Test 1 Deck 2 Flashcards by Preeti Gulve

The ability of a virus to cause disease in a host is called

Pathogenicity

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The mechanism of disease development is called

Pathogenesis

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The degree of pathogenicity of a virus is called

Virulence

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What 3 ways can you numerically measure virulence by using lab animals?

LD50

ID50

ID50 : LD50 ratio

^{LD = Lethal Dose}

^{ID = Infectious Dose}

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The dose of the virus that kills 50% of animals is called

LD50

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The dose of a virus that will *infect *50% of animals is called

ID50

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What does a **low **ID50 and LD50 tell you?

A **low **ID50 and LD50 indicate a

**more virulent **organism

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A **high **ID50 and LD50 tell you what about the organism?

A **high **ID50 and LD50 mean that the organism is

less virulent

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What are the 4 routes of viral entry into a host?

Skin

Mucous Membrane

GI Tract

Respiratory Tract

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What kind of antibodies are found in mucous membranes?

IgA antibodies

are found in mucous membranes

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The *mucociliary blanket *is a defense of which portal of viral entry?

The *mucociliary blanket *is a defense of the

Respiratory Tract

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What is the only portal of entry into a host that utilizes a **temperature gradient **as a defense?

Respiratory Tract

has a temperature gradient

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How do viruses get to *subepithelial levels *?

Viruses can invade *subepithelial tissues *because

**inflammation **destroys epithelium

*or by using *

Transcytosis

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An infection that spreads beyond the primary site of infection is called

A Disseminated Infection

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Viruses can shed directionally from infected epithelium.

**Apical Release **of a virus facilitates what?

Apical Release

facilitates

Virus Dispersal

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Viruses can shed directionally from infected epithelium

Basolateral Release

facilitates what?

Basolateral Release

facilitates

Systemic Spread

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What is viremia?

Viremia is

the presence of a virus in the blood

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If a virus is **free **in the blood, how long with the viremia last?

A **free **virus causes

Short-duration viremia

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If a virus is **in a cell **like a lymphocyte in the blood, how long will the viremia last?

Viruses that are **in a cell **like a lymphocyte in the blood

cause

Prolonged Viremia

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The initial entry of virus into blood is called

Primary Viremia

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The viremia caused when a virus has replicated in major organs and once more entered circulation

is called

Secondary Viremia

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This type of Viremia is caused by direct inoculation of virus into blood

Passive Viremia

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List the types of Viremia from shortest time to longest time

Shortest time–>Longest time

Passive, Primary, Secondary

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List the types of Viremia from low infectivity to high infectivity

Low infectivity –> High infectivity

Primary, Passive, Secondary

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What type of viremia is characterized by **long time** and **high infectivity**?

Secondary Viremia

A virus in blood interacts with macrophages and creates a **trojan horse**. What does this mean?

Trojan Horse is when trafficking monocytes transport the virus

How does the host clear viruses from the bloodstream?

The host clears viruses from the bloodstream by using Mononuclear phagocytes Antibodies Complement System

Where are mononuclear phagocytes generated?

Mononuclear phagocytes are generated in the Spleen, Liver, and Bone Marrow _{and help to clear viruses from the blood}

A virus that can infect neural cells is called

Neurotropic Virus

A virus that enters the CNS after infection of a peripheral site is called

Neuroinvasive Virus

A virus that **if **it enters the CNS, causes disease of neural tissue leading to neurological symptoms and death is called

Neurovirulent Virus

What are the 4 routes of Neural Spread of Viruses?

Axons Perineural Lymphatics Endoneural Space Schwaan Cells

What type of neural spread travels the same direction of the nerve impulse from cell body to dendrite to axon?

Cell body --\> Dendrite --\> Axon ## Footnote **Anterograde Spread**

What type of neural spread travels the *opposite *direction of nerve impulse flow from axon to dendrite to cell body?

Axon --\> Dendrite --\> Cell Body ## Footnote **Retrograde Spread**

When a virus travels **towards **the brain and CNS, what kind of movement is it exhibiting?

**Towards **the brain and CNS **Centripetal** Movement

A virus that travels **away from **the brain and CNS and to the periphery is exhibiting what type of movement?

**Away from **the brain and CNS **Centrifugal **Movement

When viruses spread to the CNS via *olfactory routes*, what type of neural spread do they use?

Olfactory routes --\> CNS via **Anterograde spread**

How do viruses get through the blood-brain barrier?

By secreting TNF ^{(To increase endothelial permeability)} By using MMP ^{(To breakdown endothelial cell junctions)} By using a Trojan Horse ^{(Getting trafficked by monocytes)}

What type of viral infection do you have if the virus sheds intensively for a short period of time?

Acute Infection

What kind of viral infection do you have if the virus sheds at low titers for a long period of time?

Persistent Infection

The specificity and affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue is called

Tropism

What do you call viruses that can replicate in more than one host organ/ tissue?

Pantropic Viruses can replicated in more than one host tissue

A bullseye red rash is pathognomonic for what disease?

Lyme Disease

This type of skin ailment is characterized by a sloughing off of necrotic tissue

Ulcers

A benign skin growth that appears when a virus infects the top layer of skin

Warts

A skin ailment with solid elevations, no fluid, and has sharp borders

Papules

The reddening of skin caused by a systemic viral infection is called

Erythema

Viral-Bacterial Synergism is exhibited in which portal of viral entry?

**Respiratory tract** has Viral-Bacterial Synergism

What are 5 injuries sustained by viral *transplacental infection* ?

Teratogenesis Cerebellar Hypoplasia Arthrogryposis Porencephaly Congenital hydraencephaly Are caused by viral transplacental infection

Susceptibility to teratogens ________ with fetal age

Susceptibility to teratogens _decreases_ with fetal age

Persistent infections, PI Calves, and Immunotolerant calves are seen in transplacental infection of Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) between \_\_ to __ months.

When a cow fetus contracts BVD between **2 to 4 months** The calves will live, but have persistent infections, or be immunotolerant

If BVD is contracted while the fetus is between **5-9 months**, what is the result?

Abortion or Deformities

How is tissue damage caused in virus-induced immunopathology?

Tissue damage is from **hypersensitivity reactions**

*Moon- Blindness *is an example of what type of disease in horses?

*Moon-Blindness* is an **Autoimmune Disease**

True or False Latent, Chronic, and Slow Infections are all types of Persistent Infections

TRUE

What type of viral infection is only demonstrated when reactivation occurs (during periods of immunosuppression)?

Latent (Persistent) Infections

**Cold Sores **and **Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis **are examples of what type of viral infection?

Latent (Persistent) Infections

A viral infection with a prolonged incubation period is called

Slow (Persistent) Infection

Slow viral infections are progressive and lethal. What causes these types of infections and give an example.

**Prions **cause **Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy**

What are cytocidal effects of viruses on host cells?

Lysis and Apoptosis

A non-cytocidal effect of a virus on a host cell is

Persistent Infection

Cell Transformation is an effect of a virus on a host cell that leads to what type of cell?

Tumor cells

Damage or morphological changes to host cells during virus replication is called

CPE or Cytopathic Effect

Complete destruction of cells, subtotal destruction of cells, and focal destruction of cells are all forms of what?

All are forms of CPE- Cytopathic Effect

Histologically, what do you see in cells undergoing Cytopathic Effect?

Cell Lysis Cell Rounding Cell Detachment (death) Vacuolation of Cytoplasm Inclusion Bodies

An inclusion body that is an accumulation of *viral components *called Negri bodies is produced by which virus?

Rabies

What virus causes Owl's Eye inclusion bodies, the result of degenerative changes in cells?

**Herpes Virus ** causes Owl's Eye inclusion bodies

Inclusion bodies composed of *crystalline aggregates of virions *is caused by what virus?

**Adenovirus** causes *crystalline virion inclusion bodies*

Herpes virus, Morbillivirus, and some Paramyxoviruses can cause the formation of this.

Syncytium

The fusion of **4 or more **plasma membranes to produce an enlarged cell with 4 or more nuclei is called _________ formation

Syncytium formation

True or False Only naked viruses are capable of syncytium formation.

FALSE Only *enveloped *viruses can form syncytium

Syncytia formation may be the only detectable CPE (cytopathic effect) in which kind of viruses?

Synctia formation may be the only detectable CPE in ## Footnote **Paramyxoviruses**

What are 4 mechanisms employed by viruses to cause cell injury or death?

Inhibition of Host Cell: Nucleic Acid Synthesis RNA Transcription Protein Synthesis Cell Membrane Function

When viruses interfere with host cell membrane function, this promotes ________ formation

Syncytia/ Cell fusion

How is Apoptosis different from Lysis

Apoptosis is a last ditch effort to eliminate viral factories within the cell. Lysis happens when the virions have already been made, and are released when the cell is lysed

Non-cytocidal changes in virus infected cells are often associated with persistent infections. These changes mostly occur in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ virus infections.

Non-cytocidal changes in virus infected cells are often associated with *persistent infections.* These changes mostly occur in **_RNA_** virus infections

What are the 2 Apoptotic Pathways?

Mitochondrial (Intrinsic) Pathway and Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

This apoptotic pathway is initiated when **TNF **and **Fas **membrane receptors are activated

Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

**Perforin **and **granzyme **are used in which apoptotic pathway?

Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity is something only ______ viruses can do.

Enveloped

An enveloped virus can fuse to the surface of a host cell which causes cross-linking. This cross-linking tells NK cells to kill the host cell by APOPTOSIS. Essentially, the host cell has become the target of its own immune system. Name this mechanism of virus-induced cell death

Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity

What is neoplasia?

Abnormal tissue overgrowth

The study of neoplasms and neoplasia is called

Oncology

Neoplasms (tumors) are derived from what?

A single genetically altered *progenitor cell*

What are the steps of the Cell Cycle?

G1 S G2 M

Growth and DNA replication happen in what phase of the cell cycle?

S phase

Encoded proteins that function for *regular *cell growth and differentiation are known as

Proto-oncogenes

Tumor-suppressor genes inhibit uncontrolled growth of cells by holding them in this phase of the cell cycle

G1 phase

Rb (Retinoblastoma Protein), P16, and P53 are example of what?

Rb, P16, and P53 are ## Footnote **tumor suppressor genes**

What is the role of *unphosphorylated Rb*?

To bind to E2F and *prevent *its activity The binding *stops *G1 from going to S phase

Which form of Rb Protein cannot bind to E2F?

**Phosphorylated Rb **cannot bind to E2F so G1 proceeds to S phase

What is the function of P16 tumor suppressor gene?

To block CDK so it cannot phosphorylate Rb resulting in NO cell division

What does P53 tumor suppressor gene do?

P53 activates the DNA repair cycle and stops the cell cycle at G1

When a proto-oncogene is mutated, it forms an *oncogene*. What can cause this mutation to occur?

Virus, UV rays, and Chemicals

Receptors encoded by oncogenes do not require this regulatory step to become active.

Oncogene encoded receptors do not require the _binding of a ligand_ to become active

A mutation in a tumor suppressor gene like Rb, P16, and P53, results in what?

An ineffective protein which causes _cancer_

What kind of viruses are the most important oncogenic viruses?

RETROVIRUSES are the most important oncogenic viruses

Retroviruses, Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses can all cause

Cancer

What does it mean when a viral genome remains **episomal**?

The viral genome is *episomal* because it _never integrates into the host genome._ It instead has an **autonomous replicating system**

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ oncogenes induce transformation and have no homolog or direct ancestors

DNA oncogenes have no homolog or direct ancestors

A productive infection by a **DNA oncogenic virus **does what to the host cell after completing replication with in it?

A productive infection by a **DNA** oncogenic virus causes _cell lysis_ of the host cell

An autonomously replicating plasmid is called

an EPISOME

Episomes are associated with what type of DNA oncogenic virus infection?

Non-Productive Infections are associated with Episomes

The viral DNA of a benign wart caused by oncogenic Papillomaviruses is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

The viral DNA of a benign wart caused by oncogenic Papillomaviruses is _episomal_

The viral DNA of malignant cancers like HPV is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

The viral DNA of malignant cancers like HPV is _integrated into the host cell_

Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses are all _______ oncogenic viruses

Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses are all _DNA_ oncogenic viruses

The only RNA viruses come from which RNA virus family?

Retroviridae Family

Which type of RNA oncogenic virus has **V-ONC** ?

Acutely transforming retroviruses have V-ONC

V-ONCs are under the control of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

V-ONCs are under the control of the strong promoter **LTRs (Large Terminal Repeats)**

E1A and E1B are the oncoproteins of which DNA virus?

Adenovirus has E1A and E1B

E6 and E7 are oncoproteins of which DNA Virus?

Papillomavirus (HPV) have E6 and E7 oncoproteins

Transformed (neoplastic) cells have what 3 characteristics?

Transformed cells are **spindle-shaped, have a loss of contact inhibition, and show tumor antigens on their surface**

**Defensins **are a first line defense component of Innate Immunity found in what part of the body?

**Defensins **are found in the **GI Tract**

The **mucociliary blanket **of the **Respiratory Tract **can trap particles larger than \_\_\_\_µm

The mucociliary blanket can trap particles larger than ## Footnote **_10 µm_**

The mucociliary blanket is mainly composed of this type of cell.

**Goblet Cells **

**NK cells**, a component of Innate Immunity, contain two types cytoplasmic granules. What are they?

**NK cells **contain **Perforin **and **Granzyme**

**TLRs **(Toll-like Receptors) are a type of _______ receptor

**TLRs **are a type of **_PRR_** (Pattern Recognition Receptor)

Cytokines secreted by somatic cells in response to viral infection are called

**Interferons (IFNs)**

True or False RNA viruses are stronger inducers of IFNs than DNA viruses

TRUE **RNA viruses **induce **IFNs **stronger

**IFN-a **is a **Type 1** interferon produced by virus-infected \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

**IFN-a **is produced by virus-infected ## Footnote **_dendritic cells_**

**IFN-B **is a **Type 1 **interferon produced by virus-infected \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

**IFN-B **is produced by virus-infected _fibroblasts_ ^{IFN-B = fiBroblasts}

Which type 1 interferon is **host specific**?

**IFN-B **is host specific

**IFN-y** is a type __ interferon

**IFN-y** is a type **2 **interferon

Type 2 **IFN-y **is produced by antigen stimulated \_\_ cells and ___ cells

**IFN-y** is produced by **T cells **and **NK cells**

**Type 3 **interferons are expressed when ______ are activated

**Type 3 **interferons are expressed when **_TLRs_** are activated

NK cells, IFNs, Cytokines, PRR, PAMPs, and TLRs are all components of what?

Innate Immunity

What are the two host specific IFNs?

**IFN-B** and **IFN-y** are *host specific interferons*

Humoral Immunity, a component of Adaptive Immunity is mediated by antibodies released from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Antibodies released from **_B-lymphocytes_** mediate Humoral Immunity

Cellular Adaptive Immunity is mediated by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Cellular Adaptive Immunity is mediated by ## Footnote **T-Lymphocytes**

What type of immunity elicits **CMI** response?

**Cellular **immunity elicits **CMI** response

Which T-lymphocytes are the "helper" T-lymphocytes?

**CD4+** helper T-lymphocytes

Which lymphocytes are cytotoxic?

**CD8+** cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

What do **CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes** activate?

**CD4+** activates: ## Footnote *Macrophages, inflammation, and **B-lymphocyte stimulation***

True or False CMI (cell mediated immunity) is initiated by both internal and surface viral antigens

TRUE! CMI initiated by both!

Only ______ viral antigens elicit a Humoral response

Only **_surface_** viral antigens elicit a Humoral Response

T/F Antigenic plasticity is how a virus becomes resistant

TRUE Antigenic Plasticity = Virus Resistance

Serotypes are an example of antigenic \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Serotypes are an example of antigenic **_multiplicity_**

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ synthesize homolog proteins to **cytokines/IFNs**

Virokines

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ encode homolog proteins to compete with **cytokine receptors**

Viroceptors

These two viruses make *caspase inhibitors *inhibit apoptosis

Poxviruses and Herpesviruses make caspase inhibitors

The % of deaths among clinically ill animals

Case Fatality Rate

The % of animals that die from a disease

Mortality Rate

The % of animals that develop *clinical signs* over a period of time

Morbidity Rate

The # of **new** cases in a population

Incidence

The # of **old and new** cases in a population

Prevalence

When a virus is constantly present in a certain region, it is called

Enzootic | (endemic)

When more cases of a viral disease occur in a region than expected, it is called

Epizootic | (epidemic)

When an enzootic viral disease occurs over a very large area and effects a large portion of the population, it is called

Panzootic | (pandemic)

What type of epidemiology determines efficacy of vaccines?

Molecular Epidemiology

What are the 5 forms of Horizontal Transmission?

Contact Vector Vehicle-Borne Iatrogenic Nosocomial

Sneezing and coughing are forms of ______ contact

_direct contact_ the droplet travels **less than 1 meter **from the source

If a virus travels **more than 1 meter **it is considered _______ contact

Indirect contact; Airborne

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can transmit viruses indirectly and include things like shared eating containers bedding dander clothing vehicles

FOMITES

Transovarial Transmission and Trans-stadial transmission are both forms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Overwintering

Which mechanism of overwintering involved vertical transmission?

Transovarial Transmission

When a virus is transmitted from a *primary insect vector *to a WILD animals, what transmission cycle is it considered?

Enzootic Transmission Cycle Wild animal \<-- --\> Primary Insect Vector

What transmission cycle is it when a virus is transmitted from a *Primary or Accessory Insect Vector *to a DOMESTIC animal?

EPIzootic Transmission Cycle Domestic \<-- --\> Primary or Accessory insect

When a human gets a virus from an insect vector, it is called _______ Cycle of Transmission

Urban Transmission Cycle Human \<-- --\> Insect

An infection transmitted during medical or surgical practice is called ______ infection

Iatrogenic

A hospital acquired infection is called ________ infection

Nosocomial infection

When a virus is transmitted from the mother to the fetus/neonate, it is called _________ transmission

VERTICAL transmission

Akabene, Bluetongue, and Feline Parvovirus are viruses that are transmitted vertically and cause ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Congenital Defects

BVD, Border Disease, and Porcine enterovirus are viruses transmitted vertically that can cause \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_

Congenital DISEASE

What are the 5 periods in the course of a typical infectious disease?

Incubation Period Prodromal Period Acute Period Decline Period Convalescent Period

A pathogen that is unlikely to cause human or animal disease is classified into what risk group in the Box 1 Classification System?

Risk group **#1** ## Footnote *no or low risk pathogen*

A pathogen that can cause *moderate individual risk *and **low **community risk is found in which Box 1 risk group?

Risk Group **#2 ** moderate individual and low community

A pathogen that is *high individual risk *and **low **community risk is in which Box 1 Risk Group?

Risk Group **#3** high individual risk low community risk

A pathogen with *high individual risk *and **high **community risk is in which Box 1 Risk Group?

**Risk Group #4** HIGH individual and HIGH community

Effective treatment is NOT available for pathogens in which Box 1 risk group?

Risk Group **#4**

What are features of a maximum containment **BSL-4 Lab**?

Positively air pressurized **(+) suits **with HEPA filtration and air supply Negative air pressure maintained in the **(-)lab** Incoming and outgoing air is **HEPA filtered** Sterilization through **double door autoclaving system** Suit decontamination **shower **when leaving

For **virus isolation **specimens should be collected as soon after the onset of symptoms as possible, during which periods?

**Virus Isolation specimen** collected during **Prodromal or Acute Periods**

For **serological tests**, two blood specimens are collected. During which periods are they collected?

**Serological Tests** need blood specimens from **Acute Period AND Convalescence Period**

Samples for **Molecular Diagnostics **should be collected during the _______ part of the illness

**Molecular Diagnostics** need sample from the _EARLY_ part of illness

What samples are taken from a live animal with a ## Footnote **Respiratory or Ocular Disease**

Nasal and Conjunctival Swabs and Blood

What samples are taken from a live animal with a **Skin Disease** **or** **Lesions of Mucous Membranes**?

Scrapings of lesion Swab of the affected area and Blood

What samples are taken from a live animal with a **Gastroenteritis Disease**?

Feces and blood

What samples are taken from a live animal with a **Systemic Disease**?

Blood Nasal and Urogenital Swabs Feces

What samples are taken from a live animal with a **CNS Disease**?

Blood Cerebrospinal Fluid Feces Nasal and Urogenital Swabs

What samples are taken from a live animal with a **Urinary Tract Disease**?

Urogenital swab Urine Blood

What samples are taken from a live animal that has had an **Abortion**?

Blood from mother Vaginal mucus

What samples are taken from an animal **POSTMORTEM**?

For most diseases, take tissue from the affected area and lymph nodes EXCEPT FOR: Gastroenteritis- need intestinal contents Systemic Disease- various organ tissues Abortion- Tissues from placenta and fetus, blood from fetal heart and intestinal contents

What type of speciment should NEVER be frozen?

A specimen for _Histopathologic Examination_

Instead of freezing a specimen for histopathologic examination, you should fix it with what?

10 % buffered formalin

Viral Transport Medium (VTM) is made of what two things?

VTM is a _buffered salt solution_ with added _protein_

Which types of added protein are okay for use in VTM?

Gelatin, Albumin, or Fetal Bovine Serum (FBS)

Homogenization is how you process samples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Tissues

A vortex mixer and phosphate buffer saline or water are used to process \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Feces

What type of electron microscopy utilizes a *heavy metal salt* and a *carbon coated copper grid?*

Negative Stain EM

For Negative Stain EM, the *fluid matrix* must contain how many virions per mL?

**10⁶ - 10⁷ virions per mL**

Which type of EM focuses on viral surfaces and composition?

Scanning EM (SEM)

What type of electron microscopy focuses on the inside of a virus, beyond the surface?

TEM (transmission electron microscopy)

Which EM produces **3D images**?

**SEM **produces **3D images**

Which EM produces images with **higher resolution **and **higher magnification**?

TEM

The probability that cases **with the infection** will have a **positive** test result is called

Sensitivity

The probability that cases **without the infection **will have a **negative **test result is called

Specificity

You use a RED top vacutainer tube to collect \_\_\_\_\_\_\_

**Serum** is in the **RED **top tube

You use a PURPLE top EDTA vacutainer tube to collect \_\_\_\_\_

**Plasma** is in the **Purple **Tube

The purple top vacutainer tubes are treated with what?

An anticoagulant This is so the blood won't clot, but the plasma will

Antigens are immobilized and enzyme conjugate *primary *antibodies are used in ______ ELISA

Direct ELISA

Enzyme conjugated *secondary antibodies *are used in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ELISA

Indirect ELISA

The antigen is bound between a layer of *capture antibodies *and a layer of *detection antibodies* in _______ ELISA

Sandwich ELISA

The antigen and purified immobilized antigen compete for binding with the *capture antibody* in _______ ELISA

Competitive ELISA

In Competitive ELISA, a decrease in signal signifies what?

Decrease of signal = PRESENCE of antigens in sample

What two compounds can be used to fluorescently label antibodies in the FAT test?

FITC or Rhodamine

When will you see visible fluorescence in a FAT test?

When there is an Ag-Ab reaction

What type of serological assay uses Horseradish Peroxidase to tag the antibody?

Immunohistochemistry

In what type of serological assay is a colored product seen in the infected cells using a standard light microscope?

Immunohistochemistry

What serological assay is a POC (point of care) test?

Immunochromatography (Lateral Flow Devices)

The Ab is labeled with colloidal gold in what serological assay?

Immunochromatography (Lateral Flow)

In order to confirm Avian Influenza and PPR (peste des petits) in cows, which serological assay is used?

Hemagglutination Inhibition Test

Which serological assay tests for ANTIBODIES against Avian Influenza, Equine Infectious Anemia, and Enzootic Bovine Leukosis?

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion Test

In a complement fixation test, RBCs settling in a pellet indicate what?

No lysis, reactive

A nonreactive complement fixation test indicates ______ of RBCs

lysis

What serological assay involves a separation gel and autoradiography?

Immunoblotting

Ab binding to viral glycoprotein spikes that results in inhibited RBC binding is descriptive of what serological assay?

Hemadsorption Inhibition Assay

The fact that a virus loses infectivity when it binds to a specific antibody, is the basis of this serological assay

Neutralization Assay

IgM antibodies in a sample are indicative of what?

A recent infection = IgM

Which method of IgM Antibody Assay starts with a labeled anti-canine IgM antibody and ends with a virus?

Indirect IgM Antibody Assay

Which IgM Antibody Assay method starts with a labeled antivirus antibody and ends with an anti-canine IgM antibody?

IgM Antibody Capture method

Test 1 Deck 2 Flashcards

(219 cards)