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PCM Exam 4 > Urinary Tract Infections 2 > Flashcards

Urinary Tract Infections 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ is a sexually transmitted protozoa

A

trichomonad vaginalis

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2
Q

“strawberry cervix” and fishy odor with vaginal pH > 4.5 is indicative of _______

A

trichomoniasis (or BV)

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3
Q

the gold standard for culture of trichomoniasis is _______

A

modified diamond’s media

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4
Q

describe the biology of neisseria gonorrhea
oxidase +/-
motile/non motile

A

gram negative diplococci (like moraxella catarrhalis)
non motile
oxidase +

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5
Q

what is the typical presentation of gonorrhea in men?

A

generally restricted to the urethra; “yellow pus” purulent discharge/ dysuria

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6
Q

the most common site of gonorrhea infection in women is the _______

A

cervix; (in men it is the urethra)

reason why gonorrhea is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy and infertility

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7
Q

the pili in Neisseria gonorrhea has a specialized mechanism of antigenic variation by _______

A

DNA rearrangment

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8
Q

LOS (lipooligosaccharide) is a virulence factor of ______ (organism)

A

Neisseria gonorrhea; it induces TNF alpha in some cells

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9
Q

______ protein in Neisseria prevents the fusion of the phagolysosome

A

por protein

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10
Q

pili and ____ protein help mediate attachment in gonorrhea

A

opa (opacity protein)

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11
Q

modified diamonds media is the gold standard for culturing ________

A

trichomoniasis

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12
Q

because neisseria gonorrhea is non motile and does not have flagella, whats is the proposed mechanism that it can contribute to ascending infections?

A

urethral and uterine contractions

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13
Q

if you suspect a female has gonorrhea, what diagnostic test would you do?

A

must do a Thayer Martin agar/ Chocolate agar w/ VCN (vancomycin, colistin, nystatin)

cannot do a gram stain because there are other gram negative bacterial in the women’s normal microflora (however CAN do gram stain for males)

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14
Q

oxidase ____ is description of neisseria gonorrhea

A

oxidase positive

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15
Q

the discharge in chlamydia is described as _________

A

mucoid;

gonorrheal discharge is described as purulent

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16
Q

which of the following can you use a gram stain to diagnose: gonorrhea/chlamydia

A

gonorrhea (only in males because in females must do a culture on Chocolate agar)
chlamydia is NOT VISIBLE with gram stain

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17
Q

______ is the most sensitive test for diagnosing chlamydia

A

NAAT

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18
Q

describe the biology of chlamydia

A

atypical bacterium that is “gram negative” but doesn’t stain
has elementary bodies (infectious non replicating) and reticulate bodies (non infectious replicating)
OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR parasites that gain entry through abrasions or lacerations

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19
Q

_______ is a STI that has EB and RB forms

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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20
Q

HSV 1 remains dormant in _________ (nerve)

A

trigeminal ganglia

21
Q

HSV 2 remains dormant in ______ (nerve)

A

sacral ganglia

22
Q

treponema pallidum is a _______ (organism type) and is motile/non motile

A

tightly coiled spirochete; motile via end-flagellum

23
Q

what demographic has the highest number of cases of syphilis?

A

men who have sex with men

24
Q

the definitive diagnosis of the primary stage of syphilis is by ________

A

darkfield microscopy

25
Q

syphilis has 3 stages of presentation.

how does the primary stage present

A
  • hard, painless but sensitive ulcer/ chancre that develops 9-90 days after infection
  • lesion can have a greater with viscous fluid containing T. palladium cells
26
Q

condyloma acuminatum is seen in _____ (stage) of syphilis

A

primary stage in females (genital warts) and is associated with HPV

27
Q

maculopapular rash is part of the _____ stage of syphilis infection. Does the rash extend over the palms and soles?

A

secondary; YES, rash extended over face, palms and soles

28
Q

condyloma lata is found in the _______ stage of syphilis

A

secondary; lesions are “swarming” with the organism and described to be flat, smooth, eroded and moist

lata = later

29
Q

what is the presentation of tertiary stage syphilis?

A

occurs 15-20 years later and present with CNS Symptoms such as progressive dementia, neingitis and hallucinations
- also have CVS effects such as aortic aneurysm

30
Q

what is a CVS manifestation of tertiary syphilis?

A

aortic aneurysm

31
Q

what 2 causative agents are responsible for urethral discharge?

A
  • N. gonorrhea: purulent “yellow pus” discharge
  • C. trachomatis: Clear watery discharge

have symptoms of dysuria and frequent urination

32
Q

gonorrhea and chlamydia most common affect the _____

A

cervix

33
Q

what are 2 causal agents of vagintis?

A
  • T. vaginitis (trichomoniasis)

- candida

34
Q

which 2 STI’s can cause inguinal bubos?

A
  • C. trachomatis (LGV: L1,2,3

- H. ducreyi (chancroid)

35
Q

Trichomonas is motile/non motile

A

motile w/ 4 flagella and short undulating membrane

36
Q

frothy gray or yellow grey vaginal discharge is indicative of ______

A

trichomoniasis

37
Q

wet mouth of vaginal discharge shows motile flagellated protozoa with many WBC’s. what is the most likely diagnosis

A

Trichomoniasis

38
Q

vaginal candidiasis is diagnosed using _____

A

KOH wet mount

39
Q

if a pregnant mother with gonorrhea gives birth to a child, what are some possible complications?

A
  • blindness

- conjunctivitis

40
Q

antigenic variation of _____ in N. gonorrhea prevents immunity and explains the difficulty in vaccine development

A

pili (has type IV pili)

41
Q

N. gonorrhea is motile/non motile

A

non motile and thus in men it is usually limited to urethras but in females the urethral/uterine contracts can contribute to an ascending infection

42
Q

which servers of chlamydia trachomatis is assorted with conjunctivitis, infant pneumonia and urogenital disease

A

D-K

43
Q

where can receptors for EB’s of chlamydia be found?

A
  • mucous membranes of the urethra
  • endocervix, endometrium, fallopian tubes
  • anorectum
  • respiratory tract and conjunctivae
44
Q

donovanosis (caused by _________ ) will have tender/nontender ulcers

A

donovanosis = granuloma inguinal which is caused by Klebseilla granulomatis will have NON tender ulcers

45
Q

“groove sign” in a genital ulcer/adenopathy is indicative of what cause?

A

LGV serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis

46
Q

herepsviridae is characterized an enveloped/non enveloped dsDNA

A

enveloped dsDNA large icosahedral virus

47
Q

Cowdry type A bodies are nuclear/cytoplasmic inclusions seen in infection by ______

A

eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in cells infected with organisms within the herpesvirus family

48
Q

herpes blocks the effects of ________ and is able to escape anybody neutralization and clearance

A

interferon → prevents CD8 T cell recognition of infected cells

PCM Exam 4 (44 decks)

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