TRAUMA DISEASES Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

In trauma cases, why might cystography be performed?

A

Visualize injury to the urinary bladder.

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2
Q

What percentage of patients with severe head injuries might also have a cervical spine fracture?

A

Up to 20%.

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3
Q

What type of fracture is commonly associated with wearing only a lap seatbelt?

A

Lumbar spine injuries.

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4
Q

What is a common finding in radiographs of patients with whiplash injuries?

A

Loss of the normal cervical lordosis.

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5
Q

What type of trauma causes compression fractures in the thoracic and lumbar spine?

A

Direct trauma or hyperextension–flexion injuries (whiplash injuries).

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6
Q

A fracture of the second cervical vertebra’s arch caused by acute hyperextension of the head.

A

Hangman’s fracture

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7
Q

What imaging method is preferred for visualizing the transverse longitudinal ligament in a Jefferson fracture?

A

MRI.

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8
Q

What is the primary cause of death in traumatic brain injuries?

A

Hematomas or swelling causing increased intracranial pressure.

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9
Q

What is the risk associated with an open skull fracture?

A

Development of meningitis or brain abscesses.

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10
Q

How can a cerebral cranial fracture be differentiated from vascular markings on a radiograph?

A

A fracture appears more translucent and linear, while vascular markings are more irregular.

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11
Q

What imaging sign is commonly associated with basilar skull fractures?

A

Air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus.

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12
Q

What is the mechanism behind traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

Acceleration and deceleration forces causing brain tissue damage.

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13
Q

What distinguishes a coup injury from a contrecoup injury in brain trauma?

A

A coup injury occurs at the point of impact,

a contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side.

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma?

A

A torn middle meningeal artery, often due to a skull fracture.

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15
Q

How is a subdural hematoma typically caused?

A

By tearing of subdural veins, usually following blunt trauma.

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16
Q

How does a subarachnoid hematoma differ from other types of brain hematomas?

A

It accumulates between the arachnoid layer and pia mater, often due to the tearing of small vessels.

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17
Q

An incomplete fracture where the bone bends and cracks without breaking completely, common in children.

A

“greenstick” fracture

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18
Q

What type of fracture occurs when the cortex bulges outward?

A

A buckle or torus fracture.

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19
Q

fracture of the distal inch of the radius with dorsal displacement of the fragment.

A

Colles fracture

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20
Q

A fracture of the fifth metacarpal from striking an object with a closed fist.

A

boxer’s fracture

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21
Q

What is a Bennett fracture?

A

A fracture dislocation at the base of the first carpometacarpal joint.

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22
Q

How does a Monteggia fracture occur?

A

Fracture of the proximal ulna with dislocation of the radial head.

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23
Q

What is a Pott fracture?

A

A fracture involving both malleoli with dislocation of the ankle joint.

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24
Q

How does a trimalleolar fracture differ from a bimalleolar fracture?

A

It involves the medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli.

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25
What does the presence of a "fat pad sign" in the elbow indicate?
suggests an underlying fracture, often of the radial head.
26
What are common sites of stress fractures in athletes?
The tibia, fibula, and metatarsals.
27
A severe ankle sprain with a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula.
Maisonneuve fracture
28
A burst fracture of the first cervical vertebra (atlas) caused by axial compression.
Jefferson fracture
29
How does a hangman’s fracture affect the cervical spine?
It causes a fracture of the second cervical vertebra and anterior subluxation on the third vertebra.
30
What is the most common wrist fracture?
Colles fracture.
31
A fracture in which the bone separates into two fragments without additional bone splitting.
complete, noncomminuted fracture
32
A rotary force that twists the bone apart, common in long bones causes what?
spiral fracture
33
What is the most common site for a compression fracture in the spine
T11-T12 and T12-L1 vertebrae.
34
What causes a butterfly fracture?
A comminuted fracture with wedge-shaped fragments splitting off from the main fragments.
35
What is a "burst fracture" in the spine?
A compression fracture where the vertebra shatters under axial force, often involving the lumbar spine.
36
What type of injury is most commonly associated with falling on an outstretched hand?
Colles fracture of the distal radius.
37
What type of brain injury results from rapid acceleration and deceleration of the head?
Traumatic brain injury (TBI).
38
How does a coup-contrecoup brain injury occur?
The brain is injured at the site of impact (coup) and the opposite side of the skull (contrecoup).
39
What is the significance of a radiolucent line in a bone?
It indicates a possible fracture.
40
What type of fracture typically results from a blow to the skull with a high-velocity object?
Depressed skull fracture.
41
What is the first imaging step in suspected cervical spine trauma?
Lateral cervical spine radiography or CT.
42
How are fractures classified as stable or unstable?
A fracture is stable if only one column (anterior or posterior) is involved; it is unstable if both are involved.
43
What is the primary cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in younger individuals?
Motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) and sports-related injuries.
44
What is a closed head injury?
A brain injury caused by forces of compression, acceleration, and deceleration without an open wound.
45
What are the most commonly affected areas of the brain in traumatic brain injury?
frontal, temporal, and occipital regions.
46
difference between an open and closed fracture
An open (compound) fracture involves the bone breaking through the skin, while a closed fracture does not.
47
What causes a “dinner fork” deformity in a Colles fracture?
dorsal displacement of the distal radius fragment.
48
What is a complete, noncomminuted fracture?
A fracture where the bone breaks into two fragments without splintering.
49
What is the common result of blunt abdominal trauma?
Injuries to the urinary system, particularly the kidneys and bladder.
50
What is a Salter-Harris fracture?
A fracture involving the growth plate in children, classified into five types.
51
What is the most common imaging method used to assess suspected fractures in trauma patients?
Plain radiography (X-ray).
52
What type of fracture is common in elderly patients with osteoporosis?
Compression fractures of the vertebral column.
53
What type of fracture is associated with high-velocity trauma and results in multiple fragments?
Comminuted fracture.
54
How is a blowout fracture of the orbit typically caused?
By blunt trauma to the eye, causing the orbital floor to fracture.
55
A fracture classification involving the maxilla, often from facial trauma. It can be Type I, II, or III depending on the extent of the fracture.
Le Fort fracture
56
How is a Le Fort Type II fracture characterized?
involves a pyramidal fracture of the maxilla, with extension through the nasal bridge, maxilla, and orbital floor.
57
What type of trauma usually causes a tripod fracture of the zygomatic bone?
A direct blow to the cheek, causing fractures at three sutures: zygomatic-frontal, zygomatic-maxillary, and zygomatic-temporal.
58
Why are mandibular fractures often bilateral?
Because the force transmitted through the mandible can cause fractures at two points, usually the angle and condyle.
59
What type of injury is associated with a Smith fracture?
A fracture of the distal radius with volar (palmar) displacement, usually caused by a fall onto a flexed wrist.
60
How does a Le Fort Type III fracture differ from Type I and II?
Le Fort Type III involves a complete craniofacial separation, with fractures extending through the orbits and zygomatic arches.
61
How is a stress fracture different from other fractures?
It is caused by repetitive stress on a bone, rather than a single traumatic event.
62
Where are stress fractures most commonly seen?
weight-bearing bones like the tibia, fibula, and metatarsals
63
type of stress fracture that occurs when muscles become fatigued and cannot absorb shock, transferring the stress to the bone.
fatigue fracture
64
A fracture where a fragment of bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament.
avulsion fracture
65
What imaging sign is indicative of an orbital blowout fracture?
A “teardrop” sign, where soft tissue from the orbit herniates into the maxillary sinus.
66
What is the most common site of fracture in the mandible?
angle of the mandible