Spring Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

3 functions of the cerebellum

But the primary function is:

A
  1. Regulates equilibrium
  2. Muscle tone and posture
  3. Motor Coordination for voluntary movements (in near future and during execution)

Motor adaptation

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2
Q

The three deep nuclei of the cerebellum are the:

The _ has two parts, the _ and the _

A

Dentate
Interposed Nucleus
Fastigal

Interposed nucleus
Emboliform
Globose

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3
Q

The three cerebellar peduncles connect the _ and the _

A

Cerebellum

Brainstem

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4
Q

The inferior cerebellar peduncle has two parts:

Where do they get their inputs from?
What do they do?

A

Restiform body:
inputs from spinal cord and brainstem
monitors muscle and limb movement

Juxtarestiform body:
interconnects vestibular nuclei and cerebellum
Doesn’t say what it does

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5
Q

Middle cerebellar peduncle does what 2 things

A
  • Gets Afferent from contralateral basis pontis

- relays motor signals from cerebral cortex

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6
Q

Superior cerebellar peduncle contains what

A

Mostly efferent fibers to red nucleus and VL thalamus

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7
Q

Inferior olivary nuclei are involved in what two things

A

Motor learning

Acquisition of new motor skills

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8
Q

The three layers of the cerebellar cortex are the

A

Molecular layer
Purkinje cell layer
Granule layer

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9
Q

Cortical afferent fibers are _

Cortical efferent fibers are _

A

Excitatory

Inhibitory

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10
Q

Synonym for excitatory is _

Synonym for inhibitory is _

A

Glutaminergic

GABAnergic

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11
Q

Mossy fibers synapse at _

A

Granule cells

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12
Q

Granule cell axons are called _

They travel perpendicular and through _

A

Parallel fibers

Purkinje cell axons

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13
Q

_ cells inhibit granule cells

A

Golgi cells

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14
Q

The three main functions of the cerebellum are:

A

Equilibrium
Muscle tone and posture
Coordinating voluntary movement

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15
Q

What is fractionated somatotopy

A

Body part is represented in multiple places in cerebellum

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16
Q

How are the homunculi oriented in the cerebellum

A

Axial muscles more toward midline

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17
Q

The three functional subdivisions of the cerebellum and the nucleus that each is associated with

A
Vestibulocerebellum
   -fastigial nucleus
Spinocerebellum
   -dentate nucleus
Pontocerebellum
   -interposed nucleus
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18
Q

Vestibulocerebellum functions (2)

A

Control of eye movement in response to head movements

Balance

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19
Q

Spinocerebellum has what functions

A

Posture and gait

Coordination of trunk and limb movements

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20
Q

Neo/pontocerebellum functions

A

Planning the timing of movements

Coordination of speech

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21
Q

3 other important functions of the cerebellum

A

Cognition
Speech
Emotion

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22
Q

The diencephalon is made up of what 4 parts

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus
Subthalamus

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23
Q

The limbic system is made up of what 3 things

A

Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Amygdala

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24
Q

Which sensory pathways don’t relay in the thalamus

A

Olfaction only

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25
What divides the different thalamic nuclei
Internal medullary lamina
26
Which thalamic nuclei division is the largest
Lateral
27
Thalamic nuclei consist of what two types of neurons
``` Projection neurons (output from thal.) Interneurons (inhibitory) ```
28
The two types of thalamic inputs are
Specific inputs (from a thalamic nucleus to cortex) Regulatory inputs (from cortex)
29
Three categories of thalamic nuclei
1. Relay nuclei 2. Association nuclei 3. Intralaminar & midline nuclei
30
Relay nuclei receive input from a _ source and project to the _
Subcortical Cortex
31
Why is the reticular nucleus particularly important
Everything has to pass through it, so it is a major regulatory nucleus
32
Why is the reticular nucleus unique?
It has no projections to cortex (unlike all other thalamic nuclei)
33
Reticular nucleus output:
Inhibitory axons to thalamus
34
8 thalamic relay nuclei
``` Anterior Lateral dorsal VA VL VPL VPM MGN LGN ```
35
The two main association nuclei
DM | Pulvinar
36
The DM is associated with what part of the brain
Prefrontal
37
Pulvinar is associated with what area of the brain
Parietal-Occipital-Temporal complex
38
The LP nucleus Type: Input: Output:
Association Parietal lobe Parietal cortex
39
The putamen and globus pallidus make up the _
Lenticular nucleus
40
What passes through the internal capsule
Thalamocortical and corticothalamic fibers
41
The five parts of the internal capsule and what they are made of
1. Anterior limb a. Lenticular nucleus b. Caudate 2. Posterior limb a. Lenticular nucleus b. Thalamus 3. Genu (b/t A&P limbs) 4. Retrolenticular (b/h lenticular nucleus) 5. Sublenticular part (b/n lenticular nucleus)
42
Hypothalaums is important in what 5 functions
``` Autonomic Endocrine Emotional Somatic Maintaining homeostasis ```
43
The 4 longitudinal regions of the hypothalamus are: The 3 medial-lateral regions of the hypothalamus are:
Preoptic Anterior Tuberal Posterior Lateral Medial Periventricular
44
How does the hypothalamus control the pituitary
Superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries supply the pituitary and transmit hormones
45
How do pituitary hormones get to the rest of the body
Capillaries from pituitary drain into cavernous sinus then to systemic circulation
46
3 main types of hypothalamic connections
1. Interconnected with limbic system 2. Output to pituitary 3. Interconnects visceral/somatic nuclei
47
The two arteries that supply the pituitary
Superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries
48
Parvocellular: end in _ 3 nuclei Magnocellular: end in _ 2 nuclei
Median eminence Preoptic Ventromedial Arcuate Posterior lobe Paraventricular Supraoptic
49
Parvocellular nuclei control what part of the pituitary? Magnocellular nucleI?
Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary
50
Two hormones from posterior part?
ADH Oxytocin The rest are anterior
51
Anterior hypothalamus has what autonomic effects Posterior?
Anterior = parasympathetic Posterior = sympathetic
52
The two hypothalamic nuclei that control feeding? Stimulation and lesion of each do what
Lateral and ventromedial nuclei Lateral: Stimulation = feeding Lesion = refuse food VM: Stimulation = refuse food Lesion = feeding
53
The ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus is involved in feeding as well as _
Rage and fear
54
3 steps in cortisol release in males
1. Corticotropin RH released by paraventricular nucleus 2. ACTH release in pituitary 3. Increase in cortisol from adrenal gland
55
what area is activated in males in fight or flight response
lateral prefrontal cortex
56
other than the 4 F's, what are 2 other hypothalamic functions
sleep/wake | memory
57
2 key areas for hypothalamic input
forebrain, esp limbic sys. brainstem/spinal cord
58
The main functions of the limbic system are
Feelings | Emotions
59
Amygdala functions
Emotional responses
60
Hippocampus functions
Learning | Memory
61
Main source of Afferent to hippocampus 2 minor sources
Entorhinal cortex Septal nuclei Fornix
62
3 zones of the hippocampus
Dentate Hippocampus proper (CA1-4) Subiculum
63
The two important Efferent from the hippocampus go to the _ and _ front the _ and _
Fornix from the subiculum | Sensory cortex from entorhinal cortex
64
The fímbria of the hippocampus is continuous with the
Fornix
65
6 steps of papez circuit
1. Cingulate gyrus 2. Entorhinal cortex 3. Hippocampus 4. Fornix 5. Mammillothalamic tract 6. Anterior nucleus of thalamus to cingulate cortex
66
Consolidation is what
Storing new info in long term memory
67
HM had only what kind of memory
Working memory
68
Left hippo does what | Right?
Language | Spatial tasks
69
Novel material is more _, as it is more familiar, it moves _
Anterior | Posterior
70
3 nuclei in the amygdala and what they do
Medial - olfaction Central - emotional responses Basolateral - emotional responses
71
Amygdala Afferents come from
Sensory association areas
72
General sense of emotional and physical discomfort/comfort to the amygdala comes from _
Orbital cortex and cingulate
73
Visceral sensory to amygdala comes from
Brainstem and PAG
74
Vision, taste, hearing, somatosensory to amygdala comes from
Cortex and thalamus
75
Stria terminalis is what
An amygdala efferent from central nucleus
76
Ventral amygdalofugal pathway is what and synapses with what
Amygdala efferent | Synapses with nucleus accumbens
77
Fibers leave the amygdala through what two pathways
Stria terminalis | VAG pathway
78
Amygdala output to ventral striatum is involved in what
Drive related info to influence decisions about movement
79
Kluver-Bucy syndrome is what
No fear, male = hypersexual, attention to all sensory stimuli, eat weird things, recognize nothing
80
Nucleus accumbens is aka
Ventral striatum
81
Limbic loop is what
Limbic system to ventral striatum -> ventral pallidum -> dorsomedial nucleus of thalamus VS dopamine release from ventral tegmental area in midbrain
82
The 4 main parts of the basal ganglia are the:
Striatum Globus pallidus Subthalamic nucleus Substantial nigra
83
The striatum is made of what 3 parts
Caudate Nucleus accumbens Putamen
84
The lenticular nucleus is made of what things
Putamen | Globus pallidus
85
The _ separates the P and GP from the C
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
86
The two types of substantia nigra are: and they are distinguished by _
Compact and Reticular Pigmented neurons in compact Reticular is closer to CP
87
Huntington's disease is caused by degeneration of what
Striatum
88
Huntington's disease symptoms are:
Chorea(rapid movements of face and limbs) rigidity cognitive disturbances
89
When does Huntington's set in
About 50 years
90
Basal ganglia movement disorders (3)
Involuntary movement (chorea) Difficulty initiating movement Perturbed muscle tone
91
The 4 circuits of the basal ganglia and what they do
``` Motor loop -learned movements Cognitive loops -motor intentions Limbic loop -emotional aspects of movement Oculomotor loop -voluntary saccades ```
92
T/F the basal ganglia initiates motor movements
FALSE
93
What is the BG's role in motor control?
Influence descending motor pathway by modulating cortical activity
94
1-4 of the BG motor loop
1. Somatosensory and motor cortex 2. Striatum (mostly putamen) 3. GPi 4. VA/VL in thalamus Then back to somatosensory/motor cortex
95
BG cognitive loop is involved in what two things
Motor learning Planning movements ahead (esp. complex)
96
When a motor task is practiced extensively, which loop is involved?
Motor loop (instead of cognitive loop)
97
The cognitive loop steps
Prefrontal cortex Caudate Globus Pallidus VA Back to prefrontal cortex
98
Limbic loop does what
Gives expression to emotions (smile, gesture, aggressive posture etc)
99
Steps in the limbic loop
From inferior prefrontal cortex Through ventral striatum Ventral pallidum DMN Back to inferior prefrontal cortex
100
The BG oculomotor loop goes from what parts
Frontal eye field & posterior parietal cortex Caudate SN reticular part VA Then back to 1st
101
What part of the oculomotor loop is activated when eyes are fixed on an object?
SN reticular part
102
What is disinhibition and of what part is it a major feature
It is stopping the inhibition by adding a silent neuron after the inhibiting neuron It's a major feature of neuronal activity in the basal ganglia
103
Basic circuit of basal ganglia
Cerebral cortex Striatum GPi Thalamus
104
If the GPi is less active, what happens to the thalamus and cortex (direct pathway)
- Less inhibition on thalamus - Increased thalamic excitation to cortex - More cortical output
105
5 steps in direct pathway
1. (Excitatory) Corticostriate fibers activate (inhibitory) neurons in striatum 2. Striatum inhibits GPi 3. Thalamus disinhibited 4. Thalamus activates cortex 5. Increased cortical output
106
In general, the indirect pathway does what
Disfacilitates neurons to suppress unwanted movements
107
Main difference between direct and indirect BG pathways
Indirect has excitation of GPi ultimately resulting in less cortical output
108
What is in the indirect pathway that isn't in direct
Subthalamus
109
Hemiballismus symptoms
Flailing limb movements
110
Parkinson's disease is due to what
Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers in the substantia nigra
111
Substantia nigra reticular part input is similar to that of the _
GPi
112
Nigrostriatal fibers have two pathways _ and _ based on _
D1/D2 | Dopamine receptor expression
113
D1 receptors are _, D2 receptors are _
D1: facilitatory D2: inhibitory
114
How to treat parkinson's?
Levodopa - replace dopamine lost | Pallidotomy - take out globus pallidus
115
From an external view, how can you tell if you are looking at a R or L tympanic membrane
The lateral process of the malleus will point up and to the side it's on (up/right for right side)
116
Approximately, what are the dimensions of the middle ear cavity
10 x 10 x 6 mm
117
The two regions of the middle ear are:
Tympanic cavity proper | Epitympanic recess
118
Superiorly, the epitympanic membrane is continuous with the _
Aditus of the mastoid antrum
119
The _ m. Runs parallel to auditory tube, the _ m. Runs perpendicular to it
Levator veli palatini | Tensor veli palatini
120
The walls of the middle ear:
``` Roof: tegmen tympani Floor: jugular wall Lateral: tympanic membrane Medial: inner ear Ant: carotid wall Post: mastoid wall ```
121
The promontory in the middle ear is _ and it it is on the _ wall
Protuberance facing tympanic membrane Medial
122
The oval window is also called _ and receives _ and is located _ Round window is also called _
Fenestra vestibuli Receives base of stapes Under base of stapes on medial middle ear Fenestra cochlea (Membrane covered)
123
The two prominences on the medial wall of the middle ear are the _ that covers the _ and the _ that covers the _
Facial canal Facial nerve Lateral semicircular canal
124
What tendon is on the medial wall of the middle ear
Tensor tympani
125
What is the origin of the stapedius and on what wall is it
Pyramidal eminence | On posterior wall (mastoid)
126
Pharyngotympanic tube and middle ear have what kind of epithelial tissue
P tube: ciliated pseudostratified columnar mid. Ear: simple squamous
127
The tympanic membrane is attached to the _ bone, which is attached to the _, which is attached to the _ which is attached to the oval window
Malleus Incus Stapes
128
The two muscles of the middle ear are: What do they do
Tensor tympani Stapedius Act to reduce oscillations of ossicles Protects inner ear from injury during loud noises
129
What is the smallest striated muscle in the body
Stapedius
130
Stapedius is innervated by _
CN VII
131
Tensor tympani m. Is innervated by+
CN V3
132
Middle ear arteries: Veins: Drain to?
Tympanic branches (ant., inf., sup., stylomastoid, caroticotympanic) Accompanying veins. Drain to sup. Petrosal sinus or pterygoid plexus
133
Chorda tympani passes between _ and _ in the middle ear, then goes and travels with _ and eventually supplies _ with _
Malleus and incus Lingual n. Anterior 2/3 tongue with special sensory
134
Greater petrosal is a branch off _ Carries _ fibers to _ Joins _ to form _
Geniculate ganglion of VII P-symp fibers to pterygopal. Gang Deep petrosal to form n. Of pterygoid canal
135
Tympanic plexus covers _ | It's formed by _ nerves
Promontory in middle ear | Caroticotympanic nerves
136
Lesser petrosal n. Comes off the _
Tympanic plexus
137
Lesser petrosal carries _ to otic ganglion
P-symp fibers
138
Otic ganglion supplies _ to the _
P-symp to the parotid gland
139
The cochlea begins at the _ and ends at the _
Oval window | Round window
140
The fluid between bony and membranous labyrinths is _ it is similar to _ and _ and has a _ charge
Perilymph Extracellular fluid and CSF +
141
Fluid in membranous labyrinth is _. It is similar to _ and has a _ charge
Endolymph Intracellular fluid - charge
142
Endolymph is secreted by _ cells
Stria vascularis
143
Endolymph is reabsorbed in the _
Endolymphatic sac
144
Auditory and vestibular receptors are _ within the _
Hair cells | Membranous labyrinth
145
The apical part of stereocilia projects into _ and the basal surface synapses with _ of _
Endolymph | Peripheral processes of CN VIII
146
Tallest stereocilia | Project into what
Kinocilium | Gelatinous mass
147
How are stereocilia connected
At the tip
148
What determines which stimulus hair cells are more sensitive to
Subtle Differences in physical arrangements
149
What is the auditory receptor organ
Organ of corti
150
The cochlea is suspended in _ and filled with _
Perilymph | Endolymph
151
Cochlea does _ turns
2 3/4
152
Trace sound from ossicular chain to round window
``` Ossicular chain Oval window Scala vestibuli Helicotrema Scala tympani Round window ```
153
How can the cochlea determine Intensity Frequency Location
I: determined by rate and number of nerves firing F: location on basilar membrane/organ of corti L: compares stimuli b/t ears
154
Cochlear implants work when _ are damaged but _ are intact Electrodes enter _ into _
Cochlear hair cells VIII endings Round window into scala tympani
155
Ascending auditory info
Hair cells Primary afferents Dorsal/ventral cochlear nucleus(synapse) Dorsal cochlear nucleus Lateral lemniscus Ventral cochlear nucleus Superior olivary nucleus Trapezoid body Lateral lemniscus Lateral lemniscus Inferior colliculus MGN transverse temporal gyri
156
3 main functions of vestibular system
Regulate posture Coordinate eye movements Coordinate head movements
157
The 2 bony parts and 2 membranous parts of the vestibular division
Bony: 1 vestibule 3 semicircular CANALS Memb: 2 otolithic organs (saccule/utricle) 3 semicircular DUCTS
158
An ampulla of a semicircular duct contains 2 main things:
Crista (supporting cells) | Cupula (gelatinous mass)
159
The cupula responds to _
Angular acceleration
160
The semicircular ducts are not able to detect _
Continuous rotation
161
Tuft of hair cells of utricle and saccule
Macula
162
Gelatinous mass that kinocilium project into
Otolithic membrane
163
The movements that the Utricle Saccule Detect
U: forward/backward and side/side S: forward/backward and up/down
164
Vestibular primary afferents
Hair cells Peripheral processes of vestibular division of CN VIII Vestibular ganglion Cerebellum and vestibular nuclei
165
The 4 vestibular nuclei in the vestibular nuclear complex on each side
Inferior Superior Medial Lateral
166
4 things are projected into the vestibular nuclei:
Cerebellum Spinal cord Visual info Contralateral vestibular nuclei
167
6 projections out of vestibular nuclei
``` Spinal cord Cerebellum Nuclei of III, IV, VI Contralateral vestibular nuclei Thalamus -> cerebral cortex Visceral nuclei ```
168
Vestibular nuclei projection to the spinal cord can be divided into two parts: what are they and what do they control?
Lateral vestibulospinal tract -stabilize posture (ipsilateral) Medial vestibulospinal tract -stabilize head (bilateral)
169
Vestibular projections to nuclei of CN III, IV, and VI do what
Generate eye movements that compensate for head movements
170
What is nystagmus and what does it do
Small rapid eye movements | Keep images on retina during movement
171
How does alcohol affect balance
Alcohol penetrates inner ear, makes it so cupula density is different than endolymph
172
3 senses that work together for position
Vestibular Proprioceptive Visual
173
Heart starts beating when
Start of week 4, first organ to function
174
In general, 3 movements the heart does to develop
Folds Loops Septates
175
Progenitor heart cells migrate through primitive streak into _
Splanchnic layer of lateral plate mesoderm
176
Primary heart field
Horseshoe shaped cluster of cells
177
_ induces PHF to form blood islands and vessels
Endoderm
178
_ form when blood islands unite in the cardiogenic region
Endocardial tubes
179
The endocardial tubes fuse during _ folding to form _
Lateral | Primordial heart tube
180
Initially, the heart tube is attached to pericardial cavity via the _ When that disappears, the _ forms
Dorsal mesocardium Transverse pericardial sinus
181
The three canal parts of the heart tube after folding
Primary interventricular foramen Atrioventricular canal Sinoatrial canal
182
The two parts of the bulbus cordis are
Truncus arteriosus | Conus cordis
183
Circulation through primary heart
``` Sinus venosus Primordial atrium AV canal L ventricle (primordial) IV foramen R Ventricle Conus cordis Truncus arteriosus Aortic sac Pharyngeal aa. Dorsal aortae ```
184
Sinus venosus receives blood from what 3 paired veins
Vitelline Umbilical Common cardinal
185
Remodeling of the three veins due to blood flow causes the _ horn of sinus venosus to become larger than the left
Right horn
186
The coronary sinus comes from which horn
Left sinus horn
187
The smooth part of the right atrium comes from the
Sinus venarum
188
The septa form from
4 av endocardial cushions
189
At week 4, a crest of tissue called _ grows from the roof of the atrium. Then _ forms and eventually _ forms through both of them
Septum primum Septum secundum Foramen ovale
190
Truncal and bulbar ridges are formed from
Neural crest cells
191
How does the aorticopulmonary septum form
180˚ twist of truncal and bulbar ridges
192
What is the most common congenital heart defect
Ventricular septal defect
193
What is VSD
Failure of IV septum to completely form
194
4 symptoms of tetralogy of fallot
Pulmonary artery stenosis VSD Dextroposition of aorta R ventricular hypertrophy
195
Other names for aortic arch arteries
Pharyngeal arch arteries | Branchial (gill) arch arteries
196
7 aortic arches, dorsal aorta, aortic sac and all their derivatives
1. maxillary a 2. Stapedial/ hyoid a 3. Common carotid 4. L-part of aortic arch R- part of r. Subclavian 6. L-pulmonary a/ductus arteriosus R-pulmonary a 7th segmental a. - subclavian Dorsal aorta -L descending thoracic aorta -R part of r subclavian Aortic sac -L part of aortic arch -R brachiocephalic trunk
197
What does the left recurrent laryngeal get stuck on to make it sit lower than the right
Ligamentum arteriosum (6th arch)
198
The intercostal and lumbar aa form from _
Intersegmental arteries
199
Vitelline a. Forms two arteries
Celiac a. | Superior mesenteric a
200
Umbilical a. Forms the - and with a secondary connection with the dorsal aorta, forms the _. After birth, proximal portions become the _ and _
Inferior mesenteric a. Common iliac a. Internal ilian Superior vesical
201
The three major veins in the embryonic venous system are:
Vitelline veins Umbilical veins Cardinal veins
202
Umbilical veins carry _ from placenta to embryo
Oxygenated blood
203
How do hepatic sinusoids form
Liver cords invade vitelline veins
204
IVC and SVC come from part of the _ veins
Vitelline
205
Ductus venosus forms from _
Umbilical veins
206
L umbilical v will become _ | Ductus venosus becomes _
Ligamentum teres hepatis | Ligamentum venosum
207
Posterior cardinal veins become what 2
Common iliac veins | Sacral portion of IVC
208
Ant. Cardinal veins become what 3
Brachiocephalic v Int. Jugular Ext. jugular
209
Supracardinal vv become what 4
Intercostal v Hemiazygous v Azygous v Segment of IVC inf. To kidneys
210
Subcardinal vv become what 3
(Kidneys and around kidneys) Renal veins Gonadal veins Renal segment of IVC
211
Common cardinal v becomes what
SVC
212
6 primary lymph sacs
Jugular (2) Iliac (2) Retroperitoneal Cisterna chyli
213
Basic functions of the cortex
Language Abstract thinking Adapt to environment
214
Neocortex has _ layers
6
215
Most prevalent type of neuron
Pyramidal cells
216
T/F pyramidal cells are inhibitory
False, excitatory glutamate synapses
217
Dendritic spines are involved in what
Modified as a result of learning
218
Length of pyramidal cells vs. non-pyramidal cells
Pyramidal are long and can extend to other places | Non are short and remain in cortex
219
Non-pyramidal cells make _ synapses
Inhibitory (GABA)
220
3 types of nonpyramidal cells
Spiny stellate (excitatory) Smooth stellate Bipolar
221
Five sources of afferents to cortex | Where theyre from
Association fibers (from ipsi. Cortex) Commissural fibers Thalamocortical fibers (relay/assoc. nuc) Non-specific thalamocortical fibers (intralam. Nuc) Cholinergic and aminergic (basal forebrain, hypothal., brainstem)
222
All efferents from cortex are _ cells and all are _
Pyramidal cells | Excitatory
223
6 types of efferents from cortex
``` Short association (sens to motor) Long association (pref. To motor) Commissural (contra cerebrum via cc) Primary sensory/motor cortex Thalamus Corticopontine/spinal/bulbar ```
224
Commissures do what
Interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
225
Smell crosses at the
Anterior commissure
226
What is alexia without agraphia and how is it caused
Can write but can't read | From white matter damage (disconnection syndrome)
227
What are association bundles
Nerves that interconnect areas of one hemisphere
228
Neocortex shows _ specialization
Regional
229
4 types of cortical regions
Primary motor Primary sensory Association Limbic
230
3 parietal lobe functions
Initial processing of tactile and proprioceptive info (postcentral) Language comprehension (left inf. Parietal lobe) Complex aspects of spatial orientation and directing attention
231
Primary visual cortex is in _
Banks of calcarine sulcus
232
LGN gets input from _ and is arranged how
Eyes | In 6 layers
233
LGN projects to _
Primary visual cortex
234
How do optic radiations end and where
Retinotopically above and below calcarine sulcus Inferior above calcarine Superior below Macula posterior Peripheral anterior
235
What does the primary visual cortex do in vision It is an example of _
Breaks down visual info into component parts Distributes this info to specialized parts Example of simultaneous parallel processing
236
In the cortex, neurons are functionally arranged in +
Columns
237
The gustatory part of the cortex is in what two places
Frontal lobe | Insula
238
T/F the primary olfactory cortex is neocortical
FALSE, it is paleocortical
239
Unimodal association cortex does what Multimodal?
Elaborating on business of primary area High level intellectual functions
240
The dominant hemisphere is the _
One that produces and comprehends language (usually left)
241
Why does the left lateral sulcus extend farther than the right
The planum temporale is larger on left
242
Language areas are near the left lateral sulcus which is close to _
Motor cortex controlling mouth
243
Broca's area is where | Wernickes?
Broca: inferior frontal gyrus Wernicke: posterior part of superior temporal gyrus
244
Two types of aphasia and what causes them
Nonfluent: - few written/spoken words - can comprehend language - damage in broca's area Fluent: - word salad - can write - make up new words - don't comprehend language wellq
245
Damage to broca's area does what? Wernicke's?
B: motor areas can't generate language (frontal lobe) -can still comprehend W: words generated but no meaning
246
What connects wernickes and brocas areas
Arcuate fasciculus
247
With which parts of language does the right hemi deal?
Musical aspects of speech (prosody) | Emotional content
248
Damage to parietal cortex results in
Sensory specific agnosia Can't recognize faces Can't perceive movement
249
Right parietal lobe damage results in trouble with _
Left half of body | Ignore left half of body
250
Apraxias comes from injury to _
Left parietal lobe | Lack of action
251
Two types of prefrontal cortex, functions
Dorsolateral - working memory, problem solving | Ventromedial - damage makes people impulsive, inappropriate
252
Fibrous rings and fibrous trigones of the heart are made of _ tissue
Dense irregular
253
The fibrous skeleton of the heart is in which layer
Myocardium
254
Three components of the endocardium
Endothelial cells Subendothelial layer Subendocardial layer
255
R AV Valve: | L AV Valve
Tricuspid | Bicuspid/mitral
256
Three layers of the heart valves
Spongiosa - loose conn. Covered in endothelium, on atrial side of valve Fibrosa - core of valve, dense irregular extensions from skeletal rings Ventricularis - dense connective tissue with layers of elastic, on ventricular side of valve
257
Two types of cardiac conducting cells
Nodal cardiac cells | Purkinje fibers
258
Heart conducting cell path
``` SA node AV node AV bundle (of His) R/L bundle branches Purkinje fibers ```
259
Blood in arteries first goes through _ or _ arteries, then _ or _ arteries, then arterioles or _ vessels
Elastic or conducting Muscular or distributing Resistance
260
Layers of blood vessels
``` Tunica Intima (interna) -endothelium -basal lamina -subendothelial layer Tunica media Tunica externa (adventitia) ```
261
Thickest layer in arteries/veins
A: media V: externa
262
Elastic arteries, muscular arteries, small arteries, arterioles diameter
Elastic > 10 mm > muscular > 2 mm > small > 0.1 mm > arterioles > 100 µm
263
Three types of capillaries
Continuous Fenestrated Discontinuous
264
Fenestrated capillaries are found in _
Endocrine glands
265
Discontinuous capillaries are found in which 3 places
Liver Spleen Bone marrow
266
Another name for AV anastamoses is
Metarteriole-thoroughfare channel
267
Blood flow through capillary beds is regulated by
Precapillary sphincters
268
Precapillary sphincters contract/relax
Relax: blood to capillary beds Contract: blood to AV anastomoses
269
Size of veins
10, 1, .1, 0.01
270
Valves in veins are a part of the _ layer
Tunica intima
271
3 functions of lymphatic system
``` Drain interstitial fluid Alternative transport route -hormones -nutrients -waste Immune response ```
272
Organs included as components of lymphatic system
Spleen Bone marrow Thymus
273
Lymphatic vessels begin as _ and travel within _
Blind ended capillaries | Loose connective tissue
274
Why do lymphatic capillaries have high permeability
Tubes lack continuous basal lamina
275
Extracellular fluid vs. lymph
Lymph once it's in lymphatic vessel
276
T/F there is a central pump in the lymphatic system
FALSE
277
Two main lymphatic channels
Thoracic duct - majority of body | R lymphatic duct - RUL, right thorax, right head/neck
278
Lymphatic vessels vs. blood vessel slides
No RBCs in lymphatic vessels
279
Lymphocytes
B, T, NK
280
B cells are what % of lymphocytes T cells? NK?
20-30 60-80 5-10
281
Diffuse lymph. Tissue is found where
Alimentary canal Resp. Tract Genitourinary tract
282
T/F diffuse lymphatic tissue is surrounded by connective tissue capsule T/F lymph nodes are surrounded by connective tissue capsule
FALSE FALSE
283
1˚ vs. 2˚ nodules
Secondary has light staining germinal center in middle
284
Two areas of secondary nodules
Germinal center - response to antigen, when lymphocyte binds antigen, returns, proliferates Mantle zone - small lymphocytes
285
Aggregations of lymphatic nodules are found in what 3 places
Tonsils Peyer's patches Vermiform appendix
286
Tonsils on slides
Have tonsillar crypts | Have lymphatic nodules
287
MALT | GALT BALT
Mucosa Gut Bronchus
288
T/F lymph nodes are encapsulated
TRUE
289
Reticular cells do what
Make and secrete reticular fibers and ground substance Supporting role Express surface molecules to attract T/B/dendritic cells
290
FDC's
Follicular dendritic cells Long cytoplasmic processes b/t B cells in germinal centers Trap antigens Stimulate B cells
291
Parenchyma of lymph node is divided into what two parts
Cortex | Medulla
292
Cortex has which two parts
``` Superficial (nodular) -1˚ nodules - small lymphocytes -2˚ nodules - germinal centers Deep (paranodular) -majority of T cells ```
293
Medulla consists of what
Medullary cords separated by medullary sinuses
294
Filtration of lymph occurs where
Sinuses (subcapsular, trabecular, medullary)
295
From blood, lymphocytes enter lymph nodes through
HEV
296
What happens in the thymus after puberty
T cell differentiation and proliferation are reduced
297
The thymus looks like
A giraffe
298
The lines around the spots of the thymus are
Trabeculae
299
Thymus medulla characteristic feature, made of _
Thymic (Hassall's) corpuscles | Type VI epithelioreticular cells (flattened nuclei, eosinophilic)
300
Epithelioreticular cells in cortex and medulla of thymus
I, II, III in cortex | IV, V, VI in medulla
301
Spleen contains two pulps
Red: filters blood Splenic sinuses Splenic cords (billroth) White: splenic artery, central artery PALS - lymphocyte agg. Around central art.
302
Splenic sinus wall
Lattice to let blood cells pass through | Macrophage processes extend b/t cells to look for antigen
303
Lung bud separates from foregut how
Tracheoesophageal septum forms
304
Laryngeal cartilages and musculature arise from phary arch
4/6
305
Epiglottis forms from
Mesenchyme of caudal hypopharyngeal eminence
306
Lary mm. From 4th arch are innervated by _ Lary mm arising from 6th arch are innervated by _
Superior laryngeal n. | Recurrent laryngeal n.
307
Lung bud divides into how many bronchial buds
2 primary buds Right: 3 secondary, 10 tertiary Left: 2 secondary, 8 tertiary
308
Splanchnic mesoderm becomes _ | Somatic mesoderm becomes _
Visceral pleura | Parietal pleura
309
Pseudoglandular period Canalicular period Terminal sac Alveolar
PG: 5-16 Can: 16-26 TS: 26 to birth Alv. 8 mo to childhood
310
Why can't babies born up to 16 weeks (pseudoglandular) survive
No terminal sacs
311
Surfactant production begins
20-22 weeks
312
3 functions of resp system
Air conduction Air filtration Gas exchange
313
Olfactory epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
314
2 functional divisions of resp sys
Conducting div | Respiratory div
315
Epithelial types of the three parts of the pharynx
Naso: ciliated ps columnar Oro: non-ker strat squamous Lary: non-ker strat squamous
316
Vestibular folds covered in _ | Vocal folds covered in _
Respiratory ep | Non-ker strat squam
317
Why is there no cartilage on the posterior side of the trachea
Esophagus needs room to expand
318
How does the resp system change as you get farther on
Less cartilage More smooth muscle Shorter ps columnar ep cell
319
80% of terminal bronchiole epithelium, what do they do
Clara cells, make surfactant
320
Respiratory bronchiole epithelium
Cuboidal
321
Progression from respiratory bronchioles
Resp bronchioles Alveolar duct Alveolar sacs Alveoli
322
Alveolar duct walls
Almost no walls
323
of alveoli per lung
150-250 million
324
What separates alveoli
Interalveolar septa
325
5 cells of alveoli
``` Type I alveolar (squamous) Type II alveolar (cuboidal) Alveolar macrophages (dust cell) Endothelial cells Fibroblasts ```
326
Air-blood barrier is made of
1. Surface lining and cytoplasm of alveolar cells 2. Fused basal laminae of alveolar cells/capillary endothelial cells 3. Cytoplasm of endothelial cells
327
The four important parts of a rib
Head Tubercle Angle Costal groove
328
The pectoral region of the thoracic wall is supplied by _ a/v and _ nn
Internal thoracic a/v | Lat/ant. nn. Of 4th to 6th intercostal nn
329
Pec minor is enveloped in
Clavipectoral fascia
330
Intercostally, from sup to inf. The order of the vessels/nerves is:
``` V A N N A V ```
331
Obfusion of the lung
White stuff over the lung in the radiograph
332
Pneumothorax vs. hemothorax
Air in pleural cavity | Blood in pleural cavity
333
Where do you do a pleural tap
ICS 6/7 | lower you'll hit diaphragm, liver, spleen
334
_ lung has horizontal fissure
R
335
R lung has _ depressions | L lung has _ depressions
S/IVC | Aorta
336
Tracheal bifurcation is at _ level
T4
337
3 things in the root of the lung
Bronchi Pulmonary vessels Pulmonary ligament
338
Sympathetic trunk for lungs
Paravertebral | Dilates lungs
339
What does the vagus do to the lungs
Constricts bronchioles
340
The _ nn pass posteriorly to the root of the lung, but the _ pass anteriorly
Vagus n Phrenic Pericardiacophrenic vessels
341
Pericardiacophrenic vessels are branches of
Int. Thoracic and | Brachiocephalic
342
Divisions of the mediastinum
``` Superior Inferior -ant. -mid. -post. ```
343
The mediastinum extends from _ to _
Thoracic inlet | 12th thoracic vertebra
344
The two parts of the pericardium
Fibrous (attached to diaphragm) | Serous (parietal/visceral)
345
8 things to pierce pericardium
``` SVC IVC Aorta Pulm trunk 4 pulm vv. ```
346
Pericardial effusion
Fluid in cavity, compression of heart
347
Auscultation points for heart
L/R 2nd rib | 5th rib space next to sternum, midclavicular
348
Interventricular septum is supplied by
R/L coronary arteries. R does sup 1/3
349
Great cardiac vein | Middle cardiac vein
Anterior | Posterior
350
The _ is used for coronary artery bypass grafts
Great saphenous vein
351
Heart receives sympathetic innervation from _ | Parasymp from _
T1-T5 | Vagus
352
Superior mediastinum ends at
Sternal angle
353
Aortic arch begins and ends at
T4-T5
354
3 great arteries from aortic arch
Brachiocephalic trunk L common carotid L subclavian
355
Phrenic nerves come from _
C3-C5
356
Tracheal bifurcation is called
Carina
357
The _ side off the carina is shorter, wider and more vertical The _ side off the carina is longer and things get stuck here
R | L
358
Arteries to esophagus
Thoracic Bronchial Ascending L gastic
359
Hiatal hernia types
``` Sliding -stomach slides into thorax Paraesophageal -fixed is dangerous -fundus moves into thorax ```
360
The two spaces posterior to the posterior mediastinum
Danger space | Retropharyngeal
361
The L vagus makes the _ and the R vagus makes the _
L-anterior | R-posterior
362
The azygous v drains what | Hemiazygous and accessory azygous drain what
Azy - intercostal vv. From R side to SVC | Hemiazy/acc azy - L thorax to azy
363
The thoracic duct enters at
Venous angle between L subclavian and L IJV
364
Chylothorax
Lymph in pleural cavity from lymphoma or trauma during thoracic surgery
365
The splanch are _ fibers The greater splanch gets fibers from: Lesser: Least:
Pregang symp (gang on organs) G: T5-T9 L: T10/11 Least: 12
366
Parasymp to thoracic cavity come from
vagus
367
3 thoracic plexuses
Cardiac Pulmonary Esophageal