TEST 1 MCQ : Intro-Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

Which term describes the process of examining cells or tissues to determine if they are abnormal or cancerous?

A. Immunohistochemistry
B. Flow cytometry
C. Histopathology
D. Cytology

A

C. Histopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which branch of anatomy studies the structure of cells?

A. Gross anatomy
B. Surface anatomy
C. Cytology
D. Histology

A

C. Cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The study of the head and neck is an example of:

A. Systemic anatomy
B. Surface anatomy
C. Microscopic anatomy
D. Regional anatomy

A

D. Regional anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the correct sequence of organisation levels from smallest to largest in the human body?

A. Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
B. Organs, tissues, cells, organisms, organ systems
C. Cells, organs, tissues, organisms, organ systems
D. Tissues, organs, cells, organisms, organ systems

A

A. Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An example of an organ system in the human body is:

A. The respiratory system
B. The nervous system
C. The skeletal system
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The liver is primarily located in which abdominal region?

A. Right hypochondriac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Left lumbar region
D. Right hypogastric region

A

A. Right hypochondriac region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which organ is located in the left hypochondrium region of the abdomen?

A. Spleen
B. Gallbladder
C. Appendix
D. Cecum

A

A. Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In which abdominal region will you palpate for gastritis?

A. Epigastric region
B. Hypochondriac region
C. Umbilical region
D. Lumbar region

A

A. Epigastric region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following statement about the anatomical position is correct?

A. The body is lying face down with arms extended overhead
B. The body is lying face up with arms at the sides and palms facing backward
C. The body is standing upright with arms at the sides and palms facing forward
D. The body is sitting with legs crossed and arms crossed over the chest

A

C. The body is standing upright with arms at the sides and palms facing forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a patient is lying on their back with their face up, which position are they in?

A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Lateral
D. Trendelenburg

A

Supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?

A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Distal
D. Proximal

A

B. Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which terms refers to a position closer to the surface of the body?

A. Deep
B. Inferior
C. Superficial
D. Superior

A

C. Superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which directional term means “toward the head”?

A. Inferior
B. Caudal
C. Superior
D. Dorsal

A

C. Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a structure is located on the back side of the body, it is referred to as:

A. Anterior
B. Ventral
C. Posterior
D. Medial

A

C. Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The stomach is —- to the diaphragm

A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior

A

B. Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The fingers are — to the elbow

A. Proximal
B. Medial
C. Distal
D. Lateral

A

C. Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which plane would best separate the cranial cavity from the thoracic cavity?

A. Transverse plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Oblique plane

A

A. Transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An MRI scan shows the brain divided into anterior and posterior sections. Which plane was used to take this image?

A. Sagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Transverse plane
D. Midsagittal plane

A

B. Coronal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A cross-sectional image of the leg, showing the muscles, bones, and blood vessels in a slice from top to bottom, is taken in which plane?

A. Transverse plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Oblique plane

A

A. Transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is a primary mechanism by which homeostasis is maintained?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Hormonal imbalance
D. Neural desynchronisation

A

B. Negative feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the pathway of a homeostatic control mechanism?

A. Effector–Control centre–Receptor
B. Receptor–Effector–Control centre
C. Control centre–Receptor–Effector
D. Receptor–Control centre–Effector

A

D. Receptor–Control centre–Effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

During thermoregulation, sweat glands act as:

A) Receptors
B) Control centre
C) Effectors
D) Stimuli

A

C) Effectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following processes is an example of positive feedback?

A) Blood pressure regulation
B) Thermoregulation
C) Blood clotting
D) Blood sugar regulation

A

C) Blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following subatomic particles carries a positive charge?

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Both a) and b)

A

a) protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The mass number of an atom is equal to: a) Number of protons b) Number of neutrons c) Number of protons + number of electrons d) Number of protons + number of neutrons
d) Number of protons + number of neutrons
26
Which of the following Is a molecule of compound? a) Oxygen (O2) b) Hydrogen (H2) c) Carbon dioxide (CO2) d) Nitrogen (N2)
c) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
27
What are isotopes? a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons b) Atoms with the same number of protons and neutrons c) Atoms with different numbers of protons and neutrons d) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
28
which of the following elements is considered inert? a) oxygen b) neon c) hydrogen d) sodium
b) neon
29
what type of ion is formed when an atom loses electrons? a) Anion b) Cation c) Covalent ion d) Ionic compound
b) Cation
30
What happens to electrons in an ionic bond? a) they are shared equally between atoms b) they are shared unequally between atoms c) they are transferred from one atom to another
c) they are transferred from one atom to another
31
Which polysaccharide is primarily found in plants and serves as a structural component of cell walls? a) glycogen b) starch c) cellulose d) sucrose
c) cellulose
32
What is the main disaccharide formed by the combination of fructose and glucose? a) sucrose b) maltose c) lactose d) starch
a) sucrose
33
What are the building blocks of proteins? a) nucleotides b) monosaccharides c) amino acids d) fatty acids
c) amino acids
34
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins as mentioned in the information? a) support b) transport c) energy storage d) defense
c) energy storage
35
Which type of fat is typically solid at room temperature and is associated with increased risk of heart disease? a) saturated fat b) unsaturated fat c) trans fat d) monounsaturated fat
a) saturated fat
36
What are the primary elements found in lipids? a) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen b) C, H. Nitrogen c) C, N, O d) H, O, Phosphorus
a) C, H, O
37
What is the function of DNA in living organisms? A) It serves as the primary source of energy B) It stores and transmits genetic information C) It aids in protein synthesis D) It regulates metabolic processes
b) it stores and transmits genetic information
38
What is the sugar component in RNA? A) Ribose B) Glucose C) Deoxyribose D) Sucrose
A) Ribose
39
What does ATP stand for? a) Adenosine Triphosphonate b) Adenosine Triglyceride c) Adenosine Triphosphate d) Adenosine Thiamine Phosphate
c) Adenosine Triphosphate
40
Which bond in ATP is broken to release energy? a) Adenine-ribose bond b) Ribose-phosphate bond c) Phosphate-phosphate bond d) Phosphate-adenine bond
c) Phosphate-phosphate bond
41
Main component of cell membrane is: a) Phospholipid b) Cholesterol c) Glycoproteins d) All of the above
a) Phospholipid
42
Which best describes the structure of a cell membrane? a. bilayer of phospholipids b. bilayer of protein layer
a. bilayer of phospholipids
43
Arrangement of phospholipid as a bilayer is because of the a) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid's heads b) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid's tails c) Hydrophilic nature of the phospholipid's tails
b) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid's tails
44
Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from high to low concentration directly across the plasma membrane is called a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion c) Active channel transport d) osmosis
a) Simple diffusion
45
Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from high to low concentration directly via channels is called a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion c) Active channel transport d) osmosis
b) Facilitated diffusion
46
Facilitated diffusion across a membrane requires ______ and moves solutes ________ its concentration gradient. a. transport channels, up (against) b. transport channels, down c. energy, up d. energy, down
b. transport channels, down
47
The Potassium concentration in a cell is 20 times more than the concentration in the surrounding fluid. How potassium escapes out of the cell? a. passive transport b. receptor-mediated endocytosis c. active transport d. facilitated diffusion
d. facilitated diffusion
48
After the great escape, now the potassium concentration in the cell same as the surrounding fluid. How potassium is brought into the cell back? a. passive transport b. receptor-mediated endocytosis c. active channel transport d. facilitated diffusion
c. active channel transport
49
Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from low to high concentration via channels using energy is called a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion c) Active channel transport d) osmosis
c) Active channel transport
50
Cell membrane transport where the water move from high to low concentration across the plasma membrane where the solutes cannot cross is called a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion c) Active channel transport d) osmosis
d) osmosis
51
Cell placed in _______ solution swells a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) Hypnotonic
c) Hypotonic
52
Cell placed in _______ solution shrinks a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) Hypnotonic
b) Hypertonic
53
Cell placed in _______ solution remains the same size a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) Hypnotonic
a) Isotonic
54
Movement of solid substances from outside the cell to inside the cell is called a) Phagocytosis b) Pinocytosis c) Exocytosis d) Channel transport
a) Phagocytosis
55
Movement of substances from inside the cell to outside the cell is called a) Phagocytosis b) Pinocytosis c) Exocytosis d) Channel transport
c) Exocytosis
56
Movement of liquid substances from outside the cell to inside the cell is called a) Phagocytosis b) Pinocytosis c) Exocytosis d) Channel transport
b) Pinocytosis
57
ribosome
protein synthesis
58
mitochondria
dna
59
Golgi
packing
60
centrioles
division
61
lyosome
phagocytosis
62
microvilli
absorption
63
cilia
movement
64
absorption of digested food in intestine is executed by the presence of a) microvilli b) nucleus c) mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus
a) microvilli
65
in sweat glands, the cells are likely to have a) microvilli b) nucleus c) mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus
d) Golgi apparatus
65
A cell that has 46 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Which of the following is true? A. two daughter cells will be created, each have 46chromosomes B. two daughter cells will be created, each have 23 chromosomes C. four daughter cells will be created, each having 23 chromosomes D. two daughter cells will be created, each having 20chromosomes
A. two daughter cells will be created, each have 46chromosomes
65
Microscopic examination of the injured skin cells shows the following stages of cell division EXCEPT A. anaphase B. Prophase C. Meiosis D. Cytokinesis
c. meiosis
66
Epithelial tissue has all the characteristics except a) Cells tightly bound b) No blood supply c) One surface exposed to the environment d) No basement membrane
d) No basement membrane
67
Glandular tissue that delivers its secretion via ducts are called as a) Endocrine b) Exocrine c) none d) Both
b) exocrine
68
Which of the following is an example of merocrine secretion a) Salivary glands b) Mammary glands c) Sebaceous glands d) Pituitary gland
a) Salivary glands
69
Which of the following is an example of apocrine secretion a) Sweat glands b) Mammary glands c) Sebaceous glands d) Pituitary gland
b) Mammary glands
70
Which of the following is an example of holocrine secretion a) Sweat glands b) Mammary glands c) Sebaceous glands d) Pituitary gland
c) Sebaceous glands
71
Epithelial tissue covers a) Skin b) Blood vessels c) Vagina d) All of the above
d) all of the above
72
Epithelium which allows diffusion of nutrients across is: a) Simple squamous b) Simple cuboidal c) Simple columnar d) Pseudostratified epithelium
a) Simple squamous
73
Epithelium which helps in secretion and absorption is: a) Simple squamous b) Transitional c) Simple columnar d) Pseudostratified epithelium
c) Simple columnar
74
Epithelium which has single layer; but looks like multiple layer a) Simple squamous b) Transitional c) Simple columnar d) Pseudostratified epithelium
d) Pseudostratified epithelium
75
Epithelium which has multiple layer and helps in protection a) Stratified squamous b) Transitional c) Simple columnar d) Pseudostratified epithelium
a) Stratified squamous
76
Epithelium which has multiple layer and allows stretching a) Stratified squamous b) Transitional c) Simple columnar d) Pseudostratified epithelium
b) Transitional
77
Find the mismatch a. Simple squamous epithelium – alveoli b. Simple columnar epithelium - intestine c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – glomeruli d. Stratified squamous epithelium - mouth
c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – glomeruli
78
Find the correct match a. Simple squamous epithelium – absorption b. Simple columnar epithelium - diffusion c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – protection d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium - secretion
d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium - secretion
79
In connective tissue, this cell is most commonly found a) Fibroblasts b) Mast cells c) Fat cells d) Macrophages
a) Fibroblasts
80
In connective tissue, this cell produces histamine a) Fibroblasts b) Mast cells c) Fat cells d) Macrophages
b) Mast cells
81
In connective tissue, this cell is an energy reserve a) Fibroblasts b) Mast cells c) Fat cells d) Macrophages
c) Fat cells
82
In connective tissue, this cell helps in phagocytosis a) Fibroblasts b) Mast cells c) Fat cells d) Macrophages
d) Macrophages
83
_________ protein fibre is strong and unbranched a) Collagen b) Elastic c) Reticular d) All of the above
a) Collagen
84
_________ protein fibre is stretchable and branched a) Collagen b) Elastic c) Reticular d) All of the above
b) Elastic
85
_________ protein fibre is interwoven and helps in anchoring. a) Collagen b) Elastic c) Reticular d) All of the above
c) Reticular
86
Which of the following is not a function of connective tissue cells A. Fibroblast secreting ground substances B. Mast cells producing histamine C. Fat cells functions as energy reserve D. Macrophage gives rise to protein fibres
D. Macrophage gives rise to protein fibres
87
Loose connective tissue which has more fat cells a) Loose areolar tissue b) Adipose tissue c) Tendons d) Ligament
b) Adipose tissue
88
Dense connective tissue which connects muscle to bone is a) Loose areolar tissue b) Adipose tissue c) Tendons d) Ligaments
c) Tendons
89
Dense connective tissue which connects bone to bone is a) Loose areolar tissue b) Adipose tissue c) Tendons d) Ligaments
d) Ligaments
90
Which among the following is a fluid connective tissue a) Blood b) Lymph c) All of the above
c) All of the above
91
Which cartilage among the following has more ground substances a) Hyaline b) Elastic c) Fibro d) Endo
a) Hyaline
92
Which cartilage among the following has more elastic fibres a) Hyaline b) Elastic c) Fibro d) Endo
b) Elastic
93
Which cartilage among the following has more collagen fibres a) Hyaline b) Elastic c) Fibro d) Endo
c) Fibro
94
Which of the following has hyaline cartilage? a) Synovial joints b) Epiglottis c) Vertebral discs d) Nasal cartilage
a) Synovial joints
95
Which of the following has elastic cartilage? a) Synovial joints b) Epiglottis c) Vertebral discs d) pubic cartilage
b) Epiglottis
96
Which of the following has fibrocartilage? a) Synovial joints b) Epiglottis c) Vertebral discs d) Nasal cartilage
c) Vertebral discs
97
Which of the following muscle cell has intercalated disc? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
98
Which of the following muscle cell is branched? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
99
Which of the following muscle cell has tapered ends? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
b) Smooth muscle
100
Which of the following muscle cell is multinucleated? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
a) Skeletal muscle
101
Which of the following muscle cell is not striated ? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
b) Smooth muscle
102
Which of the following muscle cell is under voluntary control? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
a) Skeletal muscle
103
Which of the following muscle cell can divide? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle
b) Smooth muscle
104
Which of the following is an example of smooth muscle? a) Biceps b) Heart c) Iris
c) Iris
105
Which of the following is an example of skeletal muscle? a) Biceps b) Heart c) Iris
a) Biceps
106
Which of the following is an example of cardiac muscle? a) Biceps b) Heart c) Iris
b) Heart