice
D- they should be fed on a regular schedule

A

D- they should be fed on a regular schedule

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130
Q

A predominant deficiency of what nutrient causes angular limb deformities, given current North American feeding practices of llamas?

A

Phosphorus

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131
Q

What nutrient represents the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production?

A

Carbohydrates

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132
Q

Over feeding of the nutrient class ______ to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis or founder

A

Energy

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133
Q

Cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feed during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. The most important effect of this is to

A

Buffer the acids produced in the rumen

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134
Q
Which of the following compromises the major gaseous energy loss as a result of fermentation in the rumen?
A- oxygen
B- ethane
C- carbon dioxide
D- methane
A

D- methane

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135
Q

What foal type has the greatest nutritional requirement?

A

Premature foal with septicemia

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136
Q
Which of the following is not recommended for a weak foal?
A- bucket feeding
B- bottle feeding
C- nasogastric intubation
D- intravenous nutrition
A

B- bottle feeding

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137
Q

To avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must

A

Be well mixed

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138
Q
Successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include all of the following, except
A- vaccination of the dam
B- dry, draft-free housing
C- colostrum feeding
D- limiting the amount of milk fed
A

D- limiting the amount of milk fed

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139
Q

When a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and saliva pass directly into the

A

Abomasum

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140
Q

When the newborn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about

A

1 to 2 days only

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141
Q

The neonatal calf is a preruminant. What factor most influences rumen development?

A

The calf’s diet

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142
Q

What is a freemartin?

A

A heifer born twinned to a bull

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143
Q

What vitamin is also known as thiamine?

A

Vitamin B1

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144
Q

What clinical condition is associated with acute over consumption of a high-fat meal in dogs but is rarely seen in horses and pigs?

A

Pancreatitis

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145
Q

Newborn piglets raised in confinement must be supplemented with

A

Iron

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146
Q

Why do piglets need an iron supplement?

A

They are born with low levels in their tissue and do not have an adequate dietary source while nursing

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147
Q

Swine must have access to drinking water at all times. If deprived of water for an extended period,m they may

A

Develop sodium chloride toxicity

148
Q

Goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of

A

Pantothenic acid

149
Q

Soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. What does this ingredient provide?

A

Protein

150
Q

A nursery pig is presented for necropsy. The history states that it was healthy yesterday afternoon and was found dead this morning. Necropsy reveals “mulberry heart disease.” What dietary deficiency is the most likely cause of this pig’s sudden demise?

A

Vitamin E

151
Q

What nutrient will provide the most calories per gram?

A

Fats

152
Q

Sows often develop constipation during late gestation and early lactation. What should the producer do to minimize this problem and keep them in optimal health?

A

Add fiber to the ration

153
Q

Finely ground hog feed (particle size 600 to 800 microns) can increase the incidence of

A

Gastric ulcers

154
Q

Antibacterial drugs are routinely added to hog feed to increase performance and feed efficiency. What group of animals benefits the most from this practice?

A

Nursery and grower pigs

155
Q

What ingredient can be added to the diet of hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed?

A

Fat

156
Q

What animal would you expect to have the highest water intake?

A

Lactating cow

157
Q

The ______ hay, if processed correctly, has the highest nutritional value when compared to other hays.

A

Alfalfa

158
Q

Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are

A

Biotransformed (metabolized) more slowly

159
Q

Decreased function of what organ would have th e greatest effect on bio transformation of most drugs?

A

Liver

160
Q

The generic name for a drug is also called the

A

Nonproprietary name

161
Q

Ten milliliters of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone conatins

A

250 mg of thiopentone

162
Q

Cholinergic agents do all of the following except
A- slow heart rate
B- increase blood flow to intestinal tract
C- decrease diameter of bronchioles
D- cause peripheral vasodilation

A

D- cause peripheral vasodilation

163
Q

The use of fluroquinolones as anti infective agents should be done with great caution or not at all in

A

Cats

164
Q

The anti infective drug that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is

A

Chloramphenicol

165
Q

A 10 kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride intended for a 30 kg dog. The correct reversal agent for this overdose is

A

Yohimbine

166
Q

Potentiated penicillins

A

Are active against b-lactamase-producing bacteria

167
Q

Xylazine

A

Provides some analgesia

168
Q

Propofol

A

Can be given in incremental doses

169
Q

A risk to veterinary technicians who administer prostaglandins is

A

Inducing an asthma attack

170
Q

Loop diuretics such a furosemide

A

May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

171
Q

What is the ratio between the toxic dose and therapeutic dose of a drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for a particular treatment?

A

Therapeutic index

172
Q

Aspirin may be safely used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species approximates

A

30 hours

173
Q

The H2 receptors are found in the

A

Gastric mucosa

174
Q

This barbiturates should be administered with great care or not at all to

A

Greyhounds

175
Q

A chronotropic agent affects the

A

Rate of contraction

176
Q

Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from ____ drops administered sublingually.

A

Doxapram

177
Q
All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination do rugs except the 
A- kidneys
B- liver
C- lungs
D- spleen
A

D- spleen

178
Q

The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the

A

EPA

179
Q

In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects?

A

Aminoglycosides

180
Q

A very useful group of broad-spectrum drugs, whose popularity has more recently declined because of numerous potential side effects, including keraconjunctivitis sicca, polysarthritis (especially in Doberman pinschers), hematuria, photo sensitivity, and hypothyroidism, is the

A

Sulfonamides

181
Q

Guaifenesin is an example of a(n)

A

Expectorant

182
Q

Butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system. It is both an

A

Antitussive and narcotic analgesic

183
Q

Cosmo, an 11 year old M/C pug, has recently been diagnosed with mitral insufficiency and was referred to a veterinary cardiologist. The specialist decided to imitate treatment with digoxin, a positive inotrope and negative chrinotrope. This means that it

A

Increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate

184
Q

Which if the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer Chemotherapeutic drugs?

A

Immunosuppression

185
Q

A recent graduate veterinary technician is concerned that a sedated patient has a heart rate of 50 beats/min when the heart rate in a dog is normally 60 to 120 beats/min. You ask her which sedative the veterinarian used and were not at all surprised when she told you that the drug used was

A

Medetomidine (domitor)

186
Q

All of the following drugs are antagonists, used to reverse the effects of another drug except

A

Detomidine (dormosedan)

187
Q

What gas anesthetia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring, because anesthetic depth changes occur most rapidly?

A

Sevoflurane (sevoflo)

188
Q

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the

A

Sympathetic nervous system

189
Q

The behavioral drug group that may be used to stimulate appetite in cats is

A

Benzodiazepines

190
Q

A progestin, often used in the past for the treatment of inappropriate elimination in cats, that has now fallen out of favor because of serious potential side effects, including mammary hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma, is

A

Megestrol acetate (ovaban)

191
Q

If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against what group of parasites will this drug be effective?

A

Protozoa

192
Q
Which if the following drugs can cause severe tissue necrosis if given perivascularly?
A- phenylbutazone (butazolidin)
B- oxymorphone (numorphan)
C- Propofol (propoflo)
D- ketamine (ketaset)
A

A- phenylbutazone

193
Q

The primary function of insulin is to

A

Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells

194
Q

Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by

A

Gently rolling the bottle

195
Q

Serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include

A

Bone marrow suppression and pyometra

196
Q

When diethylstilbestrol (DES), a synthetic estrogen, is used at higher doses, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of

A

Bone marrow suppression

197
Q
Which of the following drugs is considered a biological response modifier?
A- interferon
B- streptokinase
C- cephalosporin
D- EDTA
A

A- interferon

198
Q

Atropine is often given as a preanesthetic agent. It is classified as an anticholinergic drug. That means that it will likely have the following effects on an animal receiving the drug:

A

Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility

199
Q

An expectorant is a drug that acts to

A

Liquefy and dilute viscous secretions in the respiratory tract

200
Q

The therapeutic range of a drug refer to which of the following?
A- the plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed
B- the relationship of a drug’s ability to achieve a desired effect versus causing a toxic effect
C- the range of curative properties that a drug may exhibit
D- the frequency of idiosyncratic reactions

A

A- the plasma concentration at which therapeutic benefits should be observed

201
Q
Which of the following drugs is used to treat feline hypertension?
A- amylodipine (norvasc)
B- erythromycin 
C- amitriptyline (elavil)
D- atropine
A

A- amylodipine

202
Q
A cat is given ketamine as an anesthetic induction agent.  The veterinary technician monitoring this animal may observe which of the following side effects?
A- bradycardia
B- hypotension
C- apneustic breathing
D- flaccid muscle tone
A

C- apneustic breathing

203
Q
Nitroglycerin is given primarily to achieve which of the following effects?
A- vasodilation
B- vasoconstriction
C- antiarrhythmic
D- ACE inhibitor
A

A- vasodilation

204
Q
For cats diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a calcium channel blocker is often prescribed to relax the heart in an attempt to improve cardiac output.  Which of the following drugs falls in this category?
A- procainamide
B- dilitiazem
C- lidocaine
D- digoxin
A

B- dilitiazem

205
Q
Which of the following drugs is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs?
A- phenylpropanolamine
B- diethylcarbamazine
C- acepromazine 
D- bethanechol
A

A- phenylpropanolamine

206
Q
Which if the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oligarchs renal failure?
A- furosemide
B- propranolol
C- mannitol
D- bethanechol
A

Mannitol

207
Q
An animal that demonstrates an allergic response to penicillin administration should not be given which of the following antibiotics?
A- clindamycin
B- cephalosporins
C- sulfonamides
D- fluroquinolones
A

B- cephalosporins

208
Q
Which of the following drugs is used as an adulticide to treat a heartworm-positive dog?
A- melarsomine
B- ivermectin
C- milbemycin
D- moxidectin
A

A- melarsomine

209
Q

An example of an alpha 2 agonist is

A

Xylazine

210
Q

An example of an amino glycoside antibiotic is

A

Neomycin

211
Q
An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilators effect?
A- histamine
B- digoxin
C- prednisone
D- theophylline
A

D- theophylline

212
Q

The class of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat rickettsial infections, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, is

A

Tetracyclines

213
Q

A cat is given. Drug (methionine) to alter the pH of his urine in an effort to dissolve his struvite stones. The drug has which of the following intended effects?

A

Acidification of the urine

214
Q
Which of the following types of insulin provides the longest duration of action?
A- NPH insulin
B- regular insulin
C- ultralente insulin
D- semilente insulin
A

C- ultralente insulin

215
Q

Antimicrobal (antibiotic) drugs are classified according to the type of organisms they affect. Which type of antimicrobals drug would be effective against organisms like giardia or eimeria?

A

C- antiprotozoal

216
Q

Many antibiotic drug inserts (information included in packages of drugs) make reference to the MIC t which the antibiotic is effective. What is the MIC?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration

217
Q

Aminoglycosides, if given at high dosages or by continuous IV infusion, cause damage to the

A

Inner ear and kidney

218
Q

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a significant problem in veterinary medicine. What factor is not considered to a significant contributor to development of bacterial resistance?

A

Prolonged levels of higher-than-recommended dosages of antibiotics

219
Q

Some penicillin G injectable products contain procaine or benzathine, and some penicillin G products contain neither. What effect do procaine and benzathine have on penicillin G?

A

They prolong absorption of penicillin G from the injection site

220
Q

Ceftiofur is classified on the package insert as a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic; cefadroxil is classified as a first-generation cephalosporin. How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from first-generation cephalosporins?

A

Third-generation drugs have better gram negative activity

221
Q

How can a drug like neomycin, which has severe risk of nephrotoxicity when administered by injection, have little risk when administered topically or orally?

A

Little of the drug is absorbed through the skin

222
Q

Why is it important that pus-filled wounds or ear CNA,s with ours lent debris be thoroughly cleaned before applying a topical amino glycoside?

A

Nucleic acids in the cellular debris (pus) bind the amino glycoside

223
Q

What drugs are considered fluroquinolones?

A

Danofloxacin, Enrofloxacin

224
Q

Why should tetracycline use be avoided in pregnant bitches?

A

It may be deposited in dental enamel and give the pup’s teeth a mottled yellow appearance

225
Q

What is the effect of prostaglandin F2 alpha on the reproductive system?

A

Luteolysis

226
Q

Chloramphenicol is metabolized by specific enzymes in the liver. Consequently, it interferes with or influences how rapidly other drugs metabolized by the same liver enzymes are eliminated from the body. This is important to remember to prevent accidental overdose of a simultaneously administered drug. Metabolism of what drug is affected by simultaneous use of chloramphenicol?

A

Phenobarbital

227
Q

Why is chloramphenicol used with extreme causation in cats and neonates?

A

The liver is unable to metabolize chloramphenicol effectively in these animals

228
Q

What anticonvulsant drug is converted by the liver primarily to phenobarbital, which accounts for most of its anticonvulsant activity?

A

Primidone

229
Q

Drugs that are described as beta-adrenergic receptor stimulators have what effect on the respiratory tree?

A

Cause bronchodilation

230
Q

Terbutaline, albuterol, and metaproterenol are described as selective beta-adrenergic agonists. They are used in veterinary medicine to

A

Treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases

231
Q

What drug reduces tachyarrhythmias by decreasing conduction of the impulse that causes contraction through the heart..

A

Lidocaine

232
Q

Hyperthyroid cats have heart rates of over 200 beats per minute because of large numbers of beta-sympathetic receptors in their heart that make the heart more sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine. This high heart rate is an anesthetic risk. What drug is used to slow the heart rate and decrease arrhythmias associated with beta-receptor stimulation?

A

Propranolol

233
Q

Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, veterinary technicians and owners of animals that receive digoxin must be able to detect early signs if digoxin toxicity, such as

A

Decreased appetite, anorexia, diarrhea, and vomiting

234
Q

Some drugs commonly used to treat veterinary patients with cardiovascular disease alter the electrolyte levels within the body. Which electrolyte change greatly enhances the risk of digoxin toxicity?

A

Decreased potassium (hypokalemia)

235
Q

Drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect on the body?

A

Cause vasodilation

236
Q

Captopril is an example of a(n)

A

Vasodilator

237
Q

Anticholinergic drugs like atropine, aminopentamide, or isopropamide on the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Decrease bowel motility

238
Q

Opioid drugs such as paregoric and loperamide are often used as antidiarrheals. What is their main effect on the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Decrease diarrhea by increasing segmental mixing contractions

239
Q

What drug is used to return. Mare to proestrus from Diestrous through lysis if the corpus luteum?

A

Prostaglandin

240
Q

What hormone is given to mares or cows for several days to mimic Diestrous and then withdrawn to mimic natural lysis of the corpus luteum and a return to proestrus?

A

Progestin

241
Q

What reproductive hormone can cause severe (and sometimes fatal) aplastic anemia or open-cervix pyometra several weeks after it has been given?

A

Estradiol cypionate

242
Q

What drug is used as a contraceptive in dogs and sometimes for correction of behavioral problems in cats

A

Megestrol acetate

243
Q

Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic

A

Cushing’s disease

244
Q

In what species might glucocorticoid administration lead to absorption during the last few weeks of gestation?

A

Horses and cattle

245
Q

What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds?

A

Collie

246
Q

If an animal receives an overdose of organophosphate insecticide, what Is the treatment of choice?

A

Atropine

247
Q

What do 15 gr and 10 g mean on a prescription?

A

15 grains and 10 grams

248
Q

Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain?

A

60

249
Q
Which of the following is a concentration of a drug solution?
A- 15 mg/kg
B- 1000 U/mL
C- 20 gr/mg
D- 250 g/lb
A

1000 U/mL

250
Q

How many milliliters are in a teaspoon?

A

5

251
Q

Many drugs do not have X mg/mL listed in their labels but instead have their concentrations listed as a percent. Which of the following most accurately reflects the conversion of a percentage of a solution to a weight per volume format?

A

X% = X g/100ml

252
Q

How many milligrams are in each milliliter of a 24% solution?

A

240

253
Q

What class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication?

A

Antineoplastics

254
Q

What effect does renal failure or compromised liver function have on the pharmacokinetics of many drugs?

A

Increased half-life of drugs

255
Q

Apical mean “toward the _______”

A

Root tip

256
Q
Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?
A- mesial- farthest from the midline
B- mesial- nearest the front
C- distal- nearest the midline
D- farthest from the midline
A

D- distal- farthest from the midline

257
Q
Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?
A- palatal- facing the cheek
B- labial- facing the tongue
C- buccal- facing the cheek
D- Rostral- toward the back
A

C- buccal- facing the cheek

258
Q
The cat has which of the following numbers of maxillary and mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth?
A- 3 and 2
B- 3 and 3
C- 2 and 3
D- 2 and 2
A

The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2(I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus

259
Q

The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2(I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus

A

P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42

260
Q

What is the main purpose of premolar teeth?

A

Cutting and breaking

261
Q

What teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have three roots?

A

Maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars

262
Q

The permanent canine and premolar teeth on dogs generally erupt at about what age?

A

4 to 6 months

263
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing a Doug’s first upper left permanent premolar is

A

205

264
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing a cat’s first lower right molar is

A

409

265
Q

The pulp canal of a tooth contains

A

Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues

266
Q

As part of normal tooth growth, what part of the tooth thickens?

A

Dentin

267
Q

Enamel, which is the hardest body substance

A

Is relatively no porous and impervious

268
Q

Dentin is covered by

A

Cementum and enamel

269
Q

Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude

A

Buccally to the mandibular first molar

270
Q

The carnassial teeth in dogs are

A

P4 and M1

271
Q

Free or marginal gingiva

A

Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth

272
Q
The periodontist includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except
A- gingiva
B- cementum
C- alveolar bone
D- enamel
A

D- enamel

273
Q

A bulldog would be described as having what type of head shape?

A

Brachycephalic

274
Q

In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they

A

Have antibacterial properties

275
Q

When using hand instruments to clean teeth

A

Use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin

276
Q

Pocket depth is measured from the

A

Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus

277
Q

Between patients, it is best to use he following order for maintaining instruments:

A

Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize

278
Q

When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes

A

Safety glasses, mask, and gloves

279
Q

You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point. You are holding a

A

Universal curette

280
Q

When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, the speed of the hand piece that should be used is the

A

Low

281
Q

The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is

A

Brachygnathism

282
Q

Malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla Is disproportionate to its other side

A

Wry mouth

283
Q

Malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars

A

Posterior cross bite

284
Q

Malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position, or the mandible is narrowed

A

Base-narrow mandibular canines

285
Q

Malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors

A

Anterior cross bite

286
Q

The most common benign soft tissue tumor of the oral cavity is

A

Epulide tumor

287
Q

Dry socket is more likely to occur when one

A

Over irrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form

288
Q

Gingivoplasty is the

A

Removal of hyperplasia gingival tissue

289
Q

To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should

A

Use constant irrigation

290
Q

Another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is

A

Feline external odontoclastic resorptive lesions

291
Q

The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is

A

Floating

292
Q

Stomatitis is the

A

Inflammation of the mouth’s soft tissue

293
Q

A client wants to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog’s teeth. You suggest that she is best to give fido a

A

Dense rubber exerciser

294
Q

For dental radiography of the canine teeth, you should use what size of dental film to ensure that the whole tooth is included?

A

4

295
Q

Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple

A

Up and pointing rostrally

296
Q

The fall side of the dental film should be facing

A

Away from the tube head

297
Q

The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an X-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the

A

Imaginary line the bisects the angle formed by the tooth’s long axis and the film plane

298
Q

You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the

A

Tooth

299
Q

The genus and species name for the rabbit is

A

Mesocricetus auratus

300
Q

The genus and species name for the hamster is

A

Mesocricetus auratus

301
Q

The genus and species name for the gerbil is

A

Merino news unguiculatus

302
Q

The genus and species name for the guinea pig is

A

Cavia porcellus

303
Q

The sex of juvenile guinea pigs is determined by

A

Palpation of the pelvic region

304
Q

The term for parturition in the guinea pig is

A

Farrowing

305
Q

The term for parturition in the rabbit is

A

Kindling

306
Q

The laboratory animal species most likely to experience dystocia is a

A

Guinea pig

307
Q

The sex of juvenile mice is determined by

A

Anogenital distance

308
Q

The cage type frequently used for housing nonhuman primates is

A

Squeeze

309
Q

The scientific name of the mouse pinworm is

A

Aspiculuris

310
Q
Which of the following is the most commonly used species in research?
A- rabbit
B- guinea pig
C- rat
D- mouse
A

Mouse

311
Q

What is the correct term for a female guinea pig?

A

Sow

312
Q

All of the following are rodents, except the

A

Rabbit

313
Q

A common problem that results from incorrect restraint of a gerbil is

A

Tail slip

314
Q

A common disease of juvenile hamsters is

A

Wet tail

315
Q

Seizures are a common problem in the

A

Gerbil

316
Q

A male rabbit is called a

A

Buck

317
Q

The animal welfare act is administered and enforced by the

A

United States department of agriculture

318
Q

The disease of rats and mice caused by low humidity is

A

Ring tail

319
Q

Ferrets are very susceptible to

A

Canine distemper

320
Q

A type of inbred albino mouse is

A

BALB/C

321
Q

Sacculus rotund us, appendix, and cecum are parts of what laboratory animal’s gastrointestinal tract?

A

Rabbit

322
Q

What type of guinea pig has long, silky hair?

A

Peruvian

323
Q

Dutch and New Zealand are types of

A

Rabbits

324
Q

Caudal paralysis, as a consequence of injury to the spinal cord from a fractured back, occurs commonly in the

A

Rabbit

325
Q

A diet rich in vitamin C must be provided to what species because they cannot synthesize their own?

A

Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates

326
Q

What species normally has two types of feces, day feces and night feces?

A

Rabbit

327
Q

What laboratory animal species has ventral sebaceous glands?

A

Gerbil

328
Q
All of the following are old world monkeys, except
A- rhesus
B- squirrel
C- cynomolgus
D- stump tail
A

Squirrel

329
Q

Offspring of what laboratory animal species are born fully furred and with open eyes?

A

Guinea pig

330
Q

This amino acid found in animal tissue that is required by cats but not dogs is

A

Taurine

331
Q
Which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat?
A- 6.2
B- 6.0
C- 7.0
D- 7.5
A

A- 6.2

332
Q
Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased?
A- hogs and sheep
B- goats and sheep
C- goats and hogs
D- cattle and goats
A

A- hogs and sheep

333
Q

Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hit electric dehorner because

A

The heat may damage their brains

334
Q

Goiter can be caused by

A

Deficiency if iodine

335
Q

If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals?

A

Calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

336
Q

Goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during

A

Late gestation

337
Q

A llama’s stomach is functionally similar to, but anatomically different from, a true ruminant stomach. How many compartments does a llama’s stomach have?

A

3

338
Q

To judge wether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog

A

Holds it head low between the shoulders

339
Q

When confronted by a dog inside a kennel that is snarling, growling and lunging at the bars, what restraint instrument is safest for you and the dog?

A

Capture pole

340
Q

The most critical factor to expedient healing of decubitus sores is

A

Exposure to air so that the area remains dry

341
Q

Which of the following is the least desirable method of warming a recumbent patient?

A

Electric heating pad

342
Q

Isosthenuria is best described as

A

Urine with a specific gravity and osmolarity similar to glomerular filtrate and plasma

343
Q

Hypocalcemia in dogs

A

Occurs most often in mid to late lactation

344
Q

The blood group of canines that is synonymous with the term universal donor is

A

DEA 1.1 negative

345
Q

Hospitalized patients that require nutritional support are those that have lost ________ of their body weight.

A

10%

346
Q

A significant difference in IM injections in small animals compared to large animals is

A

The needle is first inserted into large animals before the syringe is attached

347
Q
Which urine specific gravity would you expect to see in a dehydrated dog?
A- 1.007
B- 1.025
C- 1.015
D- 1.060
A

D- 1.060

348
Q
Which of these can be positive in the urine of a normal, healthy dog?
A- glucose
B- ketones
C- bilirubin
D- alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
A

C- bilirubin

349
Q

What sling is used to stabilize the cocxofemoral joint?

A

Ehmer

350
Q

What fluid should you choose to lavage a deep traumatic wound?

A

Warm sterile saline

351
Q

Which phase of the Electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the depolarization of the atria?

A

P wave

352
Q

Which phase of the ECG represents the Repolarization phase of the ventricles?

A

T wave

353
Q

Which statement about intraperitoneal fluid therapy is true?

A

It is not routinely used because of the slow rate of absorption

354
Q

Which statement about central venous pressure (CVP) is true?

A

CVP measures fluid pressure in the right atrium

355
Q

Which statement about PCV measurement in acute blood loss is true?

A

It is an inaccurate assessment of the condition because of vasoconstriction and splenic contraction

356
Q

Before doing a skin scraping for a fungal culture, apply

A

Alcohol

357
Q

The easiest large domestic animal to handle is the

A

Sheep

358
Q

The blood glucose level of a normal dog is

A

70 to 100 mg/dl

359
Q

What is the approximate degree of dehydration in a patient that shows increased skin turgor, prolonged capillary refill time, dry mucous membranes, and eyes sunken into the orbits?

A

10% to 12%

360
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of fluid volume overload?

A

Dry mucous membranes

361
Q

Hypertonic solutions

A

Must be given IV only

362
Q

What is the correct orde for the processes of wound healing?

A

Inflammation, debridement, repair, maturation

363
Q

High mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by

A

Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure

364
Q

A previously no vaccinated mature horse that receives a traumatic wound that becomes contaminated should be given

A

Both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid

365
Q

Equine infectious anemia is diagnosed by

A

Coggins test

366
Q

What area of the bovine body does hardware disease affect?

A

Reticulum

367
Q

Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, could infect people who perform which activity?

A

Skinning rabbits