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uWorld Flashies > uWorld 13 > Flashcards

uWorld 13 Flashcards

1
Q

elastase in the lungs is released from what cells

A

macrophages (in lysosomes)

neutrophils (azurophilic (primary) granules)

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2
Q

when is beta-hCG first detectable in the serum

A

8 days after fertilizations
6 days at the earliest b/c that is when IMPLANTATION OCCURS
beta-hCG is produced by the SYNCYTIOTROPHOBLAST after implantation

detectible in urine 14 days after fertilization (less sensitive than serum pregnancy test)

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3
Q

what is a crossover study

A

subjects are randomly allocated to a sequence of 2 or more treatment given consecutively
simplest model is AB/BA type of study in which subjects are allocated to the AB study arm receive treatment A followed by treatment B and vice versa in the BA arm

allows PATIENTS TO SERVE AS THEIR OWN CONTROLS

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4
Q

what is a disadvantage of crossover studies and how is it limited

A

principle drawback is that effects of one treatment may “carry over” and alter the response to subsequent treatments
to limit this a washout (no treatment) period is often added b/w consecutive treatments

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5
Q

what is a case series

A

a descriptive study that tracts patients with a known condition (a particular exposure, risk factor, or disease) to document natural history or response to treatment
a qualifying study that cannot quantify statistical significance

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6
Q

a left shift in the hemoglobin curve causes what sequelae in the a patient

A

ERYTHROCYTOSIS (compensatory to maintain normal oxygen delivery)
hint: hypoxia (low tissue O2 from the left shift and less unloading at the tissues) causes ERYTHTROYCYTOSIS b/c the kidneys sense the low tissue O2 and synthesize ERYTHROPOIETIN

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7
Q

what is the pre-contemplation stage of change (transtheoretical) model

A

no thinking about behavior modification

denial

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8
Q

what is the contemplation stage of change (transtheoretical) model

A

thinking about behavior modification

acceptance

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9
Q

what is the preparation stage of change (transtheoretical) model

A

planning behavior modification

panning

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10
Q

what is the action stage of change (transtheoretical) model

A

putting plan into action

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11
Q

what is the maintenance stage of change (transtheoretical) model

A

maintaining new behavior

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12
Q

what kind of drug is fenoldopam and what is it used for

A

DOPAMINE-1-RECEPTOR AGONIST (little or no effect on alpha or beta-adrenergic receptors)

used in hypertensive emergency especially when there is ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY b/c fendolopam has prominent RENAL VASODILATION effects and thus INCREASES RENAL PERFUSION
INCREASES NATRIURESIS

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13
Q

what is homocysteinuria and what is the most common cause

A

condition that leads to HYPERCOAGULABILITY and THROMBOEMBOLIC OCCLUSION
premature acute coronary syndrome, ECTOPIA LENTIS (DOWN and OUT displacement), and INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY

MCC = CYSTATHIONE SYNTHASE defect

cysteine is essential in diet

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14
Q

what does IL-3 do

A

promotes growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

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15
Q

what promotes class switching to IgE

A

IL-4

IL-13

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16
Q

what is seen histologically in high-grade CIN

A

expansion of immature basal cells to the epithelial surface

17
Q

what cells in the bone form from mononuclear phagocytic cell lineage and are ultimately formed when several precursor cells fuse to create a multinucleated mature cell
what factors are essential for the differentiation of these cells

A

osteoclasts
macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

receptor for activated nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L)

18
Q

what is osteoprotegerin (OPG)

A

physiologic decoy receptor that decreases binding of RANK-L to RANK

19
Q

middle meningeal artery is a branch off of what

A

MAXILLARY ARTERY

20
Q

the PTH receptor and calcium-sensing receptors (CaSR) are what kind of receptors

A

transmembrane G-protein0 coupled (metabotropic) receptors

21
Q

what use transmembrane ligand-gated ion channels (inotropic receptors)

A

acetylcholine
serotonin
NMDA
GABA

22
Q

what use transmembrane receptors that recruit Janus Kinase

A

GH
prolactin
erythropoietin

23
Q

true aneursyms of the ventricular wall are bound by scarred myocardium is seen when after a large transmural infarct

A

late complication (greater than 1 month)

can cause thrombus, arrhythmias, and HF but rarely rupture

24
Q

what are signs and symptoms of ventricular free wall rupture seen within 5-14 days of an MI

A

hemoperricardium and cardiac tamponade
profound hypotension
shock
rapid progression to pulseless electrical activity and death

25
Q

what causes an S4 in older adults

A

age-related decrease in left ventricular compliance (relatively benign finding)
the louder it gets the more pathologic it is- like left ventricular hypertrophy following prolonged hypertension or restrictive cardiomyopathy

26
Q

what is the second most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect (seizures) in HIV pts

A

Primary Central Nervous System Lymphoma (PCNSL)

b-cell origin from epstein-barr virus

27
Q

lymphadenopathy behind the ears is indicative of rubella or rubeola

A

rubella

rash of rubella typically spreads faster and does NOT DARKEN or COALESCE

28
Q

what drug competitively inhibits iodine transport

A

potassium perchlorate or pertechnetate

29
Q

what TB drug requires intracellular catalase peroxidase activity to be activated

A

Isoniazid (INH)- inhibits mycelia acid synthesis but needs to be processed by mycobacterial catalase peroxide for the drug to be activated within the bacteria

30
Q

how does cyanide work

A

potent mitochondria toxin that binds Fe3+ in CYTOCHROME C OXIDASE inhibiting the electron transport chain and halting aerobic respiration in the cell

31
Q

tonofiliaments, long slender microvilli in proliferation of epithelioid-type cells that are joined by desmosomes is indicative of what lung cancer

A

mesothelioma

pancytokeratin immunohistochemical marker is helpful

32
Q

what is seen in the bladder of a MS patient

A

bladder hypertonia w/ increased urinary frequency and urge incontinence

33
Q

what characterizes primary biliary cirrhosis

A

chronic autoimmune liver disease
infiltrate of macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils that results in granulomatous destruction of INTRAHEPATIC, INTERLOBAR BILE DUCTS (“florid duct lesion”)

34
Q

primary biliary cirrhosis presents in who

A

insidiously in middle-aged women
FATIGUE and PRURITITS (usually worse at night) are usually first symptoms
hepatosplenomegaly and CHOLESTASIS (jaundice, pale stool, dark urine)
XANTHELASMA formation

35
Q

what is seen in disseminated HSV infection

A

primarily in immunocompromised ppl and presents with diffuse vesicles on an erythematous base
NO erythema multiform

uWorld Flashies (62 decks)

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