Session 6 Quiz Flashcards

(29 cards)

1
Q

Define Descriptive Ethics

A

Descriptive ethics refers to the study of ethical views of veterinarians and veterinary professionals regarding their behavior and attitudes. Essentially what is right and wrong.

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2
Q

Define Official Ethics

A

Official Ethics involve the creation of the official ethical standards adopted by professional organizations and imposed on its members.

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3
Q

Define Administrative Ethics

A

Administrative Ethics involve actions by administrative government body that regulate veterinary practice and activities in which veterinarians engage. License revocation can result if any civil or criminal violations of these regulations occur.

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4
Q

Define Normative Ethics

A

Normative Ethics refer to the search for correct principles of good and band, right and wrong, and just and injustice.

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5
Q

What is the Veterinary Practice Act?

A

A state’s or commonwealth’s law, codified into regulations, describing what licensed and non-licensed employees can and cannot do, as well as acceptable medical standards, as it relates to veterinary medicine.

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6
Q

What is involved in making changes to the Veterinary Practice Act?

A

Proposed changes must be submitted to the House and Senate and ultimately signed into law by the Governor.

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7
Q

What six elements do the courts want satisfied to consider the existence of informed consent in a situation?

A

1) Consent must be given freely.
2) Treatment and diagnosis must be given in understandable terms.
3) The risks, benefits and the prognosis of the defined procedure must be stated.
4) The prognosis if no treatment is selected must be stated.
5) Practice must provide alternative treatments, including risks, benefits and costs.
6) The client must be given an opportunity to ask questions and have them answered.

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8
Q

The law of _______ was created to avoid benefit of one party at the expense of another (owner received emergency vet care at the vet’s expense).

A

Unjust Enrichment

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9
Q

In relations to the Acceptance stage of a contract; what is the difference between Express Acceptance and Implied Acceptance?

A

Express Acceptance is a clear statement of agreement to the terms offered that establishes an Express Contract.
Implied Acceptance has no direct statement of agreement, but is demonstrated by actions indicating acceptance of the offer, leading to an Implied Contract.

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10
Q

Although there may have been no formal agreement, just requires the enforcement of one’s promise when another party has justifiably relied on that promise, changed its position, and incurred substantial detriment. This situation is called __________

A

Promissory Estoppel

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11
Q

When it comes to the Law of Agency; what two scenarios are considered likely to be common in veterinary medicine?

A

1) Agency and Consents for Care
2) Agency and Consents for Euthanasia

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12
Q

Ethics Exhaustion is a state where an individual’s compassion has died out, even if just temporarily. True or False?

A

False - Ethics Exhaustion isn’t a lack of compassion, but it is being prevented from acting on what you believe is the compassionate, caring thing to do.

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13
Q

What statute requires the production of a written memorandum before the courts will enforce certain types of contracts (as opposed to an oral contract)?

A

The Statute of Frauds

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14
Q

In reference to disease transmission; fleas, ticks and mosquitos are considered vectors. True or False?

A

True

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15
Q

Why is it recommended to have a steady and ongoing relationship with an attorney?

A

This strategy avoids the urgent and crisis oriented circumstances and maintains more of a preventative relationship for the practice.

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16
Q

The role of Liaison for a practice manager involves more than relationships with vendors, what are some examples?

A

The role of liaison is a full time responsibility involving staff, vendors, authorities, professional peers and advisors, independent contractors, clients, practice owners or stock holders, consultants to the practice, and any other relationship involving the practice.

17
Q

What separates CPAs from bookkeepers or accountants?

A

A CPA is a college trained accounting professional who has attained certification via a comprehensive exam, and maintains the certification with continuous CE.

18
Q

List 5 considerations when choosing an accounting professional.

A

1) Expect to interview several candidates and do your research about the candidates and their firm.
2) Check on-line reviews and standing with the IRS and state boards.
3) Do they have veterinary experience, and how do they stay abreast of veterinary trends. Do they belong to or follow any veterinary associations or periodicals.
4) Check licenses and credentials on-line.
5) Match people whose philosophies and personalities that are compatible with the practice.
6) Obtain referrals from at least two of their long term clients.
7) Make sure the candidates experience, education and interests match the role you’re seeking to fill. For example: don’t hire a bookkeeper to fulfill duties of a CPA.
8) Beware of a large ego that can get in the way of good service. No one knows everything.
9) Choose an advisor who is busy, they are busy for a reason.
10) How do they structure their fees?
11) Avoid a firm that is too small, in the event of illness or death a small firm may not be able to continue service uninterrupted.

19
Q

To get the most efficiency from a CPA at tax time, it is best to have obtained their services for tax planning prior to the end of the calendar year and to have all accounting records (QuickBooks or other software reports) to the CPA by when?

A

The third or last week of January.

20
Q

Name two potential benefits of maintaining healthy relationships with vendors?

A

a. Vendors are typically highly educated and well trained by their companies and can often provide you with the most cutting edge information available as to new products, client/owner concerns, and upcoming backorders.
b. Vendors have a wide range of experience inside various practices and can offer valuable feedback in how you’re doing, and/or share some good ideas from other practices.
c. Vendors have a wide network within the veterinary community and may know when a practice is coming up for sale, employees who may be looking for work, and may also offer employee training.

21
Q

When implementing control methods for zoonotic disease, treatment or programs are generally focused on reservoirs and hosts. Define reservoirs and hosts in this context.

A

Reservoir is a place where an infectious organism survives and replicates.
A host is the living organisms that provides the environment for the maintenance of the organisms but may not be necessary for the organism’s survival.

22
Q

What is the most common bacteria present in dog and cat bites?

23
Q

When treating a patient with chemotherapeutic drugs, why is it critical to have detailed and thorough communication with the client?

A

Some chemo agents are eliminated in urine and feces of the pet and can potentially expose family members.

24
Q

In regards to gas anesthesia, what are the three types of gas scavenger systems, and which provides the best protection for employees?

A

a. Active scavenger system provides the best protection.
b. Passive system
c. Absorption system

25
Name two steps that should be taken anytime a pregnant woman is working around anesthetic gases.
a. Wear an anesthetic monitoring badge. b. Proper PPE
26
Once a VCPR is established, treatment must continue until (five answers):
1) The animal recovers 2) The practitioner has agreed to all the treatment that was agreed upon. 3) The animal dies 4) The client terminates the VCPR. 5) The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client.
27
There are five strategies to reducing the potential of a malpractice lawsuit and they include continuing education, maintaining thorough medical records, practicing informed consent and what two others?
a. Staff Training b. Referrals
28
What is the Risk Assessment Equation?
Hazards + Vulnerabilities = Risk
29
What are the four priorities of general emergency management and what is the brief definition of each?
a. Mitigation - strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat. b. Preparation - planning and training actions steps that develop the capacity to respond to threats. c. Response - actions taken in the face of an emergency situation. d. Recovery - the process of returning to normal after an emergency event. This could be a lengthy process.