Test 2: Dx, Tx, and Prevention Flashcards
(108 cards)
1
Q
What does PCR stand for?
A
Polymerase Chain Reaction
2
Q
What is PCR used for?
A
PCR is used to make
multiple copies of a segment of DNA
3
Q
What is it called when you take one segment of DNA and make multiple copies of it?
A
Amplification
4
Q
The following steps describe this process of diagnosing viral infections:
- Amplify DNA
- Subject DNA to electrophoresis in agarose gels
- Stain with ethidium bromide
A
PCR
5
Q
In PCR, what temperature is used to denature (or separate) the strands of DNA?
A
94 - 96C
6
Q
In PCR, what temperature is used to **anneal **the primers to the ends of both strands of denatured DNA
A
68C
for annealing
7
Q
T/F:
In the annealing step of PCR,
the forward primer (+) binds to the forward DNA strand (+)
A
FALSE!!!
the forward primer (+)
binds to the
reverse DNA strand (-)
8
Q
In PCR, what temperature is used to
elongate each strand of DNA after they have been annealed to their primers?
A
72C
9
Q
The **elongation **step in PCR uses
______ polymerase to create a new DNA segment that is
complementary to the original DNA strand
A
TAQ polymerase
10
Q
What is the result of the **elongation **step of PCR?
A
2 new DNA molecules
each with
1 **NEW **strand
and
1 OLD strand
11
Q
Repeating the process of PCR for 30 - 40 cycles
yields how many exact copies of the original DNA segment?
A
1 billion!!!
12
Q
While PCR is used to make multiple copies of DNA,
what is QPCR used for?
A
Quantitative PCR
is used for the
- monitoring and quantification*
- of PCR products and nucleic acid load*
13
Q
Why is QPCR useful?
A
QPCR is used to monitor the
viral load in a patient
14
Q
What 3 target-specific probes are used in the **QPCR **process?
A
- 5’ TaqMan probe
- Molecular Beacon probe
- FRET hybridization probe
“Taqman frets when he can’t find bacon, so he probes for it!”
15
Q
Intercalating dyes, like SYBR green are used in what diagnosis technique?
A
QPCR
16
Q
What is a flurophore?
(SYBR green for example)
A
Flurophore is a probe or a dye that emits fluorescence
17
Q
What is the most widely used method of
Genome Sequencing?
A
Sanger Dideoxy Method
18
Q
What does NGS stand for?
A
New Generation Sequencing
19
Q
Illumina (Solexa) sequencing is an example of this type of genome sequencing
A
NGS
new generation sequencing
20
Q
Which method of genome sequencing is
cheaper
quicker
more accurate and reliable
and
Needs LESS DNA?
A
Illumina (Solexa) new generation sequencing
21
Q
The study of microbial populations in a sample by
analyzing the sample’s entire nucleotide sequence
is called?
A
Metagenomics
22
Q
What is metagenomics used for?
A
The random detection of existing and new pathogens
23
Q
NGS platforms are being used for the formation of
___________ databases
A
metagenomics
24
Q
Genome sequencing is crucial in
_______ studies for pathogen detection using metagenomics
A
surveillance
25
The use of virus genome sequence data to study
*evolution and genetic relationships of viruses*
is called
**phylogenetic analysis**
26
Phylogenetic analysis has been used to related
**porcine rotavirus** to **human rotavirus**.
Which lineage is the porcine one and which is the human one?
**Lineage 1 is porcine** (RU172/G12)
**Lineage 2 is human** (RVA/G12)
both are related to the **VP7/G12 genotype**
27
T/F:
QPCR is the same thing as RTPCR
TRUE!
Quantitative PCR is the same as Real Time PCR
28
Which process of viral detection can screen hundreds of pathogens simultaneously and uses only 1 silicon chip?
**Microarrays**
29
In a *microarray*
**probe DNA **and **sample DNA interaction**
is called
hybridization
30
What does a **positive reaction** in a microarray test for pathogens look like?
Fluorescence on the chip where the probe was
is indicative of a (+) reaction
31
What are the 4 ways of treating viral diseases?
1. Antivirals
2. Immune system stimulation
3. Antibody synthesis
4. Antibody administration (natural antiserum)
32
This class of proteins with antiviral effects is used to stimulate the immune system in the treatment of viral diseases
interferons
33
T/F:
You can use an antibiotic to treat a viral infection
FALSE!!
Antibiotics should be known as "antibacterials" because they only treat BACTERIAL infections
34
Compared to antibiotics, only a few antivirals are effective. Why is this?
Agents that kill viruses will also kill the host cell
(because viruses depend on the host cell for replication)
35
Antiviral chemotherapeutics are NOT common in vet med. Why not?
The *cost* is too high
It's hard to find effective ones that are not *cytotoxic*
There are no *rapid diagnosis tests* so acute-onset viral infections cannot use them anyway
36
What are the 6 steps in the Virus life cycle?
1. Receptor binding
2. Cell entry
3. Uncoating
4. Nucleic acid synthesis
5. Assembly
6. Release
37
What are **receptor analogs (antiviral drug) **used to target?
Receptor analogs target
*attachment *of the virion to the cell receptor
38
What **Rimantadine** (antiviral drug) used to target?
Rimantidine targets
## Footnote
**uncoating**
39
What are **transcriptase inhibitors** (antiviral drug) used to target?
Transcriptase inhibitors target
**primary transcription** from *viral genome*
40
What antiviral drug targets
**reverse transcription**?
**Zidovudine (AZT)**
targets viral *reverse transcription*
41
**Lentivirus TAT inhibitors **are antiviral drugs used to target what?
**Lentiviral TAT inhibitors**
target
***regulation of transcription***
42
What is **Ribavirin** (antiviral drug) used to target?
Ribavirin
targets the
**processing of RNA transcripts**
43
**Interferons**, when used as antiviral drugs, target
**translation of viral RNA into proteins**
is the target of Interferons
44
**Post-translational cleavage of proteins** is the target of this type of antiviral drug
**Protease inhibitors**
45
What is **Acycloguanosine (Acyclovir)** (antiviral drug) used to target?
**Acyclovir **targets
## Footnote
***replication of the viral DNA genome***
46
**Replicase inhibitors** are used as antivirals to target what?
Replicase inhibitors target
## Footnote
**replication of viral *RNA genome***
47
**Acyclovir **and **Replicase inhibitors**
are both used to target the **replication **step of viral genomes.
Which one targets the viral **DNA genome?**
**Acyclovir**
targets viral **DNA** genomes
48
**Acyclovir **and **Replicase inhibitors **
are both used to target the **replication** step of viral genomes.
Which one targets the viral **RNA** genome?
**Replicase inhibitors**
target viral **RNA** genomes
49
What antiviral is used to treat
**Herpesvirus**
by inhibiting the *replication of viral DNA genome*?
**Acyclovir**
is used to treat
**Herpesvirus**
50
**Acyclovir** is used to treat
*corneal ulcers in cats* and *encephalomyelitis in horses*
afflicted with what virus?
**Herpesvirus-1**
51
In the mechanism of treating *Herpesvirus* using **Acyclovir**,
Herpesvirus \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ **kinase**
changes Acyclovir into *Acyclovir monophosphate*
**_Thymidine Kinase_**
converts
Acyclovir --\> Acyclovir **monophosphate**
52
In the mechanism of treating Herpesvirus using **Acyclovir**,
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ kinase
changes Acyclovir *monophosphate* into Acyclovir ***diphosphate***
**_Cellular (GMPK) Kinase_**
Acyclovir *monophosphate* --\> Acyclovir ***diphosphate***
53
In the mechanism of treating *Herpesvirus* using **Acyclovir**,
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ kinase
changes Acyclovir *diphosphate *into Acyclovir ***triphosphate***
**_Cellular (NDPK) Kinase_**
Acyclovir *diphosphate *--\> Acyclovir ***triphosphate***
54
*Herpesvirus DNA polymerase* cleaves **acyclovir triphospate** into
acyclovir \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
**_Acylovir Monophosphate_**
by using *Herpesvirus DNA polymerase*
55
What happens when **acyclovir monophosphate **is incorporated
into the *growing DNA strand*?
Further elongation of the DNA is impossible and
## Footnote
**DNA chain replication of the virus STOPS!**
56
**Acyclovir monophosphate **stops replication of viral DNA
when incorporated into the growing DNA strand
because **it lacks \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_**
Acyclovir monophosphate lacks
**_an attachment point for nucleotides_**
57
In the treatment of *Herpesvirus* by **Acyclovir**
Acyclovir monophosphate is what stops replication of the virus.
**Acyclovir triphosphate** also helps in fighting the virus. How?
**Acyclovir triphosphate**
**is a *competitive inhibitor***
**of *dGTP* for *viral DNA polymerase***
58
Acyclovir triphosphate
is a competitive inhibitor
of \_\_\_\_\_ for viral DNA \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
**_dGTP_**
for
**_viral DNA polymerase_**
59
T/F:
Acyclovir can be cytotoxic
FALSE!
Acyclovir is NOT harmful to the infected host cell
60
**TK negative, partial, **and **altered mutants**
are resistant to treatment of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
_Herpesvirus_
by
_Acyclovir_
61
**Alterations of viral DNA polymerase**
result in decreased _________ of
Acyclovir __________ to viral DNA polymerase
_decreased binding_
of
Acyclovir _triphosphate_ to viral DNA polymerase
62
What type of *Herpesvirus mutant* is **substate specificity altered**
and results in **phosphorylation of thymidine**, but NOT Acyclovir?
**TK altered mutants**
63
**Amantidine** is used to treat which 2 diseases
by **inhbiting replication by blocking UNCOATING**?
**Amantidine (RImantidine)**
treats
**Influenza A** and **Parkinson's Disease**
64
In the process of Influenza virus replication,
when the pH in the endosome containing the virus drops to \_\_\_\_\_,
**HA protein has a change in conformation**
allowing viral RNA to be released into the cytoplasm of the host and replicate
**_pH of 5.0_**
65
In the mechanism of infection of Influenza virus,
Viral _______ ion channel pumps **protons** into the endosome
in order to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
which causes the release of viral RNA from the M1 matrix protein
In the mechanism of infection of Influenza virus,
Viral **M2 ion channel** pumps protons into the endosome
in order to **lower its pH to 5.0**
which causes the release of viral RNA from the M1 matrix protein
66
**Amantidine blocks uncoating in influenza virus infections**
by **clogging** the **M2 channel** which prevents what?
**Amantidine **clogs the **M2 channel**
which prevents
***_protons from being pumped into the endosome to lower the pH_***
RNA remains bound to M1 matrix protein and viruses replication stops
67
**Amantidine **is prevented from clogging the M2 channel when
there are changes in the ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that line the M2 channel
**_amino_**** _acids_**
68
What are **Neuramidase Inhibitors** used to treat?
**Influenza virus**
69
What is the function of **neuramidase (NA)**?
NA *cleaves sialic acid receptors* on the cell surface which **releases HA**
which is critically important in the spread of Influenza virus
70
T/F:
Neuramidase inhibitors kill off influenza virus in the host.
FALSE
Neuramidase inhibitors **slow the spread of influenza** virus and allows the immune system to "catch up"
71
**Per**amivir
**Zan**amivir
**Oselt**amivir
**Lanin**amivir
*are all __________ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_*
**_Neuramidase Inhibitors_**
used to treat Influenza
72
Which 5 drugs are used to treat influenza virus?
4 are neuramidase inhibitors. Which one is not?
1. Peramivir
2. Zanamivir
3. Oseltamivir
4. Laninamivir
5. Amantidine
**Amantidine blocks influenza viral uncoating, not NA**
73
What are the **4 targets of Anti-retroviral therapy**?
1. Fusion
2. Integrase
3. Reverse Transciptase
4. Protease
74
There are 4 methods of preventing the spread of antiviruses:
Drugs that inhibit fusion, integrase, reverse transcriptase, and protease.
**Which drugs are reverse transcriptase inhibitors aka NRTIs**?
Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs):
**Zidovudine**
**Azidothymidine**
**(ZDV or AZT)**
75
There are 4 methods of preventing the spread of antiviruses:
Drugs that inhibit fusion, integrase, reverse transcriptase, and protease.
**Which drugs are HIV protease inhibitors?**
_HIV Protease Inhibitors:_
**Saquin**avir
**Idin**avir
**Nelfin**avir
**Riton**avir
(**SINR**)
76
**ZDV and AZT are NRTIs**
What does "NRTI" stand for?
**Nucleoside-analog Reverse Transcriptase Inhbitors**
77
ZDV and AZT are nucleoside-analogs of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a nucleobase in DNA
**thymine**
78
How does ZDV and AZT stop the replication of HIV?
ZDV and AZT have an **azide group** (**N3)** instead of OH (hydroxyl)
which has nowhere for DNA to elongate
79
45% of animals experience major toxicities when taking \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
like **anemia** and **granulocytopenia**
**AZT or ZDV for HIV**
80
How do protease inhibitors like Saquinivir, Indiavir, Nefeltavir, and Ritonavir
treat HIV?
**_Proteases are required to cleave HIV polyproteins into functional proteins!!_**
Protease inhibitors stop the cleaving and HIV cannot mature, thus
**non-infectious viruses are produced**
81
What are the **4 W's of Immunization**?
1. **Where**
1. *****Endemic area populations*
2. **When**
1. *****Right before seasonal viruses hit*
2. *If an outbreak of a non-endemic virus occurs*
3. **Who**
1. *****Populations at-risk*
4. **Why**
1. *****The loss caused by disease must be greater than the cost of immunity*
82
What is an **attenuated-virus**?
A viral mutant that no longer has virulent capabilities, does not cause disease
83
What type of vaccine is formed though
*serial dilulations of virulent viruses in cultured cells *
with the hopes that it will
*acquire and accumulate nucleotide substitutions *
resulting in avirulence?
**Live-Attenuated Vaccines**
84
Cold adapted mutant virus Live-Attenuated Vaccines
are safer for __________ administration
(Equine Influenza treatment)
**_intranasal_**
85
A vaccine produced from *purified native viral proteins*
is called a _______ vaccine, a type of
**Non-replicating Virus Vaccine**
***_SPLIT vaccine_***
is a type of non-replicating vaccine
86
A vaccine produced from **inactivated whole virions** is called an
***Inactivated Virus Vaccine***
which is a type of ___________ vaccine
_Non-replicating Virus Vaccine_
87
**Inactivated viruses** are Non-replicating viruses made from
*virulent viruses* using ________ or ___________ agents
to destroy infectivity while maintaining *immunogenicity*
_Chemical_ or _Physical_ agents
88
**Split Vaccines (purified native viral proteins)** are Non-Replicating Virus Vaccines
produced from solubilized virions using
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ _________ to semi-purify the glycoproteins
_differential centrifugation_
89
Some vaccines are produced using **recombinant DNA and technology**
These include vaccines produced by
**Attentuation, Sub-unit markers, microbial vector vaccines and _________ vaccines**
**DNA vaccines**
90
Recombinant DNA and Technology Produced Vaccines
include **viruses attenuated using what 2 methods?**
**Gene deletion**
**Site-directed mutagenesis**
91
This type of vaccine produced by recombinant DNA and technology
is *produced by expression of viral proteins in*
*eukaryotic, bacterial, and plant cells*
**Subunit "marker" vaccines**
92
This type of vaccine produced using recombinant DNA and technology
*utilizes harmless viruses as vectors of expression for other **heterologous viral antigens***
and integrates **viral HA **into the viral vector
**Microbial Vector Vaccines**
93
This type of vaccine produced using recombinant DNA and technology
## Footnote
*utilizes viral DNA and integrates it into a **plasmid***
**DNA vaccines**
94
It is impossible to differentiate an animal vaccinated with ____________ vaccines
from animals infected by a field strain
_Live-attenuated viruses_
95
Subunit "Marker" Vaccines
have _____ antigens than natural field strains
_less antigens_
96
What are the **8 methods of controlling viral vectors**?
1. Source Reduction
2. Biological Control
3. Chemical Control
4. Contact Potential Reduction
5. Portals of Entry Protection
6. Decontamination
7. Surveillance
8. Farm Biosecurity
97
The process that destroys
**all forms of microbial life and pathogens including bacterial spores**
is called
Sterilization
98
What are the **5 methods of Sterilization**
that kill all pathogens *including bacterial spores*?
1. **Steam Autoclave**
1. 121C for 15 mins at 15 psi
2. **Dry Heat**
1. 160C for 2 hours
3. **Chemicals**
1. Ethylene oxide or Ozone gas
2. High concentration hydrogen peroxide
4. **Radiation**
1. Non-ionizing UV radiation
2. Ionizing Gamma or X-rays
5. **Sterile Filtration**
1. Microfiltration with membrane filters with pores **0.2µm**
99
The process of decontamination that
*destroys most microbes and pathogens **except bacterial spores***
is called
**Disinfection**
100
The decontamination process of
*applying a liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin to destroy microorganisms*
is called
**Antisepsis**
101
**Sentinel animals** serve as *early warning systems *for _________ diseases
_ZOONOTIC_
102
Which **sentinel animal** is used as an zoonotic early warning system for
## Footnote
***West Nile Virus***
***and***
***Equine Encephalitis?***
CHICKENS!
103
Which **sentinel animal** is used as a zoonotic early warning system for
## Footnote
***Rift Valley Fever?***
Goats
104
Which **sentinel animal** is used as a zoonotic early warning system for
## Footnote
***Lyme Disease?***
DOGS!
105
Which **sentinel animal** is used as a zoonotic early warning system for
## Footnote
***Yellow Fever?***
Monkeys :D
106
Which two systems can be used to maintain farm biosecurity and help control viral vectors?
**All-In or All-Out System**
**Closed Herd System**
107
The **quarantine period** depends on the _________ period of important infectious diseases
_incubation period_
108
Which levels of biosecurity are concerned with exposure to **zoonotic diseases**
High Risk **Level 3**
and
Very High Risk **Level 4**
