Unit 2 Flashcards by Madilyn Ko

stimuli of the tactile system

touch, temperature, pain

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stimuli of the visual system

light waves

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stimuli of the gustatory system

soluble chemicals

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stimuli of the auditory system

sound waves

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stimuli of the vestibular system

head movements

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stimuli of the olfactory system

soluble chemicals

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receptors for the auditory system

cilia in cochlea

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receptors for the visual system

rods and cones

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receptors for the gustatory system

taste cell

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receptors for vestibular system

cilia in semicircular canal

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receptors for olfactory system

cilia in nasal cavity

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receptors in tactile system

nerve cells in skin

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1st gateway to sense and perception

attention

2nd gateway: thalamus

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3 ways to measure light waves

wave height (brightness, Hz)
wavelength (hue/color, nm)
purity (saturation)

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opponent process theory

+ demo

Ewald Hering
3 opposing color pairs
activation of one member of the pair inhibits activity i the other
demo: beyoncé afterimage

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demo: skin crawling explains which theory?

gestalt principle of continuity:

brain experiences visual line of elements that are grouped together

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demo: count the number of f’s in this sentence explains which theory?

gestalt principle of closure:
brain tends to fill in missing information that gives closure or completeness
(brain skips over small words to increase efficiency and reading speed)

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3 ways to measure sound waves

wave height (amplitude, db)
wavelength (pitch, Hz)
purity (timbre)

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what are ossicles?

small bones in ear that make eardrum vibrates

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human hearing capacity

20-20,000 Hz

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human wavelength

400-700 nm

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What is one of the differences between sensation and perception?
A. Sensation is the emotional response you make of a situation, whereas perception is the logical response you make.
B. Sensation is the sense that you make of a situation, whereas perception is the reception of signals to the brain.
C. Sensation is the activation of sensory receptors, whereas perception is how we interpret those sensory signals.
D. Sensation is the positive feelings you have toward a situation, whereas perception is the negative feelings you have.

C. Sensation is the activation of sensory receptors, whereas perception is how we interpret those sensory signals.

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Noreen gazes out at the city lights from her 23rd-floor apartment; Jonah feels a stinging pain after falling from his bike and scraping his elbow; Matt hears the loud wail of sirens outside his dorm room window. The process that allows Noreen, Jonah, and Matt to detect these external or internal stimuli is termed \_\_\_\_.
A. transduction
B. perception
C. adaptation
D. sensation

D. sensation

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Marla suffers from a rare genetic disorder that does not allow incoming light from her eyes to be transmitted to her brain. Because of Marla's disorder, which process is directly disrupted?
A. transduction
B. perception
C. sensation
D. sensory adaptation

A. transduction

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``` An important gateway to perception is the process of ____, which is defined as a narrow focus of consciousness. A. attention B. cognition C. adaptation D. interpretation ```

A. attention

``` The methods of psychophysics allow us to establish the limits of awareness or _____. A. intelligence B. conduction velocity C. criteria D. thresholds ```

D. threshold

``` A radiologist correctly identifying cancer from a mammogram is an example of _____. A. difference threshold B. correct rejection C. signal detection D. absolute threshold ```

C. signal detection

Which of the following is an example of perception? A. How you identify a song when you hear it B. How light affects your eyes C. How a tap on your back draws your attention away from a conversation D. How a sound wave affects the organ of your ear

A. How you identify a song when you hear it

``` College roommates Michelle, Renee, and Kate are curtain shopping for their new off-campus apartment. They find the perfect set of curtains but disagree as to their actual color. Michelle says they are jade, Renee is leaning toward teal, and Kate insists that they are turquoise. What causes each roommate to have a different interpretation of the color of the curtains? A. Transduction B. Perception C. Sensation D. Sensory adaptation ```

B. perception

``` Celeste moved into her college dorm room today. She turns off her light before going to bed and notices glow-in-the-dark stickers on the ceiling, presumably left behind from the previous occupant. What process best exemplifies her recognition of the light generated by these stickers? A. Top-down processing B. Inward-out processing C. Bottom-up processing D. Outward-in processing ```

C. Bottom-up processing

``` Thad returns home from class on a hot summer's evening, turns on the air conditioner full blast, and sits down to watch television. His roommate Sean returns home an hour later and wonders how Thad can hear the television above the loud noise of the air conditioner. Thad remarks that he doesn't even notice the sound. Which process causes the air conditioner to seem louder to Sean than to Thad? A. Sensory adaptation B. Transduction C. Perception D. `Sensation ```

A. Sensory adaptation

Seven-year-old Sam is not allowed to touch the television remote. Nevertheless, he uses the remote to change the volume from level 15 to 17. His parents, who are in the next room, seem unaware. The next day, Sam becomes bold and turns the volume from level 15 to 30. His father yells at him, "Stop playing with the remote!" What prevented Sam's father from noticing the volume change on the previous day? A. The change on the second day failed to exceed his father's fixed threshold. B. The change on the first day exceeded his father's absolute threshold. C. The change on the first day failed to exceed his father's difference threshold. D. The change on the second day was higher than his father's distinct threshold.

C. The change on the first day failed to exceed his father's difference threshold.

``` Seeing light from a candle flame 30 miles away on a dark night is an example of _____. A. signal detection B. absolute threshold C. correct rejection D. difference threshold ```

B. absolute threshold

``` The clear surface at the front of the eye that begins the process of directing light to the retina is the ____. A. cornea B. retina C. iris D. pupil ```

A. cornea

``` After suffering an eye injury during a lacrosse match, Gregg is forced to wear an eye patch. In addition to problems with depth perception, Gregg's ophthalmologist tells him that his blind spot will be more evident. Which structure of the eye has been affected with regard to his blind spot? A. Cornea B. Optic disk C. fovea D. Lens ```

B. Optic disk

How does the brain process visual information? A. Information travels from the lens to the hippocampus and then sequentially to the primary visual cortex in the temporal lobe and the hypothalamus. B. Information travels from the cornea to the amygdala and then simultaneously to the primary visual cortex in the parietal lobe and the thalamus. C. Information travels from the pupil to the reticular formation and then sequentially to the primary visual cortex in the frontal lobe and the pons. D. Information travels from the retina to the thalamus and then simultaneously to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe and the amygdala.

D. Information travels from the retina to the thalamus and then simultaneously to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe and the amygdala.

``` The primary colors of light are ____. A. red, green, and blue B. yellow, green, and blue C. red, yellow, and blue D. red, yellow, and green ```

A. red, green, and blue

``` The mathematical approach to object recognition suggests that we ____. A. consolidate hues and saturation B. analyze patterns of lines C. subtract background images D. integrate gradients of light ```

B. analyze patterns of lines

``` Juliet is only 2 days old. She is shown several different pictures. Which would she be most likely to stare at for the longest? A. A picture of her mother's face B. A picture of herself C. A picture of a spiral D. A picture of random shapes ```

A. A picture of her mother's face

``` Martha gets up early, turns on the light in the bathroom, and watches herself in the mirror as the black centers of her eyes constrict. What is this black center called? A. Retina B. Pupil C. Iris D. Cornea ```

B. Pupil

``` An area of the retina that is specialized for seeing fine details is referred to as the ____. A. cornea B. optic disk C. fovea D. lens ```

C. fovea

What does the parietal lobe do in the processing of visual information? A. It helps process movement. B. It helps you to see low-contrast objects. C. It helps in recognizing faces. D. It helps in processing colors.

A. It helps process movement.

``` One theory of color vision is based on the existence of different types of cones for the detection of short, medium, and long wavelengths. What is this theory? A. The tricolor detection scheme B. The trichromatic theory C. The tiered wavelength model D. The primary paradigm ```

B. The trichromatic theory

``` In terms of object recognition, the simplest patterns of lines are gratings, which can vary in two dimensions: ____. A. frequency and depth B. frequency and contrast C. hue and depth D. hue and contrast ```

B. frequency and contrast

``` Callie recently began wearing prescription glasses after her ophthalmologist informed her that she is affected by astigmatism. She learns that this is caused by ____. A. an uneven surface of the cornea B. an irregular eyeball shape C. the degeneration of the retina D. the loss of elasticity of the lens ```

A. an uneven surface of the cornea

``` Which feature of the eye is analogous to the hole in the center of a doughnut? A. Cornea B. Retina C. Pupil D. Iris ```

C. Pupil

In what orientation are images projected onto the retina? A. Mirrored but right side up B. Upside down but not reversed C. Upside down and reversed D. Tilted left in the right eye, and tilted right in the left eye

C. Upside down and reversed

What is the role of the amygdala in processing visual information? A. It interprets the contours of an object. B. It perceives the intensity of the stimulus. C. It decodes the color of the stimulus. D. It makes quick emotional judgments about visual stimuli.

D. It makes quick emotional judgments about visual stimuli.

The world perceived by Matteo is very different than the world perceived by most; he can only see black, white, or shades of gray. What can we conclude about Matteo? A. His retina is missing at least one type of cone. B. His retina is missing at least two types of cones. C. His retina is missing at least one type of rod. D. His retina is missing at least two types of rods.

B. His retina is missing at least two types of cones.

Which statement is most consistent with the Gestalt psychology point of view? A. The world is best understood by breaking it down into individual elements. B. We perceive our environment through separate but equal senses. C. Where one sense is lost, another is gained. D. The whole is something else than the sum of its parts.

D. The whole is something else than the sum of its parts.

Why are Westerners more likely than people from New Guinea or India to see the Müller-Lyer illusion? A. Westerners are more accustomed to environments that consist of right angles, rectangles, and straight lines. B. Westerners tend to rely more on their visual senses than their auditory or olfactory senses. C. Those of Western descent tend to have more cones than rods, decreasing their ability to see faint contrast. D. Western philosophy maintains that spatial or mathematical problems have only one correct answer.

A. Westerners are more accustomed to environments that consist of right angles, rectangles, and straight lines.

What were the results of a study that tracked the eye movements of American and Chinese college students as they scanned photographs? A. The American students sporadically surveyed several images with their eyes, regardless of the image; Chinese students used the same pattern of eye movement. B. The Chinese students were more likely to focus on the figure; American students gave approximately equal viewing time to figure and background. C. The American students were more likely to focus on the figure; the Chinese students gave approximately equal viewing time to figure and background. D. The Chinese and American students both scanned from left to right.

C. The American students were more likely to focus on the figure; the Chinese students gave approximately equal viewing time to figure and background.

``` Before entering the auditory canal, sound waves are funneled into the outer ear via the ____. A. oval window B. cochlea C. pinna D. eustachian tube ```

C. pinna

The purpose of the hair cells in the organ of Corti are to ____. A. convert sound vibrations into nerve impulses B. interpret the sounds as received from the cochlea C. block sounds from one ear when receiving from the other to avoid overloading the brain D. enhance sounds and send them through the eustachian tube

A. convert sound vibrations into nerve impulses

According to the place theory of pitch perception, how do sound waves affect the basilar membrane? A. High-frequency tones produce maximum movement at the base; low-frequency tones produce maximum movement near the apex. B. High-frequency tones produce maximum movement near the apex; low-frequency tones produce maximum movement at the base. C. High-frequency tones relax the membrane; low-frequency tones stiffen the membrane. D. High-frequency tones stiffen the membrane; low-frequency tones relax the membrane.

A. High-frequency tones produce maximum movement at the base; low-frequency tones produce maximum movement near the apex.

Our primary method for localizing sound in the horizontal plane is ____. A. to compare the arrival time of sound at each ear B. via sound waves funneling through the pinna C. via undulation differentiation in the basilar membrane D. by echolocation at the tympanic membrane

A. to compare the arrival time of sound at each ear

What is the evidence that hearing begins well before birth? A. Hours after birth, newborns begin to curl their tongue in preparation for generating specialized sounds. B. Fetuses as young as 6 months move more often when their mother speaks than in response to a stranger's voice. C. Ultrasound waves stimulate the auditory nerve in fetuses as young as 7 months. D. Newborns as young as 2 days old recognize their mother's voice.

D. Newborns as young as 2 days old recognize their mother's voice.

What does it mean if you have perfect pitch? A. You can name a note after hearing it. B. You can sing with perfect tone. C. You can tune a guitar or other instrument perfectly. D. You can recognize the tempo of any song.

A. You can name a note after hearing it.

In the middle ear, the purpose of three tiny bones located in the middle ear is to ____. A. directly stimulate the auditory nerve B. decode the frequency and amplitude of sound waves C. buffer sound waves before entering the inner ear D. transfer sound energy to the fluid of the inner ear

D. transfer sound energy to the fluid of the inner ear

``` The "grouping" principle developed by Gestalt psychologists applies to hearing; humans perceive sounds that _____ as being from the same source. A. are at similar hertz B. stop and start at the same time C. are from different locations D. start one after the other ```

B. stop and start at the same time

``` The place theory of perception uses the analogy of ____ to explain how we hear different pitches. A. a jet producing a sonic boom B. stringed instruments C. a raindrop hitting a puddle D. sonar technology ```

B. stringed instruments

``` What plays an especially significant role in the perception of music and speech? A. Grouping B. Tone C. Rhythm D. Fragmentation ```

A. Grouping

Jenni's 72-year-old grandfather has difficulty understanding her when she speaks, but he seems to understand her father much better. Why might this be? A. People over 70 typically have difficulty hearing higher-pitched voices, and Jenni probably has a higher-pitched voice than her father does. B. Jenni's grandfather's auditory processing mechanisms have become used to Jenni's father's voice, but Jenni's voice is relatively novel. C. People over 70 typically have difficulty hearing lower-pitched voices, and Jenni probably has a lower-pitched voice than her father does. D. People over 70 typically have difficulty with sounds under 6000 Hz.

A. People over 70 typically have difficulty hearing higher-pitched voices, and Jenni probably has a higher-pitched voice than her father does.

``` At what age do humans show evidence of responding preferentially to their native language? A. 1 week B. 8.5 months C. 6 months D. 2 days ```

D. 2 days

``` Which structure of the ear contains the auditory receptors? A. Tympanic membrane B. Pinna C. Auditory nerve D. Cochlea ```

D. Cochlea

Which of these responses to sound does NOT originate in the midbrain? A. Identifying the source of a sound B. Recognizing a Bach quintet C. Turning toward the source of a loud noise D. Localizing a sound

B. Recognizing a Bach quintet

What does the temporal theory state? A. Humans perceive sounds differently at different times of day. B. Human perception of sound correlates with the part of the basilar membrane showing a peak response. C. Human perception of sound is limited only to the vibrations from the base of the basilar membrane to its apex. Human perception of sound is limited only to the vibrations from the base of the basilar membrane to its apex. D. Humans localize sound by matching neural firing to the sound.

D. Humans localize sound by matching neural firing to the sound.

``` What is another name for the eardrum? A. Eustachian tube B. Organ of Corti C. Tympanic membrane D. Pinna ```

C. Tympanic membrane

Noelle has perfect pitch. Compared with other people, Noelle is likely to have ____. A. areas of her left hemisphere that are larger B. less white matter C. more white matter D. areas of her right hemisphere that are larger

A. areas of her left hemisphere that are larger

``` Sensations of body position, touch, skin temperature, and pain are referred to as ____. A. sympathetic sensation B. autonosensation C. parietal sensation D. somatosensation ```

D. somatosensation

``` Information about touch travels from the skin directly to the ____. A. medulla B. thalamus C. spinal cord D. somatosensory cortex ```

C. spinal cord

``` Although athletes and nonathletes share similar pain ____, these groups are quite different in their _____ of pain. A. remedies, concept B. thresholds, tolerance C. signals, level D. experiences, perception ```

B. thresholds, tolerance

``` No other sensory modality is as dramatically affected by culture, context, and experience as our sense of _____. A. pain B. taste C. smell D. hearing ```

A. pain

Doug lost his left leg in an automobile accident several months ago. He tells his wife that when he was shaving his face one morning, he felt the same scraping sensation on his missing leg. What may account for Doug's phantom limb sensation? A. Motor cortex redirecting its outputs B. Misappropriated top-down processing C. Reorganization of the somatosensory cortex D. Spinal cord axons attempting to reinnervate the site of the injury

C. Reorganization of the somatosensory cortex

``` Patients who self-administer morphine for pain require ____ medication than patients who receive injections from hospital staff. A. less B. stronger C. the same amount of D. more ```

A. less

``` The movement of hair cells in the vestibular system results in the production of signals in the auditory nerve. Where do the axons of the auditory nerve then form connections? A. Medulla and cerebellum B. Somatosensory cortex and cerebellum C. Medulla and thalamus D. Somatosensory cortex and thalamus ```

A. Medulla and cerebellum

While hanging up a picture, Joy hits her thumb with a hammer, causing agonizing pain. Joy immediately puffs out her cheeks and blows air onto her thumb over and over again. Her roommate Bethany laughs and then remarks, "Are you drying nail polish or hoping to blow away the pain?" However, Joy's thumb does in fact feel better. Why? A. She is hyperstimulating the pain receptors in her skin, causing the sensation of pain to fade away quicker. B. She is activating a competing sensory pathway, which dilutes the amount of pain information getting to the brain. C. She is simply buying time until the pain receptors enter a refractory period; blowing air onto the thumb plays only a psychological role. D. She is redirecting her attention toward a random behavior, which will activate areas of the cortex involved in higher-order processing.

B. She is activating a competing sensory pathway, which dilutes the amount of pain information getting to the brain.

``` People who _____ are able to tolerate higher levels of pain than those who do not. A. live in warm climates B. participate in contact sports C. strive for perfection D. exercise regularly ```

B. participate in contact sports

Proprioception is _____. A. an animal's ability to sense when to mate B. the ability to predict what another person is going to say C. the tendency to put our own needs ahead of others' needs D. the knowledge of where one's body is in space

D. the knowledge of where one's body is in space

What does the vestibular system do? A. It limits the body's reflex responses. B. It allows us to perceive unusual tastes. C. It controls the body's response to pain. D. It provides us with information about body position and movement.

D. It provides us with information about body position and movement.

``` Of the five different human sensory systems, famed philosopher Immanuel Kant considered ________ to be the most dispensable. A. vision B. olfaction C. gustation D. audition ```

B. olfaction

``` Isabella is a judge at the campus's annual Fine Foods Fair. She has an excellent palate and is able to easily distinguish among the four major categories of taste (sweet, sour, bitter, and salty) as well as the fifth, less familiar, category of taste, known by the ____. A. German term geschmack B. Indian term raita C. Japanese term umami D. French term gourmand ```

C. Japanese term umami

Three-year-old Joshua spits out his broccoli, scrunches his face, and shouts, "Yuck!" His mother can't understand why he has such a distaste for broccoli because she finds it to be rather bland. Why might Joshua and his mother have such different reactions to the taste of broccoli? A. As we get older, the overall number of taste buds decreases. B. Hyperstimulation of taste buds in young children may produce the sensation of burning. C. The orbitofrontal cortex loses a significant number of neurons as we age. D. Myelinated axons connecting to the medulla become unmyelinated as we age.

A. As we get older, the overall number of taste buds decreases.

``` Newborns seem relatively oblivious to ____ tastes. A. sour B. sweet C. bitter D. salty ```

D. salty

``` What type of stimuli are responsible for olfaction and gustation? A. Chemical B. Waveform C. Mechanical D. Electrical ```

A. Chemical

``` In combat veterans, the experience of posttraumatic stress disorder appears to interact with which sense? A. Taste B. Olfaction C. Audition D. Vision ```

B. Olfaction

``` Small bumps on the tongue that contain taste buds are referred to as ____. A. gustatory bulbs B. keratin protrusions C. papillae D. corpuscles ```

C. papillae

How does the input of olfactory information to the brain differ from other sensory input pathways? A. Before making connections with the medulla, sensory input travels through the spinal cord. B. Direct connections to the thalamus are not made before information reaches the cortex. C. It does not require the cortex for higher-order processing. D. The first direct connection is to the thalamus and not to the medulla.

B. Direct connections to the thalamus are not made before information reaches the cortex.

``` Heather considers herself a "chocoholic." When she is having a bad day, she knows that a few bites of chocolate will always make her feel better. Which area of her brain is responsible for this effect? A. Medulla B. Somatosensory cortex C. Thalamus D. Orbitofrontal cortex ```

D. Orbitofrontal cortex

``` Decreased sensitivity in _____ and taste might affect overall appetite as we age. A. the brain B. vision C. audition D. olfaction ```

D. olfaction

Compared with other cultures, how do Americans tend to differ in their odor categorization? A. Americans tend to separate odor into broader categories. B. Americans tend to find body odor offensive. C. Americans tend to clump all natural odors into one category. D. Americans are not as skilled at sorting odors into fruit or flower categories.

B. Americans tend to find body odor offensive.

``` Combat veterans with PTSD experienced anxiety after being exposed to the smell of _____. A. cologne B. food C. diesel D. flowers ```

C. diesel

interferes with adosine (inhibitory NT)

caffeine

mimics acetylcholine

nicotine

boosts GABA (main inhibitor)

alcohol

natural cannabinoid (NT) activity

cannabinoid

dopamine and norepinephrine activity

ritalin

inhibit dopamine reuptake

cocaine

inhibits dopamine reuptake | dopamine and norepinephrine activity

other amphetamines

serotonin and oxytocin

MDMA (ectasy)

imitate natural endorphins

opoids

seratonin activity

LSD

``` Which of the following phrases describes the different mental states of students in your class, whether it be drowsy, full of energy, or somewhere in-between? A. Stream of consciousness B. Content awareness C. Preconscious awareness D. State of awareness ```

D. State of awareness

``` Corrina finds a quiet cubicle at the library and prepares for a long night of studying. While she studies, she is also aware of the conversation taking place at the next table. What aspect of consciousness describes Corrina's awareness of both her textbook material and the other conversation? A. State of awareness B. Content of awareness C. Preconscious awareness D. Stream of consciousness ```

B. Content of awareness

From an evolutionary perspective, why is the conscious awareness of ongoing sensations advantageous for animals? A. It enables animals to have a sense of mortality and a strong will to pass on their genes. B. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively. C. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats. D. It facilitates the development of complex motor and sensory control.

B. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively.

``` Consciousness requires complex interactions between the cerebral cortex and the ____. A. midbrain B. amygdala C. hippocampus D. thalamus ```

D. thalamus

``` What brain structure is responsible for raising or lowering the thresholds of conscious awareness? A. Medial parietal cortex B. Substantia nigra C. Corpus callosum D. Reticular formation ```

D. Reticular formation

Which of the following is a correct statement about the default mode network (DMN) in the brain? A. It maintains a consistent source of energy usage in the brain. B. It lights up the brain so that you make fewer mistakes. C. It focuses the brain on detailed tasks. D. It maintains unconscious activity that prepares the brain for conscious thought.

D. It maintains unconscious activity that prepares the brain for conscious thought.

``` Tasha runs a day care center. She places birthday hats on a group of children to celebrate 1-year-old Chantal's birthday. Tasha notices that when Chantal passes by a mirror she grabs for the hat by reaching for the mirror instead of reaching for her own head. Tasha picks up the baby and helps her find her hat. What aspect of consciousness has Chantal not yet reached? A. Self-awareness B. Meta-cognition C. Reflective awareness D. Awareness of sensation ```

A. Self-awareness

``` Being conscious means to know or be aware of _____, both internally and in the world around us. A. things that have happened in the past B. possible future paths C. completed activities D. ongoing experiences ```

D. ongoing experiences

``` Some researchers restrict the possibility of self-aware consciousness to species that ____. A. exhibit complex social behavior B. demonstrate cognitive complexity C. show strong individualism D. are at the top of the food chain ```

A. exhibit complex social behavior

Which of the following is a possible explanation for why animals have evolved to have various states of alertness? A. Sleep allows animals to repair their bodies and conserve energy. B. Sleep allows animals to respond instinctively. C. Sleep enables animals to specialize in daytime or nighttime activity. D. Sleep keeps animals from being at risk for attack.

A. Sleep allows animals to repair their bodies and conserve energy.

``` Activity in the ________ of the brain corresponds to mind wandering, thinking about the self, and preparing for conscious thought. A. reticular activating system (RAS) B. default mode network (DMN) C. prefrontal cortex (PFC) D. behavioral inhibition system (BIS) ```

B. default mode network (DMN)

``` Among the brain structures that are believed to participate in consciousness are the cerebral cortex, thalamus, and _____. A. reticular formation B. prefrontal cortex C. occipital lobe D. hippocampus ```

A. reticular formation

``` An animal’s light-dark cycle, which for humans is 24 hours, is otherwise known as its _____. A. contrast arousal B. circadian rhythm C. cerebrodynamic cycle D. chronometric temperance ```

B. circadian rhythm

``` Kendyl was born with a congenital disorder that prevents her eyes from sensing light; her fraternal twin brother, Gabe, was born with normal vision. Compared with Gabe, Kendyl will likely have ____. A. no circadian cycle B. a longer circadian cycle C. the same circadian cycle D. a shorter circadian cycle ```

B. a longer circadian cycle

``` Patti finds her husband, Derek, asleep in his recliner. She gently touches his shoulder and says, “Derek, wake up; the dog needs to go out." Derek abruptly responds, “Patti, I am awake!" Derek was most likely in ____. A. Stage 3 or 4 N-REM sleep B. Stage 2 N-REM sleep C. Stage 1 N-REM sleep D. REM sleep ```

C. Stage 1 N-REM sleep

Which of these would be characteristic of someone in Stage 4 N-REM sleep? A. Brain activity similar to that of an awake person but with the external appearance of deep sleep B. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking C. Sleeping through familiar stimuli but waking to unexpected stimuli D. An EEG similar to a drowsy, waking person

B. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking

``` Study participants who were selectively deprived of Stages 3 and 4 N-REM sleep reported ____. A. blurred vision B. headache and nausea C. muscle and joint pain D. sore throat and itchy eyes ```

C. muscle and joint pain

``` During ___ activity, a person is actively thinking and alert. A. alpha B. gamma C. beta D. delta ```

C. beta

``` The Student Union is holding its weekly Friday night “De-stress ’til Dawn” mixer. Brandon is hungry, Shelby is tired, and Tina feels cold. Which brain structure controls the internal biological clocks responsible for regulating these processes? A. Cingulate cortex B. Amygdala C. Hypothalamus D. Hippocampus ```

C. Hypothalamus

Which of the following individuals is likely to have a longer than usual circadian rhythm? A. Ira, who spends most of his days working inside the bird house at his city's local zoo. B. Jennifer, who works a usual 9 to 5 shift most days but is occasionally asked to an overnight shift. C. Dan, who has worked on a submarine far below the surface of the water for the past 3 months. D. Lisa, who has to get up every morning at 6:30 a.m., just before sunrise, to teach classes that begin at 8:00 a.m.

C. Dan, who has worked on a submarine far below the surface of the water for the past 3 months.

``` Approximately an hour after falling asleep, Daisy’s roommate repeatedly shakes her shoulder and asks Daisy to move her car out of the driveway. Daisy takes several minutes to respond to her roommate and then opens the refrigerator to find her keys. Daisy was most likely in ____. A. REM sleep B. Stage 2 N-REM C. Stage 1 N-REM D. Stage 3 or 4 N-REM ```

D. Stage 3 or 4 N-REM

Which of the following would be characteristic of someone in Stage 1 N-REM sleep? A. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking B. Sleeping through familiar stimuli but waking to unexpected stimuli C. An EEG similar to that of a drowsy, waking person D. Brain activity similar to an awake person but with the external appearance of deep sleep

C. An EEG similar to that of a drowsy, waking person

What is the evidence to suggest that sleep plays an important role in repairing the body? A. The immune cells phagocytes and lymphocytes mature during Stage 1 N-REM sleep. B. Melatonin is manufactured during REM sleep. C. Human growth hormone is released during Stages 3 and 4 of N-REM sleep. D. Levels of the wound-healing chemical prothrombin are depleted during consciousness.

C. Human growth hormone is released during Stages 3 and 4 of N-REM sleep.

``` _____ waves accompany the processing of sensory input, particularly visual stimuli. A. Delta B. Gamma C. Alpha D. Beta ```

B. Gamma

``` Internal biological clocks interact with external stimuli, referred to by the ____. A. Italian term lezionadare B. Dutch term maalgeven C. French term temps-donner D. German term zeitgebers ```

D. German term zeitgebers

Carl’s wife, Juanita, is unhappy that her husband’s new shift as a security guard is from 11:00 p.m. to 8:00 a.m. She complains to her husband that since he started his new job, he has been having health, personality, mood, and interpersonal problems. What condition might Carl have? A. Shift maladaption syndrome B. Rapid eye movement (REM) behavior disorder C. Dysfunctional cycle condition D. Circadian abnormality disorder

A. Shift maladaption syndrome

``` Fifteen minutes after falling asleep, Duke is not awakened by the refrigerator cycling on. He is, however, awakened by his roommate opening the refrigerator door. Duke is most likely in ____. A. REM sleep B. Stage 2 N-REM C. Stage 1 N-REM D. Stage 3 or 4 N-REM ```

B. Stage 2 N-REM

Which of the following would be characteristic of someone in REM sleep? A. Brain activity similar to that of an awake person but with the external appearance of deep sleep B. An EEG similar to a drowsy, waking person C. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking D. Sleeping through familiar stimuli but waking to unexpected stimuli

A. Brain activity similar to that of an awake person but with the external appearance of deep sleep

Vanessa crams for her anatomy and physiology final by staying up the entire night before the exam. What is a likely consequence of Vanessa’s actions? A. Vanessa will need to rest her eyes periodically during the exam or risk temporary vision impairment. B. Vanessa will need to have at least two nights of normal sleep before experiencing normal mental functioning. C. Vanessa will experience a brief surge of energy during the test followed by a prolonged crash phase. D. Vanessa will likely perform significantly below her fullest potential because she decreased her capacity to remember the material.

D. Vanessa will likely perform significantly below her fullest potential because she decreased her capacity to remember the material.

``` Aurora talks to her therapist about a recurring dream in which she encounters a ferocious lion that has just escaped from local zoo. She works with her therapist to learn how to form a conscious awareness of the dream and to control the dream by turning the lion into a kitten. What technique is Aurora using A. Directive dreaming B. Cogent dreaming C. Lucid dreaming D. Autonomous dreaming ```

C. Lucid dreaming

Which scenario best illustrates the concept of a night terror? A. Hector demonstrates acute distress even though he is asleep. When his roommate wakes him up, he is confused and does not remember being upset. B. Chandra, who suffers from sleep apnea, dreams that she is sinking to the bottom of a lake and wakes up gasping for air. C. Pauline has recurring nightmares in which her brother is trapped in a sinking car; because of this she worries obsessively about her brother's safety. D. Pierre dreams that a serial killer stands over his bed with a machete in his hand and is certain that he faces imminent death.

A. Hector demonstrates acute distress even though he is asleep. When his roommate wakes him up, he is confused and does not remember being upset.

``` Dora has no problem falling asleep each night, but she wakes up frequently in the middle of the night and often cannot fall back asleep. From what type of insomnia does Dora suffer? A. Duration insomnia B. Maintenance insomnia C. Interval insomnia D. Continuance insomnia ```

B. Maintenance insomnia

``` Consuela stands in front of her U.S. history class to give a presentation. She suddenly loses consciousness and suffers a sleep attack referred to as ____. A. narcolepsy B. ataxia C. dyspnea D. cataplexy ```

A. narcolepsy

``` Sleep ________ is a sleep disorder in which a person stops breathing while asleep. A. ataxia B. dystonia C. dyspepsia D. apnea ```

D. apnea

``` Some cases of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) may include biological vulnerabilities in the function of which neurotransmitter? A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Glutamate D. Dopamine ```

A. Serotonin

Sam suffers from restless legs syndrome. From what other disorder is Sam likely to suffer? A. Obsessive compulsive disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder

C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

``` The part of the brain that has been found to be most active during lucid dreaming is the ________, which suggests that such dreams occur when this brain area just wakes up during sleep. A. ventromedial superior colliculus B. bed nucleus of the stria terminalis C. the substantia nigra D. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex ```

D. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

What is the physiological basis for night terrors? A. The transition from Stage 4 N-REM sleep upward into REM goes awry. B. Dreaming begins in N-REM stages rather than in the REM state. C. Sleep spindles and K-complexes do not form during Stage 4 N-REM sleep. D. Hyperstimulation of beta waves occurs during the REM state.

A. The transition from Stage 4 N-REM sleep upward into REM goes awry.

Zolpidem (Ambien) can help both onset and maintenance sleep, but it has significant side effects. Which of the following is a known side effect of Ambien? A. Driving or walking while asleep B. Significant weight loss C. Excitability or mania during the day D. Increased coordination and concentration

A. Driving or walking while asleep

``` Carlos stands in front of his Thursday night slam poetry group to recite his most recent work. He suddenly experiences temporary muscle paralysis but does not lose consciousness, a condition called ____. A. cataplexy B. dyspnea C. narcolepsy D. ataxia ```

A. cataplexy

``` Michael sleeps every night with a loud and somewhat disruptive machine that uses a mask to regulate airflow into his lungs. Which diagnosis might Michael have received? A. Somnambulism B. Insomnia C. Sleep apnea D. Narcolepsy ```

C. Sleep apnea

``` ____ occurs when a healthy infant simply dies while asleep. A. Dyspnea B. Apnea C. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome D. RLS ```

C. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

``` What percentage of adults in the United States experience restless legs syndrome? A. 5% B. 15% C. 35% D. 10% ```

B. 15%

The activation-synthesis theory of dreaming suggests that the content of dreams reflects _____. A. self-awareness B. the unconscious mind expressing itself symbolically C. ongoing neural activity D. a prediction of the future

C. ongoing neural activity

Which of the following may be an effective treatment for recurring, upsetting nightmares? A. Training in lucid dreaming B. Sleeping longer than 9 hours per night C. Medication such as Ambien D. Lowering bedroom temperature

A. Training in lucid dreaming

``` _____ insomnia is when a person lies in bed for a long period and is unable to go to sleep. A. Early evening B. Unhealthy C. Maintenance D. Onset ```

D. Onset

``` Patients with narcolepsy have damaged or missing cells in their ____, which disrupt the production of ________. A. amygdala; neuromodulators B. medulla; oxytocin C. hippocampus; neurotransmitters D. hypothalamus; orexin ```

D. hypothalamus; orexin

``` In a person with sleep apnea, breathing can stop for _____ during sleep, leaving the sleeper gasping for air. A. 45 seconds B. a minute or two C. 30 seconds D. 10 seconds ```

B. a minute or two

``` Rates of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome in the United States were cut in half between 1992 and 2003, when the American Academy of Pediatrics began telling parents to put infants to sleep on their ____. A. backs B. blankets C. stomachs D. sides ```

A. backs

``` Restless legs syndrome (RLS) results from a gene variant that is active only during early prenatal development in the _____. A. nervous system B. amygdala C. hypothalamus D. basal ganglia ```

D. basal ganglia

After cardiac arrest, Teresa’s father, Ike, is in a coma. Ike’s doctor explains to Teresa that his brain activity shows ____. A. alpha and theta waves that are consistent with sleep B. alpha and theta waves that are distinct from those of a normal sleeping pattern C. only alpha waves that are distinct from those of a normal sleeping pattern D. only alpha waves that are consistent with sleep

C. only alpha waves that are distinct from those of a normal sleeping pattern

Consider the following scenarios. Which person displays characteristic signs of a persistent vegetative state? A. Andrew is in a coma; his mother is hopeful because he occasionally opens his eyes and sometimes smiles or cries, but Andrew's doctors tell her that these actions are random. B. Sienna is learning to walk after her automobile accident; however, she still cannot communicate and suffers significant cognitive impairment. C. Muriel was in a deep coma; she now squeezes her mother's hand when she hears her voice but cannot open her eyes or speak. D. Brian is in a persistent state of unconsciousness; he cannot be awakened and does not respond to painful stimuli.

A. Andrew is in a coma; his mother is hopeful because he occasionally opens his eyes and sometimes smiles or cries, but Andrew's doctors tell her that these actions are random.

Brain death is characterized by ____. A. two flatline EEG recordings taken 24 hours apart B. a persistent vegetative state lasting longer than 18 months C. EEG recordings void of beta waves for at least 48 hours D. a continuous comatose state lasting longer than 12 weeks

A. two flatline EEG recordings taken 24 hours apart

What physiological response may be responsible for the phenomenon of a near-death experience characterized by out-of-body experiences, the perception of light at the end of a tunnel, and the state of calmness? A. Activation of the nigrostriatal pathway B. Release of chemicals to minimize cell loss in the brain C. Deactivation of adrenal medullary pathways D. Increased inhibition of action potentials in brainstem neurons

B. Release of chemicals to minimize cell loss in the brain

``` Regina wakes her husband in the middle of the night and asks, “Where am I? This isn’t our bedroom.” After a visit to the emergency department, Regina learns that she likely suffered a partial seizure originating in her ____ lobe. A. temporal B. frontal C. parietal D. occipital ```

A. temporal

Which is NOT true of a person in a state of coma? A. A person may respond to pain and light. B. A person is incapable of voluntary behavior. C. A person cannot be awakened. D. A person does not have sleep–wake cycles.

A. A person may respond to pain and light.

Vegetative state often follows a period of coma. A. true B. false

A. true

Brain death is identified as _____. A. only minimal, periodic response from a person B. an unresponsive body C. an imbalance of brain activity D. a complete and irreversible lack of measurable brain activity

D. a complete and irreversible lack of measurable brain activity

``` More than 8 million Americans have reported ____. A. a near-death experience B. an insomnia experience C. a vegetative state experience D. a coma experience ```

A. a near-death experience

``` _____ are uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain that are often correlated with changes in consciousness. A. Sleep terrors B. Seizures C. Dreams D. Comas ```

B. Seizures

A stroke affecting a single hemisphere typically does not lead to coma. A. true B. false

A. true

``` In contrast to patients in a coma, patients in a vegetative state look _____. A. unhealthy B. normal C. unrested D. shocked ```

B. normal

``` Patients who recover after a cardiac arrest or some other life-threatening condition often report _____. A. feeling pain B. similar experiences C. feeling nauseous D. feeling heavy ```

B. similar experiences

``` Natalia, who suffers from epilepsy, experiences a seizure in which she completely loses consciousness, stops breathing, and thrashes about uncontrollably. Natalia experienced which type of seizure? A. Generalized tonic-clonic B. Generalized myoclonic C. Partial tonic-clonic D. Partial myoclonic ```

A. Generalized tonic-clonic

Since seizures are correlated with changes in consciousness, they provide evidence that _____. A. focal areas originate in the hypothalamus B. seizures and RLS are connected C. cortical activity is correlated with consciousness D. drugs that inhibit GABA can control seizures

C. cortical activity is correlated with consciousness

``` Jordan typically has at least three cups of coffee throughout the day. She decides to cut her coffee habit cold turkey but experiences severe lethargy despite having a good night’s sleep. Jordan is experiencing ____. A. recoil narcosis B. the desensitization effect C. withdrawal symptoms D. sensitization syndrome ```

C. withdrawal symptoms

``` The major psychoactive chemical in marijuana is ____. A. thiazolidinedione B. tocotrienol C. tert-butylhydroquinone D. tetrahydrocannabinol ```

D. tetrahydrocannabinol

Megan is contemplating trying lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) at a party. As her friend, what warning would you give her? A. It is strongly addictive. B. It can lead to major depressive episodes. C. It can cause symptoms of schizophrenia. D. It can cause hallucinations days after using the drug.

D. It can cause hallucinations days after using the drug.

Sam has recently been given a prescription for a mild opiate medication by her physician. This drug is most likely being used to help control which of the following ailments? A. Acne of the face and body B. A fungal infection of the foot (athlete's foot) C. A persistent, nagging cough D. Urinary incontinence

C. A persistent, nagging cough

When experienced practitioners are asked to describe the subjective experience produced by meditation, they describe ____. A. a conscious state without thought, accompanied by a numb emotional state B. a conscious state without thought, accompanied by a blissful emotional state C. an unconscious state with discrete visions, accompanied by a blissful emotional state D. an unconscious state with discrete visions, accompanied by a numb emotional state

B. a conscious state without thought, accompanied by a blissful emotional state

``` _____consists of a set of behaviors that are the opposite of those produced by a drug. A. Tolerance B. Withdrawal C. Euphoria D. Addiction ```

B. Withdrawal

Undergraduate student Gabrielle is writing a research paper on the physiological effects of commonly used drugs, such as caffeine. As her well-informed friend, you tell Gabrielle that caffeine is known to ____. A. upregulate serotonin levels and receptors in the brain B. stimulate the ventral tegmental area in the brain C. block dopamine uptake in the brain D. interfere with adenosine-induced inhibition in the brain

D. interfere with adenosine-induced inhibition in the brain

What is the relationship between caffeine and Parkinson’s disease? A. It prevents one from acquiring Parkinson's disease. B. It causes Parkinson's disease. C. It negatively correlates with Parkinson's disease. D. It positively correlates with Parkinson's disease.

C. It negatively correlates with Parkinson's disease.

``` Dr. Goddard is studying the behavioral effects of MDMA (Ecstasy) using a rat model. He would measure increased release of which hormones in response to MDMA treatment? A. Serotonin and oxytocin B. Testosterone and noradrenaline C. Prolactin and glutamate D. Progesterone and adrenaline ```

A. Serotonin and oxytocin

``` In experienced meditators, EEG recordings of the frontal lobes of the brain during meditation feature increased levels of which type of brain waves? A. Theta waves B. Delta waves C. Beta waves D. Alpha waves ```

A. Theta waves

``` Although tolerance and withdrawal are two hallmark symptoms of physical dependence on a drug, not all addictive drugs display these features. For example, _____ is quite addictive despite its lack of withdrawal symptoms. A. cocaine B. caffeine C. alcohol D. marijuana ```

A. cocaine

Debi lights up a cigarette before her creative writing class. How is the nicotine in the cigarette likely to affect Debi? A. She will be less alert and more relaxed. B. She will be more alert and less relaxed. C. She will be more alert and more relaxed. D. She will be less alert and less relaxed.

C. She will be more alert and more relaxed.

``` Preeti discovers that her roommate Shari recently experimented with methamphetamine. Preeti, worried about her roommate, informs Shari that there are risks associated with methamphetamine use, such as the induction of symptoms associated with ____. A. generalized anxiety disorder B. psychosis C. bipolar disorder D. obsessive compulsive disorder ```

B. psychosis

``` Nicotine mimics the action of which neurotransmitter? A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. Serotonin D. Norepinephrine ```

B. Acetylcholine

``` Imaging studies using functional magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) suggest that meditation represents a voluntary regulation of attention and ____ functions. A. somatic B. central nervous system C. autonomic D. sensory ```

C. autonomic

brain damage: | EEG reading of only alpha waves in the brain

coma

brain damage: | Occasional random actions like opening eyes, smiling, or crying.

vegetative state

brain damage: | a complete and irreversible lack of measurable brain activity

brain death

brain damage: | uncontrolled and electrical disturbance in the brain

seizure

brain damage: | two flatline EEG recordings taken 24 hours apart

brain death

brain damage: | a seemingly normal appearance

vegetative state

name the drug: | stimulates natural cannabinoid and neurotransmitters in brain

marijuana

name the drug: | increases seratonin and oxytocin (the "social" neurotransmitter) in brain

ecstasy

name the drug: | simply stimulates serotonin receptors in brain

LSD

name the drug: | boosts affects of main chemical that reduces inhibitions in brain

alcohol

name the drug: | imitate the effects of natural endorphins in brain

opoids

name the drug: | messes with the chemical that makes you sleepy

caffeine

name the drug: | mimics the effects of acetylcholine in brain

nicotine

name the drug: | interferes with dopamine re-uptake in brain

cocaine

name the drug: | messes with dopamine re-uptake, increases release of dopamine

amphetamines

name the drug: | increases dopamine and norepinephrine levels in brain (does no mess with dopamine re-uptake)

ritalin

polysomnography - what is it and what does it measure?

how we measure sleep: EEG - brain waves EMG - muscle movements EOG - eye movement

what is the predominate wave when we're awake?

beta | - high frequency and lower voltage

what is the predominate wave when we're drowsy?

alpha | - lower frequency and higher voltage

what is the predominate wave during light sleep (N1)?

theta

characteristics of light sleep (N1)

- hypnotic jerks - easily wake - sleeper does not realize they are sleeping

what is the predominate wave during N2 sleep?

mixture of waves

characteristics of N2 sleep

sleep spindles & k-complex: keeps less important stimuli from waking up sleeper - typically woken up by saying name

what is the predominate wave during deep sleep (N3)?

delta

characteristics of REM

- sawtooth waves - dreaming - muscle twitching

the "random sentences" demo illustrates which theory?

activation synthesis theory of dreaming | - brain tries to piece together memories into a narrative during dreaming

``` Inevitable, involuntary responses to stimuli that are primarily controlled by circuits located in the spinal cord and brainstem are referred to as ____. A. reflexes B. instincts C. habits D. behaviors ```

A. reflexes

What distinguishes a reflex from an instinct? Use letters in alphabetical order to select options A. In contrast to an instinct, a reflex does not depend on prior experience. B. An instinct is a more complex behavior than a reflex. C. A behavior is a more complex behavior than an instinct. D. In contrast to a reflex, an instinct does not depend on prior experience.

B. An instinct is a more complex behavior than a reflex.

``` Learning is traditionally divided into three categories: associative, nonassociative, and ____. A. conditioned B. classical C. operant D. observational ```

D. observational

Why does associative learning provide an enormous survival advantage? A. Organisms are able to comprehend the complex relationship between environment and habitant. B. Organisms are able to instinctively and rapidly respond to threats. C. Organisms are able to associate with one another to work together against natural enemies. D. Organisms are able to predict the future and thus are given time to prepare for future events.

D. Organisms are able to predict the future and thus are given time to prepare for future events.

What is a key distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning? A. Operant conditioning generally works best with involuntary, reflexive behaviors; classical conditioning involves voluntary behaviors. B. In contrast to classical conditioning, operant conditioning leads to a relatively permanent behavioral change. C. In contrast to operant conditioning, classical conditioning leads to a relatively permanent behavioral change. D. Classical conditioning generally works best with involuntary, reflexive behaviors; operant conditioning involves voluntary behaviors.

D. Classical conditioning generally works best with involuntary, reflexive behaviors; operant conditioning involves voluntary behaviors.

Which of the following is an example of nonassociative learning? A. Andrea recently learned how to drive a car. At first she found merging into highway traffic very stressful, but now she can do it with ease. B. Hoping to understand more about her parent's culture, Parvati carefully watches as her grandmother prepares a traditional South Indian meal. C. Gabriel tells his four-year-old daughter each night: "No dessert until you eat your dinner without complaining." To get the dessert, his daughter obeys. D. As a child, Maxwell had a frightening experience with his neighbor's large dog. He now fears all large dogs.

A. Andrea recently learned how to drive a car. At first she found merging into highway traffic very stressful, but now she can do it with ease.

``` Which process below is defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience? A. Variable action pattern B. Fixed action pattern C. Learning D. Reflex ```

C. Learning

``` Jim and his father are watching the ball game on television. Jim’s father starts to yawn and Jim soon follows. This is an example of ____. A. associative learning B. an instinct C. a reflex D. imitation ```

B. an instinct

``` The process of associating a behavior with its consequences is known as ____. A. nonassociative learning B. classical conditioning C. habituative learning D. operant conditioning ```

D. operant conditioning

``` The formation of associations between two stimuli that occur sequentially in time is referred to as ____. A. associative conditioning B. observational conditioning C. operant conditioning D. classical conditioning ```

D. classical conditioning

``` If people are continuously exposed to an unchanging stimulus that they know will not cause them harm, they will most likely ____. A. control their reflexes B. form an association with the stimulus C. habituate to the stimulus D. tolerate the stimulus ```

C. habituate to the stimulus

``` In humans, most reflexes are controlled by nervous system circuits located in the ____. A. fingertips B. back C. legs and arms D. spinal cord and brainstem ```

D. spinal cord and brainstem

``` Sara allows her dog, Isabel, to run freely at a local park. When a truck drives by and its engine backfires loudly, Isabel quickly jumps up on her hind legs and barks loudly. Isabel’s response illustrates ____. A. operant conditioning B. an instinct C. a reflex D. sensitization ```

C. a reflex

``` As Angel speeds down Elm Avenue, he suddenly slams on his brakes to avoid a collision with another car. Angel’s response is an example of ____. A. a learned behavior B. a reflex C. an instinct D. a variable pattern response ```

A. a learned behavior

``` Learning that involves changes in the magnitude of responses to a specific stimulus is referred to as ____ learning. This type of learning does not involve the formation of connections between stimuli. A. associative B. observational C. operant D. nonassociative ```

D. nonassociative

``` Why is the process of sensitization advantageous? A. It improves fixed action patterns. B. It improves cognition. C. It facilitates adaptation. D. It improves reaction time. ```

D. It improves reaction time.

``` After a devastating fire that destroyed her home, Lisbeth finds that she is startled by the sound of car horns and sirens, the smell of smoke, and loud noises. This is an example of ____. A. observational learning B. habituation C. sensitization D. operant conditioning ```

C. sensitization

``` _____ is also known as social learning or modeling and occurs when one organism learns by watching the actions of another organism. A. Nonassociative learning B. Observational learning C. Classic conditioning D. Associative learning ```

B. Observational learning

``` An environmental cue or event whose significance is learned is referred to as ____. A. a conditioned stimulus B. a characteristic stimulus C. an uncharacteristic stimulus D. an unconditioned stimulus ```

A. a conditioned stimulus

``` As Katie hears a song on the radio, she feels stressed: her heart races, her hands become clammy, and her breathing becomes rapid. The song is familiar because it was very popular at a time when her parents were going through a divorce that caused Katie intense anxiety. In this scenario, identify the unconditioned stimulus. A. Anxiety toward parents fighting B. Anxiety toward song C. Song D. Parents fighting ```

D. Parents fighting

``` Peter’s mother normally arrives home from work in a terrible mood, causing Peter extreme anxiety. However, when Peter sees that his mother is wearing sweatpants, Peter feels at ease, knowing that she has been home from work for a while. Peter’s recognition that the sweatpants indicate that there is no reason to feel anxious illustrates ____. A. inhibition B. latent inhibition C. higher-order conditioning D. extinction ```

A. inhibition

``` Greg, who mainly smoked cigarettes when out with friends, recently quit smoking. However, each time he visits a bar or restaurant with his friends, he has the strong urge to light up a cigarette. This is an example of ____. A. latent inhibition B. habituation C. observational learning D. spontaneous recovery ```

D. spontaneous recovery

Which of the following statements describes a belief of the early behaviorists? A. Not all stimuli can be equally paired to form conditioned associations. B. Behavior follows the same general rules across species. C. Psychological research should focus on introspection. D. Human subjects are preferable to animals because they replicate the complexity of real life.

B. Behavior follows the same general rules across species.

``` Ira has a problem wherein he tends to speak without thinking, and this has caused him to lose friends and damage relationships at work. To reduce the frequency of this behavior, Ira wears a rubber band that fits loosely around his wrist. Whenever he begins to speak without thinking, he snaps himself with the rubber band just hard enough to sting a little bit. This is an example of ______ therapy. A. systematic desensitizing B. insight C. flooding D. aversion ```

D. aversion

``` What type of stimulus elicits a response without prior experience—that is, without learning having taken place? A. Unconditioned B. Conditioned C. Classical D. Habitual ```

A. Unconditioned

``` The development of a conditioned response is called ____. A. higher-order conditioning B. habituation C. generalization D. acquisition ```

D. acquisition

``` Tim would like to stop drinking alcohol, but he is finding it difficult to resist the urge to drink when he meets up with friends. Tim’s therapist assures him that if he can resist the urge to drink during these social events, his cravings for alcohol will diminish even further, eventually fading away. What process is Tim’s therapist describing? A. Spontaneous dissipation B. Avoidance C. Systematic desensitization D. Extinction ```

D. Extinction

``` Eli is afraid of bees, and has been ever since he was nearly stung by one a few months ago. Lately, his father has been very distressed to see that Eli is now afraid of any flying insect, even tiny ones like gnats. The fact that Eli gets terribly afraid and runs to another room whenever he sees a flying bug demonstrates _____. A. acquisition B. generalization C. discrimination D. inhibition ```

B. generalization

``` According to Rescorla and Wagner, the association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus is strongest when the association is ____. A. consistent B. surprising C. familiar D. variable ```

B. surprising

``` Tim, who suffers from alcoholism, is prescribed disulfiram by his doctor to help him halt his alcohol consumption. Disulfiram works by causing unpleasant physiological effects when even small amounts of alcohol are consumed. This type of treatment is best described as ____. A. counterconditioning B. flooding C. inhibition D. systematic desensitization ```

A. counterconditioning

``` A reaction to a given stimulus that is learned or acquired over time is referred to as ____. A. a characteristic response B. a conditioned response C. an uncharacteristic response D. an unconditioned response ```

B. a conditioned response

Which of the following would decrease the likelihood of acquisition? A. The unconditioned stimulus is presented shortly after the conditioned stimulus. B. The unconditioned stimulus evokes a negative response in the participant. C. The conditioned stimulus evokes an emotional response in the participant. D. The unconditioned stimulus is presented long after the conditioned stimulus.

D. The unconditioned stimulus is presented long after the conditioned stimulus.

``` The reappearance of conditioned responses after periods of rest between sessions of extinction training is called ____. A. spontaneous recovery B. higher-order conditioning C. dominant presentation D. reacquisition ```

A. spontaneous recovery

``` When a conditioned stimulus can predict the nonoccurrence of an unconditioned stimulus, this is referred to as ____. A. extinction B. latent inhibition C. inhibition D. discrimination ```

C. inhibition

What was a key implication of Garcia and Koelling’s classic taste-aversion studies? A. The studies confirmed the applicability of classical conditioning in species other than canines. B. The studies challenged Pavlov's views on the interchangeability of stimuli and brought up new information about different organisms' predispositions to learn things. C. The studies demonstrated the relative interchangeability of stimuli. D. The studies demonstrated the common traits of several species.

B. The studies challenged Pavlov's views on the interchangeability of stimuli and brought up new information about different organisms' predispositions to learn things.

``` Counterconditioning, in which people relax while being exposed to stimuli that elicit fear, is referred to as ____. A. latent inhibition B. higher-order conditioning C. habituation D. systematic desensitization ```

D. systematic desensitization

Thorndike’s law of effect states that behavior is ____. A. based on a strong relationship between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli B. stamped into an animal relative to the consequences of the behavior C. an adaptation based on imitation D. predetermined by the type of organism

B. stamped into an animal relative to the consequences of the behavior

``` Both Thorndike and Skinner agreed that ____ is a powerful tool for managing behavior. A. negative reinforcement B. negative punishment C. positive reinforcement D. positive punishment ```

C. positive reinforcement

``` Lucia, who experiences extreme anxiety when taking an exam, practices meditation breathing to reduce her anxiety before taking a test. Her meditation breathing is an example of ____. A. negative reinforcement B. positive punishment C. positive reinforcement D. negative punishment ```

A. negative reinforcement

``` The reinforcement of a desired behavior on some occasions, but not others, is called ____ reinforcement. A. incomplete B. fractional C. fragmented D. partial ```

D. partial

``` Learning that occurs in the absence of reinforcement is referred to as ____. A. endogenous cognition B. latent learning C. higher-order conditioning D. self enhancement ```

B. latent learning

What is a token economy? A. An economy in which tokens take on value because they can be exchanged for valued goods B. An economy that has been proven to be effective. C. An economy that is a replacement for another economy D. An economy that is a model or template for other economies

A. An economy in which tokens take on value because they can be exchanged for valued goods

``` A modified cage containing levers or buttons that can be pressed or pecked by animals and is used to investigate operant conditioning is called a ____. A. puzzle box B. sequential conditioning chamber C. pigeon chamber D. Skinner box ```

D. Skinner box

``` Thorndike and Skinner were in agreement about the relative weakness of ____ as a means of controlling behavior. A. negative reinforcement B. punishment C. rewards D. positive reinforcement ```

B. punishment

``` A consequence that eliminates or reduces the frequency of a behavior by applying an aversive stimulus is referred to as ____. A. negative reinforcement B. positive reinforcement C. positive punishment D. negative punishment ```

C. positive punishment

What is a disadvantage of continuous reinforcement? A. It is not convenient to do so for an extended time period. B. It is not effective compared with the effects of punishment. C. The individual will eventually become desensitized to the target behavior. D. The individual cannot adapt the target behavior to new stimuli.

A. It is not convenient to do so for an extended time period.

Based on his experiments with rats in mazes, Edward Tolman believed that ____. A. rats learned one specific route through the maze that enabled them to reach food B. rats developed a cognitive map for where they could find food C. rats learned a route through the maze only when rewarded by finding food D. rats adhered to the familiar route even when it no longer led to food

B. rats developed a cognitive map for where they could find food

``` One of the most dramatic applications of behavior therapy is the treatment for _____ pioneered by O. Ivar Lovaas. A. conditioning B. depression C. alcoholism D. autism spectrum disorder ```

D. autism spectrum disorder

What is true of operant conditioning? A. It generally involves involuntary behaviors. B. It involves emotional behaviors. C. It generally involves voluntary behaviors. D. It involves tests based on intelligence.

C. It generally involves voluntary behaviors.

``` Which condition does NOT have to be met for punishment to have observable effects on behavior? A. Significance B. Immediacy C. Delayed response D. Consistency ```

C. Delayed response

``` Richard, who is 16 years old, misses his curfew and is grounded by his parents. He is not allowed to leave the house, see his friends, or use his cell phone for one week. His parent’s actions illustrate ____. A. positive punishment B. negative reinforcement C. positive reinforcement D. negative punishment ```

D. negative punishment

``` A schedule of reinforcement in which reinforcement occurs after a set number of behaviors is called a ____ schedule. A. concrete interval B. concrete ratio C. fixed ratio D. fixed interval ```

C. fixed ratio

Keller and Marion Breland, two of B. F. Skinner’s former students who used operant conditioning to train animals for entertainment, found that ____. A. animals really enjoyed being trained to do non-instinctive behaviors B. the more they worked with the animals, the better the animals performed on the tasks, regardless of instinctive behaviors C. animals could completely overwhelm their instincts with the new conditioned behaviors D. animals tended to revert to instinctive behaviors even after they had acquired new (non-instinctive) behaviors

D. animals tended to revert to instinctive behaviors even after they had acquired new (non-instinctive) behaviors

``` All of us respond positively to token economies, but they are especially useful in ____ settings. A. manufacturing and construction B. educational and institutional C. creative D. dining ```

B. educational and institutional

``` What is observational learning? A. Learning by touching or otherwise experiencing something viscerally B. Learning based on reading C. Learning by watching someone else D. Learning by listening to a story ```

C. Learning by watching someone else

``` Copying a behavior that is unlikely to occur naturally and spontaneously is referred to as ____. A. duplication B. mirroring C. imprinting D. imitation ```

D. imitation

``` In what process do mirror neurons play a key role? A. Bonding B. Imitation C. Imprinting D. Habituation ```

B. Imitation

``` The imitation of ____ might serve as a building block on the road to achieving empathy. A. facial expressions B. aggression C. humor D. positive punishment ```

A. facial expressions

``` Richard Dawkins referred to the basic unit of cultural transmission as a _____. A. meme B. moral C. custom D. law ```

A. meme

Why is observational learning advantageous? A. It is the best way to acquire learning. B. It decreases inhibition. C. It allows you to learn without experiencing negative consequences. D. It sharpens your eyesight.

C. It allows you to learn without experiencing negative consequences.

What was a key finding of the Bobo doll experiment? A. Reprimanding the adult for her aggressive behavior substantially reduced the children's aggressive behavior. B. Reprimanding the adult for her aggressive behavior slightly increased the children's aggressive behavior. C. Reprimanding the adult for her aggressive behavior did not affect the children's aggressive behavior. D. Reprimanding the adult for her aggressive behavior slightly reduced the children's aggressive behavior.

D. Reprimanding the adult for her aggressive behavior slightly reduced the children's aggressive behavior.

``` Which condition is characterized by a lack of back-and-forth imitation of gestures and facial expressions during infancy and deficits in empathy and social skills later in life? A. Autism B. Schizophrenia C. Bipolar disorder D. Down syndrome ```

A. Autism

``` Bandura identified four necessary cognitive processes in the modeling of others' behavior: attention, _____, reproduction, and motivation. A. retention B. repetition C. connection D. attraction ```

A. retention

What indicates that imitation provides adaptive advantages? A. Imitation is unique to the young, regardless of species. B. Imitation is unique to humans. C. Imitation is most effective for teaching aggression. D. Imitation is frequently used in the animal world.

D. Imitation is frequently used in the animal world.

``` Based on the work of Richard Dawkins, the basic unit of cultural transmission is known as ____. A. a meme B. a trifle C. an abstract gene D. a token ```

A. a meme

What kind of schedule (continuous or partial) produces the best learning?

continuous | - learning is best if rewarded every time

What kind of schedule works best to maintain a learned response?

partial | - once it's learned, it's maintained best if only rewarded some of the time; more of a surprise

Piecework is an example of which partial schedule?

fixed ratio

Gambling is an example of which partial schedule?

variable ratio

Checking you email is an example of which partial schedule?

variable interval

A weekly salaried paycheck is an example of which partial schedule?

fixed interval

learning by trigger association

Pavlov; Classical Conditioning

learning by consequences; reinforcement and punishment

Skinner; Operant Conditioning

learning by watching others

Bandura; Observational Learning

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response When the dog barks (signaling Dad's return), the baby yells excitedly ```

dad coming home baby's excitement dog barking baby yells

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response Silvia was bitten by a dog before and now has a fear of dogs ```

bite pain dogs fear

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response My cockatiel squawks excitedly when I open his treat jar ```

treats squawks treat jar squawks

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response my cat cries when she sees her cat taxi (recalling shots at the vet) ```

shots pain cat taxi cries

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response Tommy ducks when the school bully passes him in the hall to avoid getting hit on the head ```

getting hit on the head pain sight of bully ducking

``` Classical Conditioning: - unconditioned stimulus - unconditioned response - conditioned stimulus - conditioned response Boy's heartbeat quickens when he has to return to the dentist ```

dental work pain dentist fear/quickening of heartbeat

"positive" in psycology

something is added

"negative" in psychology

something is taken away

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Baylee's favorite toy is put away for a week becayse she threw a tantrum

negative punishment

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Tyler aced all of her exams, so now she gets to skip the final exam

negative reinforcement

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Shawna gets spanked for stealing candy

positive punishment

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | When Matt's girlfriend cooks for him, he gives her a massage

positive reinforcement

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Mario gets his homework back with a star sticker at the top

positive reinforcement

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | When Christa poked a stick at the dog, the dog bit her

positive punishment

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | When Richard takes a pill, his headache goes away

negative reinforcement

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Tammy gets her sentence reduced for good behavior

negative reinforcement

positive/negative reinforcement/punishment: | Stephen loses his skateboard rights as a result of breaking curfew

negative punishment

"rewarding approximations" demo illustrated which type of conditioning?

Pavlov; Operant Conditioning | - guide towards correct behavior

dog Odie demo illustrated which type of conditioning?

Classical: cue words before action is performed (or clicker) Operant: treats after desired action