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Flashcards in Sharkey Final Deck (111)
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1

Which statement best describes the hypo pharynx?

a. Adenoids and openings to Eustachian tubes are found here
b. Level C2-3 location
c. Also known as oropharynx
d. Lowermost portion of pharynx, which leads to esophagus and larynx, extending down into trachea

d. Lowermost portion of pharynx, which leads to esophagus and larynx, extending down into trachea

2

Which statement best describes treatment of epiglottitis?

a. Caused by Haemophilus influenza type D bacteria
b. It is appropriate to look into and/or manipulate the oral cavity of the child at home while waiting for EMS to arrive
c. Intubation and extubation are best in controlled environment, where emergent tracheotomy may be prepared for
d. Extubate in the childs room, as long as the parents are present to reassure the child

c. Intubation and extubation are best in controlled environment, where emergent tracheotomy may be prepared for

3

Abducts the vocal cords:

a. Lateral cricoarytenoids
b. Posterior cricoarytenoids
c. Transverse arytenoids
d. None of the above

b. Posterior cricoarytenoids

4

The following drugs are desired for treatment of laryngospasm:

a. 100% oxygen, IV lidocaine, and succinylcholine
b. 100% oxygen, vecuronium, and neostigmine
c. 100% oxygen, succinylcholine, and zofran
d. 100% oxygen, valium, fentanyl, versed, and pancuronium

100% oxygen, IV lidocaine, and succinylcholine

5

Initial treatment of laryngospasm includes:

a. Intubation immediately
b. Ask the patient to cough to clear the airway
c. Head tilt, jaw thrust maneuver with gentle positive airway pressure using 100% oxygen
d. Proceed to recovery room

c. Head tilt, jaw thrust maneuver with gentle positive airway pressure using 100% oxygen

6

The following are factors that may exacerbate bronchospasm:

a. Light depth of anesthesia
b. History of smoking and/or asthma
c. Use of blood products
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

7

When examining your patient preoperatively, you can only see the soft palate and base of uvula. Which Mallampati class is this patient?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

c. Class III

8

When repositioning your patients head, you may expect neck extension or lateral rotation to move the ETT tip:

a. Toward the carina
b. No movement should be expected
c. Away from the carina
d. None of the above

c. Away from the carina

9

The following statement is true regarding LMA:

a. Safe for any patient, any position, any procedure
b. Partially protects the larynx from pharyngeal secretions, but not gastric secretions
c. Remove LMA as soon as the patient starts to spontaneously breathe, even if they are still unable to follow commands
d. Great for morbidly obese and pregnant patients

b. Partially protects the larynx from pharyngeal secretions, but not gastric secretions

10

An important rule during endoscopy is to never advance into a lumen.

a. True b. False

b. False

11

What is the normal resting lower esophageal pressure that prevents reflux of stomach contents?

a. ~100mmHg
b. ~10mmHg
c. ~30mmHg
d. None of the above

c. ~30mmHg

12

In patients with GERD, the normal lower esophageal resting pressure is:

a. Less than normal
b. Higher than normal

Less than normal

13

Drugs that increase the lower esophageal pressure and decrease the risk of gastric aspiration include:

a. Dopamine, thiopental, opioids, propofol
b. Metoclopramide, propofol, antacids, thiopental
c. Edrophonium, neostigmine, metoclopramide, antacids
d. Anticholinergics, neostigmine, prochloperazine, opioids.

c. Edrophonium, neostigmine, metoclopramide, antacids

14

The earliest and most reliable sign of aspiration of gastric contents into the respiratory tract is:

a. Wheezing
b. Coughing
c. Cyanosis
d. Hypoxemia

d. Hypoxemia

15

What is the most common cause of malpractice claims in anesthesia?

a. Death in the OR
b. Tooth damage
c. Sore throat
d. Airway injury

b. Tooth damage

16

Malignant Hyperthermia can be defined as:

a. A life-threatening hypermetabolic syndrome
b. Can occur with or without triggering agents
c. Occurs within skeletal muscle tissue
d. All of the above

All of the above

17

The following may occur in a hypermetabolic state:

a. Increased oxygen consumption and increased carbon dioxide production
b. Severe lactic acidosis and hyperthermia
c. Hyperkalemia and possible arrhythmias
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

18

The most sensitive indicator of Malignant Hyperthermia is:

a. Tachycardia
b. Increase in ETCO2 levels, possible 2-3 times greater than normal
c. Fever
d. Masseter spasm

Increase in ETCO2 levels, possible 2-3 times greater than normal

19

Known triggers of Malignant Hyperthermia include:

a. Benzodiazepenes
b. Narcotics
c. Propofol
d. Inhaled agents and Succinylcholine

Inhaled agents and Succinylcholine

20

“Safe” drugs for Malignant Hyperthermia susceptible patients include:

a. Inhaled general anesthetics
b. Succinylcholine
c. Nitrous Oxide, Propofol, Ketamine
d. Ether

Nitrous Oxide, Propofol, Ketamine

21

The immediate and initial dose for Dantrolene IV in a Malignant Hyperthermia crisis is:

a. 1-1.5 mg/kg IV b. 4.0 mg/kg IV
c. 2.5mg/kg IV d. 10 mg/kg IV

c. 2.5mg/kg IV

22

Suggested maximal (total) dose of Dantrolene IV is:

a. 1-1.5 mg/kg IV
b. 4.0 mg/kg IV
c. 2.5 mg/kg IV
d. 10 mg/kg IV (or more if needed)

10 mg/kg IV (or more if needed)

23

Anesthesia Machine preparation for MH susceptible patients includes:

a. Changing out old soda lima or other CO2 absorbent to brand new
b. Remove or disable vaporizers
c. Use of new disposable circuits, bag, and y pieces
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

24

The best indicator of fluid status in an NPO patient is the urine output.

a. True b. False

True

25

Examples of crystalloids include:

a. Hespan b. Lactated Ringers c. Dextran d. Albumin

Lactated Ringers

26

Examples of colloids include:

a. Hespan b. D5W c. 7.5% NaHCO3 d. Plasmalyte

a. Hespan

27

Examples of nonhemolytic transfusion reaction includes:

a. Febrile reaction b. Urticarial reaction c. Anaphylaxis d. All of the above

All of the above

28

Management of suspected blood transfusion reaction includes:
a. Immediately stop blood and manage immediate patient issues
b. Observe, allow blood to infuse at slower rate, document temperature q 15 minutes
c. Documentation of VS, allow blood to infuse at a faster rate

Immediately stop blood and manage immediate patient issues

29

Emergent blood transfusion “emergency release” blood is:

a. B Positive b. O Rh Negative c. AB Negative d. A Positive

O Rh Negative

30

Ideally, it is best to adequately hydrate the patient prior to induction.

a. True b. False

True