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Maddy - First Aid > Uworld > Flashcards

Uworld Flashcards

(72 cards)

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1
Q

where does lichen planus normally occur

A

wrists and ankles

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2
Q

pathogenesis of lichen planus

A

T cell mediated response to cells along junction of dermis and epidermis

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3
Q

gross appearance of lichen planus

A

pruritic, pink papule and plaques

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4
Q

how does ionizing radiation (for cancer) cause cell damage

A

1) DNA double strand breaks

2) generation of reactive oxygen species

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5
Q

in a patient with a fib, what is the most likely source of a thrombus formation?

A

left atrial appendage

a small saclike structure in left atrium that is particularly susceptible to thrombus formation

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6
Q

direct and indirect hernia - where do they lie in relation to the inferior epigastric vessels

A

direct: abdominal contents protrude MEDIAL to the vessels
indirect: abdominal components protrude LATERAL to the vessels

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7
Q

acute angle closure glaucoma occurs in what patients

A

those w/ predisposing narrow chamber angle

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8
Q

acute angle closure glaucoma can occur after taking what medications

A

those that cause pupillary dilation, such as alpha adrenergic agonists and drugs with anticholinergic effects

dilation of pupil in susceptible individuals causes iris to press against the anterior surface of the lungs –> limits flow of aqueous humor through the pupil –> causes iris to bulge forward

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9
Q

according to epidemiological data, overdose with what drugs cause the majority of OD deaths in the US

A

opioids

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10
Q

most common cause of pericarditis/pericardial effusion

A

viral infection

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11
Q

how to calculate half life

A

(0.7 x volume of distribution) / clearance rate

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12
Q

in first order kinetics, how many half lives elapse before 75% of the drug is eliminated?

A

2 half lives

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13
Q

in first order kinetics, what percentage of the drug is eliminated after:

  • 1 half life
  • 2 half lives
  • 3 half lives
  • 4 half lives
  • 5 half lives
A

1: 50%
2: 75%
3: 87.5%
4: 93.75%
5: 96.875%

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14
Q

positive psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia are thought to be caused by what

A

an excess of dopamine in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway

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15
Q

characteristics of ADHD

A

inattentive (forgetful, disorganized, loses things)

hyperactive/impulsive symptoms (difficulty staying seated, interrupts other)

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16
Q

why do multiple myeloma patients have more infections

A

neoplastic plasma cells crowd the bone marrow –> impairs normal hematopoiesis (particularly B cell development)

*limits the generation of targeted immunoglobulins against infectious agents –> recurrent bacterial infections

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17
Q

coarctation of the aorta can be associated with what

A

other congenital cardiac anomalies or with berry aneurysms of the circle of willis

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18
Q

side effects of theophylline OD

A

seizures and tachyarrhythmias

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19
Q

histology of Ewing sarcoma

A

uniform, small, round cells with clear scant cytoplasm separated by fibrous septa and patches of necrosis/hemorrhage

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20
Q

what connect the dermal-epidermal junction

A

hemidesmosomes

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21
Q

MOA beta blockers

A

prevent interaction of epinephrine and norepinephrine with receptors at adrenergic synapses

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22
Q

first line therapy for essential tremor

A

b blocker

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23
Q

function of 3’ to 5’ exonuclease

A

removing mismatched nucleotides

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24
Q

prokaryotes have 3 types of DNA polymerase (I, II, III) and they have all ______ activity

only DNA polymerase I has _____ activity

A

all have 3’ to 5’ exonuclease (proofreading) activity

only DNA polymerase I has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity

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25
MOA staph bullies impetigo
exfoliative toxin A that targets desmoglein 1 in superficial epidermis
26
what is the Hawthorne effect
tendency of study subjects to change their behavior as a result of their awareness that they are being studied
27
metastatic cancer in the liver most likely spread how
through the portal circulation
28
MOA anemia of chronic disease TIBC levels?
chronic inflammation leads to release of hepcidin --> binds and inhibits iron channels --> reduced iron absorption decreased TIBC due to suppression of transferrin
29
imiquimod MOA
topic immunomodulatory drug upregulates TLR-7 which unregulates NF-kB --> initiates immune response
30
what disease processes have osteoBLASTIC bone lesions
- prostate cancer - small cell lung cancer - hodgkin lymphoma
31
what disease processes have osteoCLASTIC bone lesions
- multiple myeloma - non-small cell lung cancer - non hodgkin lymphoma - renal cell carcinoma - melanoma
32
what kind of pleural effusion occurs with heart failure
transudative
33
describe protein and lactate dehydrogenase levels in transudative effusions
low protein low lactate dehydrogenase
34
describe protein and lactate dehydrogenase levels in exudative effusions
high protein high lactate dehydrogenase
35
what is a "consensual response" when light is shined in one eye
shining light in one eye causes pupillary constriction of the other eye - indicates CN II is functional in the ipsilateral eye, since it caused the other eye to constrict
36
function of calcineurin inhibiting calcineurin can be of what use
calcium and calmodulin dependent serine/threonine protein phosphatase that activates T cells of the immune system inhibition of calcineurin blocks T cell proliferation
37
what drugs inhibit calcineurin
cyclosporine and tacrolimus
38
hyperprolactinemia from use of anti-psychotics is due to dopamine blockage in what pathway
tuberoinfundibular you want to block the dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway, but adverse effects can occur when the tuberoinfundibulnar pathway is involved
39
how must the p value change when doing an experiment with 100,000 study subjects
decrease the p value to decrease the # of false positives
40
describe the phases of Paget disease
initial: osteolytic mixed phase final: osteoblast-dominated
41
in wegener disease, what are the antibodies against
neutrophils | anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies
42
what stage of sleep does sleep walking occur
non-REM stage 3 | deep, slow wave sleep - delta waves
43
when in the sleep cycle do you see theta waves
non-REM sleep stage 1 and 2
44
when in the sleep cycle do you see sleep spindles and K complexes
non-REM sleep stage 2
45
when in the sleep cycle do you see occasional sawtooth patterns
REM sleep
46
what causes keloids
excessive collagen formation
47
compare TTP and HUS
both: - triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury - normal PT and PTT TTP: - triad + fever + neurologic symptoms HUS: - triad + bloody diarrhea
48
what is the treatment in an emergency setting for rapid relief of symptoms in panic disorder
benzos
49
what does carbon tetrachloride do
causes free radical injury --> causes lipid peroxidation
50
what tests can you do to determine the relationship between two qualitative variables
chi square logistic regression
51
what tests can you do to determine the relationship between two quantitative variables
correlation linear regression
52
what tests can you do to determine the relationship between a qualitative independent variable and a quantitative dependent variable
t-test ANOVA linear regression
53
what tests can you do to determine the relationship between a quantitative independent variable and a qualitative dependent variable
logistic regression
54
first line treatment for psoriasis
topical corticosteroids and vitamin D analogs
55
why do you give vitamin D analogs for psoriasis
they activate the vitamin D receptor --> inhibition of T cell and keratinocyte proliferation (anti-inflammatory)
56
first line treatment for PTSD
SSRI or SNRI
57
why give epinephrine with lidocaine
prolongs duration of action because lidocaine remains at site of injection also decreases local bleeding
58
what enzyme causes bruises to green
heme oxygenase | degrades heme into biliverdin
59
what are some complications of varicose veins in the LEs
stasis dermatitis skin ulcerations poor wound healing
60
why are magnesium and aluminum hydroxide combined when treating GERD
mangesium salts cause osmotic diarrhea aluminum hydroxide causes constipation they reduce the adverse effects of each other
61
what is fanconi syndrome
generalized reabsorption defect in the PCT leads to increased excretion of amino acids, glucose, HCO3-, and PO43-
62
what acid base disturbance can come from fanconi syndrome what anion disturbances
metabolic acidosis hypophosphatemia
63
what is barterr syndrome
reabsorption defect in the thick ascending loop of Henley affects Na/K/2Cl cotransporter
64
what acid base disturbance can come from barterr syndrome what anion disturbances
metabolic alkalosis hypokalemia, hypocalciuria
65
what is gitelman syndrome
reabsorption defect of NaCl in DCT
66
what acid base disturbance can come from gitelman syndrome what anion disturbances
metabolic alkalosis hypokalemia, hypertension, decreased aldosterone
67
what is liddle syndrome
gain of function mutation in ENaC channels in collecting tubule increases Na+ reabsorption in collecting tubules
68
what acid base disturbance can come from liddle syndrome what anion disturbances
metabolic alklaosis hypokalemia, hypertension, decreased aldosterone
69
what is syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess (SAME)
cortisol activates mineralocorticoid receptors cortisol tries to be the SAME as aldosterone
70
what acid base disturbance can come from SAME syndrome what anion disturbances
metabolic alkalosis hypokalemia, hypertension, deceased serum aldosterone
71
what causes fanconi anemia
autosomal recessive DNA repair defect causing bone marrow failure --> aplastic anemia
72
DQ2 and DQ8
celiac

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

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