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mike Mike > Sys 3 > Flashcards

Sys 3 Flashcards

(99 cards)

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1
Q

Does APU have self-sealing fuel lines?

A

No

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2
Q

APU system provides what two powers/purpose?

A

Pneumatic (main engine starting and cabin heating) and electrical (ground operations and in flight emergency electrical power).

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3
Q

You can operate the aircraft without the APU but you risk:

A

Not being able to do certain inflight EPS

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4
Q

APU accumulator minimum pressure:

A

2800

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5
Q

Which fuel cell does the APU use?

A

1 fuel cell

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6
Q

APU oil reservoir contains how much oil?

A

3 qts

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7
Q

How is the APU generator cooled?

A

Air cooled

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8
Q

Limitation of APU Generator?

A

Cant power backup hydraulic pump and windshield anti ice at the same time. Backup hydraulic pump takes priority.

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9
Q

If the APU Generator Control Unit (GCU) detects an overload, the APU generator will:

A

Be taken off line and the APU GEN ON advisory light will extinguish.

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10
Q

What action is taken when APU OIL HOT caution appears?

A

APU shutdown immediately. After a 30 minute cooling period and oil level is okay, the APU may be restarted.

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11
Q

Electronic Sequencing Unit (ESU) will shut down the APU and provide a BIT code for any problems detected except:

A

APU OIL HOT

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12
Q

If APU fails, you must do what before attempting another start?

A

Check APU BIT codes

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13
Q

The accumulator provides hydraulic pressure for driving the:


A

APU hydraulic starter

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14
Q

When AC power is applied to the aircraft, the backup pump will recharge the accumulator in:

A

90 seconds

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15
Q

If AC electrical power is not available, only the reserve fire bottle can be discharged and fire extinguishing capability will be lost to which engine?

A

2 engine

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16
Q

What 3 things occur when the APU Fire T Handle is pulled?

A

Fuel to the APU is shut off, a stop signal is sent to the ESU, the fire extinguishing system arms and the directional control valve is set to the APU compartment.

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17
Q

The Mixture Temperature Sensor shuts off at what temperature?

A

90-96C and turns back on once cools off.

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18
Q

What are the 3 possible heated air sources for the aircraft on the ground?

A

Bleed air from engines, APU, and external power/source.

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19
Q

What would you do to get outside air into the cockpit with heat applied?

A

Turn on the vent blower.

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20
Q

The flame detectors are solid state photoconductive cells providing continuous volume optical survelliance of the monitored areas. There are 5 total with _ wall mounted on engines and APU and _ mounted on the engine deck.

A

3 & 2

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21
Q

Photoconductive cells sense what type of source to be triggered?

A

IR source

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22
Q

The thermal discharge safety port missing plug indicates that:

A

One or both containers have discharged due to over pressurization.

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23
Q

If there is a fire with no AC electrical power applied to the helicopter, which fire extinguisher must be discharged?

A

Reserve

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24
Q

Fire extinguish agent cannot be discharged into engine #2 if:

A

AC electrical power is not applied to helicopter

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25
Always attempt what during a fire before executing emergency procedure?
Visually confirming fire
26
Is there a caution or advisory for electrical fire?
No
27
Upon impact of a crash of 10g or more, the omni directional inertia switch automatically fires both cartridges attached to the containers releasing fire extinguishing agent into where?
Both engine compartments.
28
Where must the windshield wiper switch be turned to in order to return them inboard?
PARK and then will spring release to OFF.
29
Windshield wipers should not be operated:
On a dry windshield.
30
What is authorized to improve windshield visibility?
Rain reppelant
31
The temperature of each panel is controlled to heat to about:
43C (a circuit will prevent burnout when windshield surface heat is above 43C.
32
When the APU generator is the sole source of AC generated power, can anti-ice be used with the backup pump?
No
33
How many windshield anti-ice switches are there?
3
34
If ice accumulates on windshield, what could happen?
Ice shedding could cause engine FOD.
35
How much can the cargo hook hold?
9000lbs
36
What is the maximum cone angle to prevent damage to the cargo hook?
30 degrees
37
What are the 3 modes of release?
Normal, manual, and emergency.
38
To prevent unintentional discharge of the cargo hook explosive cartridge, the pilot shall call off each procedural step of which test?
Emergency release circuit test.
39
Pitot static and anti-ice shall be on during operations of visible moisture with ambient air temperatures of:
4C
40
Pitot static pressure is sent to what aircraft components?
ADCs
41
Provides a visual display of:
Pitch and roll attitude, airspeed, altitiude, vertical speed (8-12 seconds lag), heading, and validity indications as a backup to the helicopters PFD.
42
Components
Display unit, magnetometer (location in tail cone on right side), air data computer (location in the right hand control rod closet above the #2 ADC), and battery (in nose compartment).
43
How long does it take for the ESIS to self test?
Approximately 15 seconds.
44
The 2 external components that provide display information to the ESIS are?
ADC and Magnetometer.
45
The BAT STBY ISNT sw is located where?
Upper console
46
A beeping tone can be heard when the aircraft is on the ground with AC power removed if the BAT STBY INST sw is in which position?
Arm
47
ESIS battery should supply power to the instrument for at least:
30 minutes
48
IVHMS is compromised of:
An on board system, integrated vehicle health and management unit, ground station and software for displaying, viewing, and extracting helicopter health and safety information.
49
Functions of the on board system:
Power checks, main rotor track and balance, tail rotor track and balance, engine output shaft testing and balance, oil cooler testing and balance, maintenance card recording, isolating irregular/unusual vibrations, mechanical diagnostics, etc.
50
MFDs provide over how many pages of IVHMS data?
15
51
The IVHMU on board memory contains data spanning multiple flights (approx. 25 hours). It will ____ old files in a logical fashion to prevent memory overflow.
Delete
52
What is the only way to transfer data to the ground station?
PCMCIA card (must be in before power applied).
53
How many accelerometers are there and what do they do?
29+ mounted to the airframe and they track and monitor temperature, vibration, pulse input interfaces, timing references, and general frequency input interfaces.
54
Cockpit Voice and Flight Data Recording has sufficient crash protected memory to record:
Four channels of voice for a minimum of two hours per channel.
55
Are HUMS and CVR/FDR data downloading independent of each other?
Yes
56
The inertia sw is used to control primary power to the CVR/FDR in the event of:
An incapacitating incident.
57
CVR/FDR starts recording when any of the following exist:
1 EG ON (NG1 greater than 55%), #2 ENG ON (NG2 greater than 55%), Main XSM OP greater than 20 PSI, or WOW switch equals false (in flight).
58
CVR/FDR stops recording when all of the following exist:
1 EG OFF (NG1 less than 55%), #2 ENG OFF (NG2 less than 55%), Main XSM OP less than 20 PSI, or WOW switch equals true (on ground).
59
What is the minimum operating life of the underwater locator beacon? What is its useful life?
30 days and 6 years.
60
Mechanical Diagnostics can be acquired in one of the three modes:
Automatic, prompted, or forced.
61
How many events can be captured per HUMS-E-REC I-Event start/stop cycle?
Around 5
62
How many events can be captured per HUMS-E-REC I-Event start/stop cycle?
Around 5
63
IVHMU captures intermittent events including:
Cockpit noise, vibration data, and flight parameter data.
64
How many seconds of data is captured?
15 seconds before and after the event button is pressed. It takes up to 5.5 mins to complete the processing of the event.
65
The purpose of the I-Event sw is to record data for troubleshotting.
Yes
66
The right pitot tube is connect to the:
Pilots air data system.
67
Where is the I-Event data viewable?
On the IVHMS Ground Station.
68
What starts/stops recording of the CVR/FDR?
DCUs
69
Which IVHMS main menu would a pilot need to access to perform a HIT check?
Power checks
70
The AVCS maintains a consistent vibration performance with varying rotor speeds between:
90-105% NR.
71
Does AVCS eliminate vibrations?
No, it just reduces them.
72
How much force can the main cabin overhead vibration absorber (FG #1) produce?
1000lbs
73
How much force can the legacy nose vibration absorber produce (FG #2)?
450lbs
74
How much force can the right hand step vibration absorber produce (FG #3)?
450lbs
75
Reducing airspeed may:
Reduce Vibrations. Abnormal vibrations not affected by the VIB CONT sw position or associated with an AVC system failure may require more immediate action.
76
What are the components of the AVCS?
Active vibration control computer, electronic unit, 3 force generators, 10 accelerometers, and NR speed sensor.
77
The FMS can be accessed to check the ___ or initiate a ___ of the AVCS.
Status and BIT
78
The AVCS INOP advisory illuminates in flight to indicate:
Total failure of AVCS.
79
Where is the IDM located?
Transition avionics bay.
80
IDM transmits and receives data at a rate of:
16kbs
81
How many password attempts are allowed before a message is sent to a security officer?
3
82
How do you know if you have a message when not on JVMF?
JVMF will turn inverse.
83
How many TAC IDs per card?
50
84
The FMS will not pop up pages for the MFD if it is on the ___ of FMS.
STS page
85
What does receiver message filter allow operator to do?
Select type of message that will be received
86
What does operator need to do it he wants to acknowledge a message when opened?
Set OPERATOR ACK on setup page to AUTO.
87
How do you reset to a blank template?
REST MESG
88
Header specifies:
Net, Destination URNs, Precedence level, security classification, and operator acknowledgement settings for message.
89
What is the max number of recipients per group?
16
90
How many times can you acknowledge a message?
Once
91
How many characters can be typed into a freetext message?
271
92
If a message is greater than 1MB in size, what notification will be displayed?
MSG TOO LARGE
93
What format must an OPORD be in order to receive it?
5 paragraph
94
How are messages displayed?
In order of highest precedence
95
What does > mean?
Unread
96
What does ? mean?
Acknowledgement requested
97
What color does a secret message appear?
RED
98
What does MAYDAY template default to?
Downed aircraft
99
JVMF Annunciations are displayed at bottom center of each MFD page except?
PFD

mike Mike (35 decks)

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