VIRAL SEROLOGICAL TESTS Flashcards
(106 cards)
1
Q
The only DNA hepatitis virus ; 1st discovered by Dr. Blumberg
A
HBV
2
Q
Hepatitis virus:
Fecal-oral
Blood transmission
A
HAV & HEV
3
Q
Hepatitis virus:
Parenteral
Sexual
Perinatal
A
HBV, HCV, HVD
4
Q
Picornaviridae
A
HAV
5
Q
Hepadnaviridae
A
HBV
6
Q
Flaviviridae
A
HCV
7
Q
Delta virus
A
HDV
8
Q
Hepeviridae
A
HEV
9
Q
Hepatitis with high mortality among pregnant women
A
HEV
10
Q
Water-borne HEV Genotype
A
HEV 1 & 2
11
Q
Zoonotic HEV Genotype
A
HEV 3 & 4
12
Q
HBV : best indicator of early acute infection ; indicates acute of chronic HBV infection
A
HBsAg
13
Q
Infectious form of hepatitis B virus
A
Dane particle
14
Q
Not detected in serum because it is found only in hepatocytes
A
HBcAg
15
Q
High levels of virus and high degree of of infectivity
A
HBeAg
16
Q
Useful in detecting infection during the window period, indicator of current infection
A
Anti-HBc IgM
17
Q
Life long marker of hepatitis
A
Anti-HBc IgG
18
Q
First serologic evidence of convalescent phase
A
Anti-HBe
19
Q
Bestows immunity to further HBV infection ; viral clearance of HBV
A
Anti-HBs
20
Q
STATUS:
HBsAg : +
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : -
A
Early infection
21
Q
STAUTUS:
HBsAg : +
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : +
A
Chronic infection
22
Q
STAUTUS:
HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : +
A
Window period
23
Q
STATUS:
HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : +
Anti-HBc : +
A
Recovery
24
Q
STAUTUS:
HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : +
Anti-HBc : -
A
Vaccination
25
First generation HBV test
Ouchterlony
26
Generation test:
Counter electrophoresis
Rheophoresis
Complement fixation
Secondary generation test
27
Generation test:
Reversed passive latex agglutination
ELISA
Reversed passive hemagglutination
Radioimmunoassay
Third generation tests
28
Aka post transfusion hepatitis
Hepatitis C
29
Co-infection and super infection with HBV
HDV
30
Clinical variant of HDV
Anti-HBc IgM: +
Co-infection
31
Clinical variant of HDV
Anti-HBc IgM : -
Superinfection
32
Differentiates co-infection from superinfection
Anti-HBc IgM
33
Large, complex DNA, enveloped ; latent infection with lifelong persistence in the host
Herpes infection
34
HSV 1 & 2, VZV, EBV, CMV, Human herpes virus (HHV-6, -7, -8)
These belong to what family
Herpesviridae
35
Result form intimate contact with salivary secretions from an infected individual
Epstein-Barr virus
36
Initial infection of EBV
OROPHARYNX
37
Virus infected B cells
EBV-specific antibodies
Heterophile antibodies
Autoantibodies
38
Aka kissing disease or glandular fever
Infectious mononucleosis
39
Characterized by lymphocytosis ; atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells) are observed
Infectious mononucleosis
40
Reacts with SHEEP cells, OX cells, and Horse cells but not with GUINEA PIG cells
Heterophile Antibodies in IM
41
Reacts with SHEEP cells, Horse cells, guinea pig cells, but not with BEEF CELLS (OX)
Heterophil antibodies of Forssman
42
Reacts with sheep, ox, horse and guinea pig cells
Heterophil antibodies in serum sickness
43
Screening/general test for Heterophil antibodies ; hemagglutination
Paul Bunnel test
44
Paul bunnel test reagent : 2% suspension of _______
Sheep RBCs
45
Davidson Differential test principle
Absorption-hemagglutination
46
Davidson differential test antigen sources
Guinea pig cells and Beef cells
47
Davidson differential test indicator cells
Sheep RBCs
48
Agglutination pattern after absorption with beef cells : WITH HIGH TITER
FORSMANN
49
Agglutination pattern after absorption with Guinea pig kidney cells: WITH HIGH TITER
IM
50
more sensitive indicator of antibodies found on im
Horse RBC
51
Interpretation
Peripheral blood : +
Anti-VCA IgM : +
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : -
Acute infection
52
Interpretation
Peripheral blood : +/-
Anti-VCA IgM : +/-
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : +
Recent infection
53
Interpretation
Peripheral blood : -
Anti-VCA IgM :-
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : +
Past infection
54
Confirmatory test for EBV infection
Immunofluorescent assays (IFA)
55
Blood component for cytomegalovirus
Leuko-reduced
56
Causative agent of chicken pox
Varicella-Zoster virus
57
RNA virus ; Genus Rubivirus ; family Togaviridae ; Causative agent of German measles or third disease
Rubella
58
Genus Morbilivirus ; family Paramyxoviridae ; highly contagious and spreads by aerosol ; pathognomonic structure: “KOPLIK SPOT” ; agent of measles
Rubeola
59
Requires an RNA-dependent polymerase to synthesize DNA from the RNA genome ; family Retroviridae sub family Lentiviridae ; has marked preference for T-helper cells (CD4(+))
HIV
60
Serves as a receptor site for HIV
T-helper cells (CD4 +)
61
HTLV-III (Human Lymphocytic Virus III)
LAV (Lymphadenopathy Associated Virus)
ARV (AIDS-associated Retrovirus)
These are other names of?
HIV
62
Pandemic HIV type
HIV-1
63
Less pathogenic HIV type ; has a lower rate of transmission ; discovered in 1986 in West Africa
HIV-2
64
Gag gene codes for
p55
65
Env gene codes for
gp160, go120, gp41
66
Glycoprotein that binds to CD4 on T cells
Gp120
67
Transmembrane glycoprotein
Gp41
68
Codes for enzymes necessary for HIV replication
Pol
69
p51
Reverse transcriptase
70
P66
RNAse
71
P31
Integrase
72
P10
Protease
73
Regulatory gene ; transactivator
Tat
74
Regulatory gene ; regulator of expression of vision proteins
Rev
75
Regulator gene ; negative effector
Nef
76
Virus (____) attaches to susceptible host cell (___)
Gp120 ; CD4
77
HIV replication co-receptor
CXCR4 , CCR5
78
Initial viral replication can be detected in the presence of increased levels of ____ antigen
p24 antigen
79
First antibodies to be detected are directed against the gp___ transmembrane glycoprotein, followed by the production of antibodies to the gag proteins such as p__
Gp41 ; p24
80
The hallmark feature of HIV infection
Decreased CD4 cell population
81
HIV stage: 2-4 weeks of infection ; body’s natural response to infection ; large amount of virus in the blood are very contagious
Stage 1: Acute HIV infection
82
HIV stage: period can last a decade of longer ; people can still transmit HIV to others ; end of this phase, a person’s viral load starts to up and the CD4 cell count begins to go down
Stage 2: clinical latency
83
HIV stage: most severe phase of HIV infection ; badly damaged immune system opportunistic illnesses ; end stage
Stage 3 : AIDS
84
CD4 count of patient with HIV
<200/mm^3
85
Normal CD4 count
>1000 / mm^3
86
For HIV initial screening test, it detects antibodies to ____________(combination)
HIV-1, HIV-2, and HIV-1 p24 antigen
87
Samples that are reactive in the n initial test and nonreactive in the second test should then undergo _______ testing
Nucleic acid testing
88
Screening tests: ELISA
Used purified viral lysate as antigen
First-generation
89
Screening tests: ELISA
Used recombinant viral proteins
Second generation
90
Screening tests: ELISA
Relied on the double antigen sandwich assay
Third generation
91
Screening tests: ELISA
Detected antibody and p24 antigen
Fourth generation
92
Screening tests: ELISA
Multiplexed screening test that detects and differentiates all tree HIIV analyte markers: HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies,, and the HIV-1 p24 antigen
Fifth generation assay
93
Recommended by the CDC as confirmatory tests ; detect antibodies to HIV-1 and alone or to both HIV-1 and HIV-2 ; followed by the current recommended testing algorithm
Rapid tests for HIV antibodies
94
Nitrocellullose or nylon strips containing individual HIV proteins
Western blot
95
Position of low molecular weight antigen in western blot test strip
Bottom
96
Position of high molecular weight antigen on western blot test strip
Top
97
Western blot : several bonds (2/3) - indicative of??
Positive result
98
Western blot : no band (0) - indicative of??
Negative result
99
Western blot : intermediate (1/3) - indicative of??
Repeat test after 6 months
100
CDC recommends routine HIV testing for all persons_______ years old and annual test for high risk individuals
13-64 years old
101
According to criteria, a result should be reported as positive if at least two of the following bands are present: ____ ____ ____ ____
P24, gp41, and gp120/160
102
5Cs principle recommended by WHO
Informed CONSENT
CONFIDENTIALITY
COUNSELING
CORRECT TEST RESULT
CONNECTION (linkage to care and treatment)
103
Rapid diagnostic test principle
Immunochromatographic methods
104
Antigens detected in the presence of Plasmodium falciparum (malaria)
Histidine Rich Protein 2 (PfHRP-2)
Plasmodium Lactate Dehydrogenase (pLDH)
Plasmodium Aldolase
105
Polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans becomes dissolved in the serum and CSF and can be detected by the _______ agglutination test or the ____ immunoasssay
Latex-based agglutination ; enzyme immunoassay
106
Aspergillosis infection involves the detection of __________ and ______ in serum
Galactomannan and B-D-Lucan (BDG)
