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Maddy - First Aid > Random > Flashcards

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1
Q

how to calculate anion gap

what is normal range for anion gap

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3)

8-12 is normal

> 12 (high anion gap)

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2
Q

causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis

A 
M: methanol
U: uremia
D: DKA
P: propylene glycol
I: iron tablets or INH
L: lactic acidosis
E: ethylene glycol
S: salicylates (aspirin)
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3
Q

causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A 
H: hyperchloremia
A: Addison disease
R: renal tubular acidosis
D: diarrhea
A: acetazolamide
S: spironolactone
S: saline infusion
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4
Q

what is distal renal tubular acidosis type 1

A

inability of alpha-intercalated cells to secrete H+ –> no new HCO3- is generated –> metabolic acidosis

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5
Q

what is proximal renal tubular acidosis type 2

A

defect in PCT HCO3- reabsorption –> increased excretion of HCO3- in the urine –> metabolic acidosis

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6
Q

what is hyperkalemic tubular acidosis (type 4)

A

hypoaldosteronism or aldosterone resistance –> hyperkalemia –> decreased NH3 synthesis in PCT –> decreased NH4+ excretion –> metabolic acidosis

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7
Q

what acid base disturbance can amphotericin B cause

A

distal renal tubular acidosis type 1

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8
Q

RBC casts in urine indicates

A

glomerulonephritis, hypertensive emergency

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9
Q

WBC casts in urine indicates

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation

acute pyelonephritis

transplant rejection

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10
Q

granular casts in urine indicates

A

acute tubular necrosis (can be “muddy brown”)

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11
Q

fatty casts in urine indicates

A

nephrotic syndrome (associated with “Maltese cross” sign)

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12
Q

waxy casts in urine indicates

A

end stage renal disease/chronic kidney disease

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13
Q

1st aortic arch derivative

A

part of maxillary artery

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14
Q

2nd aortic arch derivative

A

stapedial artery and hyoid artery

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15
Q

3rd aortic arch derivative

A

common carotid artery and proximal part of internal carotid artery

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16
Q

4th aortic arch derivative

A

left: aortic arch
right: proximal part of right subclavian artery

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17
Q

6th aortic arch derivative

A

proximal part of pulmonary arteries and on LEFT ONLY: ductus arteriosus

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18
Q

1st pharyngeal cleft derivative

A

external auditory meatus

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19
Q

1st pharyngeal arch derivatives

Study These Flashcards
A 
Cartilage: 
Maxillary process (Maxilla, zygoMatic bone), Mandibular process (Meckel cartilage, Mandible), Malleus and incus, sphenoMandibular ligament

Muscle:
Muscles of Mastication (temporalis, Masseter, lateral and Medial pterygoids, Mylohyoid, anterior 2/3 tongue)

Nerves:
V3

20
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch derivatives

Study These Flashcards
A

Cartilage:
Stapes, Styloid process, leSSer horn of hyoid, Stylohyoid ligament

Muscles:
muscles of facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, platySma

Nerves:
VII (Smile)

21
Q

3rd pharyngeal arch derivatives

Study These Flashcards
A

Cartilage:
greater horn of hyoid

Muscles:
stylopharyngeus

Nerves:
IX

22
Q

4th and 6th pharyngeal arch derivatives

Study These Flashcards
A

Cartilage:
Arytenoids, cricoid, Corniculate, Cuneiform, Thyroid

Muscles:
4th - pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, elevator veil palatini
6th - all intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid

Nerves:
4th - X (superior laryngeal branch)
6th - X (recurrent/inferior laryngeal branch)

23
Q

1st pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Study These Flashcards
A

middle ear cavity, Eustachian tube, mastoid air cells

24
Q

2nd pharyngeal pouch derivates

Study These Flashcards
A

epithelial lining of palatine tonsil

25
3rd pharyngeal pouch derivates
inferior parathyroids and thymus
26
4th pharyngeal pouch derivates
superior parathyroids and parafollicular C cells of thyroid
27
describe causes of cleft lip and cleft palate
cleft lip: failure of fusion of maxillary and merged medial nasal processes cleft palate: failure of fusion of two lateral palatine shelves OR failure of fusion of lateral palatine shelf with nasal septum
28
pathology of primary sclerosing cholangitis
unknown cause of concentric "onion skin" bile duct fibrosis --> alternating strictures and dilation with "beading" of intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts on ERCP
29
demographic for primary sclerosing cholangitis
middle aged men with ulcerative colitis
30
markers/associations in primary sclerosing cholangitis
p-ANCA increased IgM
31
pathology of primary biliary cholangitis
autoimmune reaction --> lymphocytic infiltrate +/- granulomas --> destruction of lobular bile ducts
32
demographic primary biliary cholangitis
middle aged woman
33
markers/associations for primary biliary cholangitis
anti-mitochondrial antibody increased IgM associated with other autoimmune diseases
34
pathology of secondary biliary cirrhosis
extra hepatic biliary obstruction --> increases pressure in intrahepatic ducts --> injury/fibrosis and bile stasis
35
demographic secondary biliary cirrhosis
patients with known obstructive lesions (gallstones, biliary strictures, pancreatic CA)
36
what forms from the fetal cardinal veins
systemic venous circulation (SVC)
37
do osteoblasts express alk phos
yep
38
cause of Dublin Johnson syndrome
defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucuronides due to mutation in canalicular membrane transport protein
39
symptoms of rabies
severe, painful throat spasms when eating or drinking mydriasis and neck rigidity acting strangely with hallucinations excessive drooling
40
what is the BMI cutoff for anorexia
17.5
41
what antibodies are associated with polymyositis
anti-Jo-1 (anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase) anti-SRP anti-Mi-2 (anti-helicase)
42
how does prostacyclin affect platelet aggregation
inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion to the vascular endothelium
43
what are the steps of base excision repair
glycosylase --> endonuclease --> lyase --> polymerase --> ligase
44
what cytokine is related to giant cell arteritis
IL-6
45
what is found in the stool in a strongyloides stercoralis infection
rhabditiform larvae
46
compare symptoms of immediate and acute hemolytic transfusion reactions
immediate: anaphylaxis, IgE-mediated acute: urine becomes brown, antibody-mediated (type II HSR)
47
what genetic expression is associated with mitochondrial disorders
heteroplasmy

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

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