Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Maddy - First Aid > UW2b > Flashcards

UW2b Flashcards

(74 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what are the nodules in cirrhosis made of

A

proliferating hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are cystic hygromas and in what conditions do they arise

A

cystic lymphatic malformations that most commonly involve the loose areolar tissue of the head and neck

presents as a painless, compressible mass that transilluminates

Turner syndrome, trisomies 13, 18, 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where does the rash in Rocky Mountain spotted fever start and where does it spread

A

starts on ankles and wrists and spreads to trunk, palms, and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what components of a rash indicate allergic contact dermatitis from poison ivy

A

spotty papules

linear or streaky pattern where skin brushed against plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the cause of adult onset lactose intolerance

A

steady decline in expression of lactase gene

lactase expression is high in infancy and childhood when mother’s milk is primary source of nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does tar dive dyskinesia present like

A

involuntary, rhythmic movements of the face, lips, and tongue

choreoathetoid movements of the trunk and extremities are possible but less common than the orofacial dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why do long-term antipsychotics cause tardive dyskinesia

A

long term blockade of dopamine receptors –> receptor up regulation –> compensatory supersensitivity of the postsynaptic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the central venous pressure in pts with a PE and why

what is the systemic vascular resistance and why

A

elevated central venous pressure due to impaired forward blood flow

increased SVR in an attempt to maintain adequate tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do the pulmonary function tests change in COPD:

  • tidal volume
  • expiratory reserve volume
  • forced residual capacity
  • inspiratory reserve volume
  • inspiratory capacity
  • residual volume
  • vital capacity
  • TLC
A
  • tidal volume: no change
  • expiratory reserve volume: decreased
  • functional residual capacity: increased
  • inspiratory reserve volume: decreased
  • inspiratory capacity: decreased
  • residual volume: increased
  • forced vital capacity: decreased
  • TLC: increased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is contact inhibition when plating cells on a petri dish

A

normal cells will reproduce until the medium is covered with a single layer of cells that just touch one another, then mitosis halts (mediated by cadherins and catenins)

if the cells keep dividing and start to pile up into mounds, then they are malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the main advantages of the oral polio vaccine compared to the inactivated one

A

promotion of mucosal IgA immunity in the oropharynx and intestines

also can induce contact immunity in others due to shedding of the vaccine virus in the stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what phenomenon can cause a heterozygous female for an x-linked recessive disease to show manifestations of the disease

A

skewed X inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what enzyme do DNA viruses use to replicate their viral genome in host nucleus

what enzyme do DNA viruses use to transcribe their viral DNA into mRNA

A

host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the histological hallmark of rabies infection

A

eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions (negri bodies)

caused by accumulation of viral ribonucleic protein within neuronal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why does filtration fraction increase with renal afferent arterial constriction

A

decreased arterial pressure –> decreased renal plasma flow –> decreases GFR –> GFR autoregulation improves GFR –> renal plasma flow decreases to a greater extend than GFR due to GFR auto regulation –> filtration fraction increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the pathogenesis of skin lesions in psoriasis

A

skin barrier disruption leads to activation of antigen-presenting dendritic cells –> produce IFN-a and other cytokines recruits T helper cells –> produce additional inflammatory cytokines –> stimulate local keratinocytes to proliferate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

orlistat MOA

A

intestinal lipase inhibitor that reduces absorption of dietary fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

orlistate AE

A

GI effects (diarrhea, fecal incontinence, oily spotting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

membranous nephropathy can be idiopathic but can also occur in association with _____

A

solid tumors (lung carcinoma)

viral hepatitis

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is xerosis

A

asteatotic dermatitis (“winter itch”)

most common in older patients during winter months when indoor heaters lower the relative humidity of the ambient air

occurs in patients with defects in stratum corner permeability barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the management for xerosis

A

focuses on retaining the normal skin barrier and replenishing it from water loss

  • lukewarm baths
  • moisturize immediately after bathing to prevent excessive skin water loss
  • emollient moisturizers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the non polar (hydrophobic) amino acids

A
  • alanine
  • valine
  • leucine
  • isoleucine
  • phenylalanine
  • tryptophan
  • methionine
  • proline
  • glycine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mucormycosis can spread to what dural sinus

A

cavernous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does orchitis from mumps cause infertility

A

the significant swelling in orchitis can cause seminiferous tubule atrophy, which causes infertility, and leydig cell atrophy which causes decreased testosterone production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what populations are at an increased risk for entamoeba histolytica
men who have sex with men
26
probenecid function why is it often paired with penicillin
inhibits organic anion transporters in the kidney (inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT - treats chronic gout) increases serum penicillin concentrations by preventing secretion of penicillin by organic anion transporters
27
teratogenic effects of tetracyclines
- can accumulate in fetal long bones causing retarded skeletal development - localize in dentin and enamel causing teeth discoloration
28
symptoms of NF-1
neurofibromas (loose, disorganized proliferations of Schwann cells, fibroblasts, and neurites) cafe au lait macules axillary freckling (Crowe sign) pigmented iris hamartomas (lisch nodules)
29
what is the presentation for primary ovarian insufficiency
amenorrhea in women <40 with elevated FSH and low estrogen levels
30
cause of primary ovarian insufficiency
inadequate supply of ovarian follicles or premature depletion of these follicles (apoptosis)
31
what can cause prayer willi syndrome
1) paternal microdeletion 2) uniparental disomy (error during meiotic division resulting in offspring with 2 copies of a chromosome from one parent and none from the other parent)
32
everolimus/sirolimus/zotarolimus MOA indications
inhibit mTOR which blocks cell cycle between G1 and S phase to reduce smooth muscle proliferation used to coat intracoronary stent surfaces to prevent neointimal hyperplasia and stent restenosis
33
where does influenza virus replicate
nucleus (unique among the RNA viruses)
34
is adenovirus single or double stranded
double stranded
35
where do almost all RNA viruses replicate
in the cytoplasm
36
is influenza virus single or double stranded
single stranded
37
how does insulin lower glucose levels
increase translocation of GLUT4 to the cellular membrane
38
list the steps of collagen synthesis
1) synthesis (translation of collagen alpha chains) 2) hydroxylation (hydroxylation of proline and lysin residues - requires vitamin C) 3) glycosylation (glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain hydroxylysine residues and formation of pro collagen - triple helix formation) 4) exocytosis (pro collagen goes into extracellular space) 5) proteolytic processing (cleavageC and N terminals --> insoluble tropocollagen) 6) cross linking (Lysyl oxidase reinforces the tropocollagen via lysin-hydroxylysin linkages)
39
what is transduction
the process by which bacterial DNA is transported from one bacterium to another by a virus (bacteriophage) occurs when a bacteriophage causes lytic infection of a host bacterial organism the bacteriophages have the ability to inject DNA into bacteria but cannot produce progeny
40
what is illness anxiety disorder
fear of having a serious illness despite few or no symptoms and consistently negative evaluations
41
what is somatic symptom disorder
excessive anxiety and preoccupation with 1 or more unexplained symptom
42
what are confabulations and what dz process are they seen in
memory fabrication without the intention to lie Korsakoff syndrome
43
young patients with shingles should be tested for ____
HIV | immunosuppression
44
how does neprilysin inhibitors (sacubitril) affect angiotensin II levels
increases them | that's why it's paired with an ARB like valsartan
45
how does ARDS affect V/Q
right to left physiologic shunting occurs as the fluid-filled, non ventilated alveoli continue to receive blood --> V/Q mismatch
46
symptoms of VHL disease
- cerebellar and retinal hemangioblastomas - pheochromocytomas - renal cell carcinoma
47
causes of right and left shifts in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
left shift: - decreased H+ (increased pH) - decreased 2,3-BPG - decreased temperature right shift: - increased H+ (decreased pH) - increased 2,3-BPG - increased temp
48
where does the copper accumulate in the eye in Wilson's disease
descent membrane in the cornea
49
compare fat necrosis and fibroadenoma
fibroadenoma: - solitary, well-demarcated, contender, firm, spherical, mobile nodules - estrogen- sensitive (size increase in pregnancy or the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, and decreases in size postpartum and after menopause) fat necrosis: - irregular, firm mass the can be accompanied by ecchymosis - size not affected by estrogen
50
dysplastic nevus syndrome is associated with what gene and locus
CDKN2A on chromosome 9p21
51
what is the antidote for benzo OD
flumazenil
52
how do the following change during exercise: - HR - LV end systolic volume - LV end diastolic volume - LV end diastolic pressure
HR: increased LV end systolic volume: decreased LV end diastolic volume: increased LV end diastolic pressure: unchanged
53
what develops from the prosencephalon
- cerebral hemispheres - lateral ventricles - thalamus - hypothalamus - retina - 3rd ventricle
54
what develops from the mesencephalon
midbrain and cerebral aqueduct
55
what develops from the rhombencephalon
- pons - cerebellum - upper 4th ventricle - medulla - lower 4th ventricle
56
describe development of cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia
prosencephalon --> telencephalon --> cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia
57
describe development of thalamus and 3rd ventricle
prosencephalon --> diencephalon --> thalamus and third ventricle
58
describe development of pons, cerebellum, upper 4th ventricle
rhombencephalon --> metencephalon --> pons, cerebellum, upper 4th ventricle
59
describe development of medulla and lower 4th ventricle
rhombencephalon --> myelencephalon --> medulla and lower 4th ventricle
60
what are leucine zippers made of
transcription factors
61
where does synthesis of pyrimidines and purines first occur
in the cytoplasm
62
what three things are used at the start of pyrimidine synthesis
CO2, glutamine, 2 ATP
63
causes of dilated cardiomyopathy
- genetic (TTN gene) - drugs (alcohol, cocaine, doxorubicin) - infection (coxsackie B, chaga) - ischemia - hemochromatosis - sarcoid - thyrotoxicosis
64
compare MOA of amphotericin B and caspofungin
amphotericin B: binds ergosterol and creates pores in fungal cell MEMBRANE caspofungin: inhibit cell WALL synthesis
65
griseofulvin MOA
binds to microtubules and disrupts mitotic spindle formation, inhibiting fungal mitosis
66
compare anti-glomerular basement membrane disease and goodpasture
good pasture is anti-glomerular basement membrane disease with antibodies also affecting the lung and causing pulmonary hemorrhage (both have linear IgG deposits on IF)
67
compare complete and partial moles in terms of p57 staining
complete: p57 negative partial: p57 positive
68
MOA retinoids (tretinoin, isotretinoin)
vitamin A analogues that normalize epidermal differentiation by increasing cell turnover and reducing hyperkeratinization in stratum corneum
69
does phenytoin induce or inhibit CYP450
induce
70
decerebrate posturing indicates a hemorrhage where
pons
71
most common presenting symptoms of tetanus
masseter muscle spasm (trismus/lockjaw) which can be elicited when the posterior pharynx is touched with a tongue depressor
72
what serological marker indicates current hepatitis B infection
HBsAg
73
Anti-HBs indicates
cleared infection or vaccination (long term immunity)
74
Anti-HAV IgM indicates
active HAV infection

Maddy - First Aid (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions