Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Maddy - First Aid > Random II > Flashcards

Random II Flashcards

(76 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

symptoms of fibrinous pericarditis

A
  • pleuritic chest pain that decreases when sitting up
  • pericardial friction rub (often triphasic)
  • diffuse ST elevation
  • pericardial effusion on echocardiogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

EKG findings for pericarditis

A

diffuse ST elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

causes of fibrinous pericarditis

A
  • viral
  • SLE
  • uremia
  • post-MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the two phases of diabetic retinopathy

A

early (non-proliferative)

  • scattered retinal aneurysms
  • dot and blot hemorrhages
  • cotton wool spots

late (proliferative)
- new blood vessel formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

symptoms of diabetic retinopathy

A

painless vision loss

no redness, headache, focal weakness, or sensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

budesonide MOA and indications

A

glucocorticoid –> inhibits NFkB –> reduction in cytokines and inflammation

can be used in crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pulmonary AE of osmotic diuretic therapy (mannitol)

A

pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe the path of aqueous humor flow

A

produced in ciliary epithelium –> posterior chamber –> anterior chamber –> trabecular meshwork –> either the canal of schlemm or the uvea and sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where do beta blockers work on the eye for glaucoma

A

on the ciliary epithelium (to decrease aqueous humor production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the effect of prostaglandin agonists on aqueous humor flow

A

increases drainage into the uvea and sclera (increase outflow)

increases drainage into the uvea and sclera by decreases resistance of flow through uveoscleral pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA and indications for latanoprost and bimatoprost

A

prostaglandin agonists

increases drainage into the uvea and sclera by decreases resistance of flow through uveoscleral pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what Is the effect of M3 agonists on aqueous humor flow

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor via contraction of ciliary muscle and opening of trabceular meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the effect of alpha agonists on aqueous humor flow

A

decrease aqueous humor synthesis via vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA carbamazepine

indications

A

blocks Na+ channels

trigeminal neuralgia, epilepsy, bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

symptoms trigeminal neuralgia

A

repetitive, unilateral, shooting/shock like pain in the distribution of CN V

triggered by chewing, touching certain parts of face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sx of ebstein anomaly

A

apical displacement of tricuspid valve leaflets

decreased volume of right ventricle

atrialization of right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what causes ebstein anomaly

A

maternal lithium use in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what layer is missing in a false diverticulum of the intestines

A

muscularis propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is peri-infarction pericarditis

A

a fibrinous or serofibrinous pericarditis that develops 2-4 days after a transmural MI

a reaction to the necrosis of the myocardium near the epicardial surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do homeobox genes usually code for

A

transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the treatment for enterococcus endocarditis

A

an aminoglycoside + cell wall synthesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

adverse effects of aminoglycosides

A

hearing loss and tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is wolf parkinson white

A

caused by an accessory conduction pathway causing preexcitation of the ventricles

(AV conduction that bypasses the AV node)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
symptoms of benzo withdrawal
rebound anxiety tremor insomnia sympathetic hyperactivity seizures
26
where does the AV nodal artery arise from
the dominant coronary artery right dominant: RCA left dominant: LCX codominant: both
27
symptoms of Meniere disease
- low frequency tinnitus - vertigo - sensorineural hearing loss
28
what causes Meniere disease
increase volume and pressure of endolymph in inner ear thought to be due to defective resorption of endolymph
29
in fructokinase deficiency (essential fructosuria), what enzyme compensates by metabolizing fructose?
hexokinase converts dietary fructose to fructose-6-phosphate
30
hemorrhage occurring in neonates after vacuum delivery is most often located where
between periosteum and galea aponeurosis | subgaleal hemorrhage
31
what is acute intermittent porphyria
autosomal dominant disease with porphobilinogen deaminase deficiency causes accumulation of porphobilinogen and ALA
32
symptoms of acute intermittent porphyria
5 Ps - painful abdomen - port wine colored pee - polyneuropathy - psychological disturbances - precipitated by drugs (cytochrome P450 inducers)
33
what is the management for acute intermittent porphyria
infusion of hemin --> downregulates hepatic aminolevulinate (ALA) synthase
34
effects of secretin
increase bicarbonate secretion decrease gastric acid secretion increase bile secretion
35
effects of cholecystokinin
increase pancreatic secretion increase gallbladder contraction decrease gastric emptying increase sphincter of Oddi relaxation
36
effects of somatostatin
decrease gastric acid and pepsinogen decrease pancreatic and small intestine secretions decrease gallbladder contraction decrease insulin and glucagon
37
exocrine and endocrine effects of GIP (glucose dependent insulinotropic peptide)
exocrine: decrease gastric H+ secretion endocrine: increase insulin release
38
what antimicrobial also stimulates motilin
erythromycin
39
what is phenotypic mixing
occurs with simultaneous infection of a cell with 2 viruses progeny virions will contain unchanged parental genome from one strain and nucleocapsid proteins from the other strain subsequent progeny will revert to having original parent type
40
ring enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV patient: - what are the ddx
toxoplasmosis primary central nervous system lymphoma
41
sx west nile virus
fever, headache rash meningitis, encephalitis, flaccid paralysis parkinsonian sx (rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor)
42
what is the mecA gene, and what does it mean for bacteria that have it
encodes for penicillin-binding protein 2a allows for resistance to beta lactam antibiotics (penicillins and cephalosporins)
43
compare immune response to superficial and disseminated candidiasis
superficial: T cells disseminated: neutrophils
44
what is stasis dermatitis
erythema, induration, fibrosis, and deposition of hemosiderin in lower extremities of patients with venous insufficiency (prolonged standing, pregnancy, obesity)
45
active RAS is bound to _____
GTP
46
what is parinaud syndrome
pineal gland mass
47
what are the sx of parinaud syndrome
limited upward gaze with a downward gaze preference bilateral eyelid retraction light-near dissociation (pupils that react to accommodation but not to light)
48
MOA vecuronium and rocuronium
competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
49
MOA succinylcholine
competitive agonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors --> persistent depolarization --> desensitization of motor end plate
50
sx of neuroblastoma
nonrhythmic conjugate eye movements and involuntary jerking movements of trunk and limbs (opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome) firm abdominal mass (most often involving adrenal gland) periorbital ecchymoses
51
lab findings in neuroblastoma
elevated catecholamine metabolites (due to neural crest origin)
52
what expression indicates poor prognosis in neuroblastoma
N-myc amplification
53
what is the effect of B blockers on ECG
they prolong the PR
54
what is intermittent claudication
muscle pain with exercise that remits with rest smoking is important risk factor usually due to atherosclerosis of large arteries
55
causes of concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
pressure overload - chronic HTN - aortic stenosis
56
causes of eccentric left ventricular hypertrophy
volume overload - aortic or mitral regurgitation - ischemic heart disease - dilated cardiomyopathy
57
sx of Gaucher disease
- anemia - abd distension due to hepatosplenomegaly - pancytopenia - bone pain due to bone marrow invasion/inflammation
58
what is eisenmenger syndrome
uncorrected left to right shunt --> increases pulmonary blood flow --> pathologic remodeling of vasculature --> pulmonary arterial HTN
59
what is congenital torticollis
child born with sternocleidomastoid injury and fibrosis usually due to birth trauma or malposition of head in utero head tilted toward affected side chin pointed away
60
why does propofol have a rapid onset and rapid recovery
propofol is rapidly cleared from plasma and preferentially distributed to organs receiving high blood flow (brain) over time, propofol is redistributed to organs receiving less blood flow (fat, muscle tissue) causing rapid termination of drug action (since the brain is the site of action)
61
cromolyn and nedocromil MOA
inhibits mast cell degranulation and prevents release of preformed chemical mediators
62
what is the mutation in maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
glucokinase mutation
63
why can supplemental oxygen in the setting of COPD cause decreased respiratory rate
due to reduction in peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation
64
what are the primary sites for sensing PaO2 and thus are stimulated by hypoxemia
peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies
65
a lesion affecting both the spinothalamic tract and the dorsal column medial lemniscus tract is most likely located:
in the ventral posterior thalamus both tracts cross through the VPL
66
how can crohn's disease cause easy bleeding
crohn's disease affects terminal ileum --> loss of bile acid resorption --> fat malaborption --> deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins (including vitamin K) --> loss of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors
67
affect of glucocorticoids on adipose tissue
lipolysis altered fat distribution
68
affect of glucocorticoids on adrenal cortex
atrophy
69
affect of glucocorticoids on bone
osteoporosis
70
affect of glucocorticoids on liver
increased gluconeogensis and glycogenesis
71
affect of glucocorticoids on skeletal muscle
atrophy
72
affect of glucocorticoids on skin
thinning stria impaired wound healing
73
where does heme synthesis occur in the cell
mitochondria
74
spontaneous cases of Clostridium septicum indicates what underlying pathology
colonic malignancy | it creates a portal of entry for the bacteria
75
46,XY newborn with hypospadias and small phallus, testes developed but in the inguinal area, testosterone normal what is the enzyme deficiency
5a-reductase | it converts T to DHT
76
initial stages of diabetic nephropathy have what changes in GFR
increased GFR

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions