WEEK #1 WEEK OF 1/14/13 PART I – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. #1 – 5.6.7} PART II – DUNN CH. #4 & 5 PART III – AUC’S #220, 225, 230, 231 & 233 PART IV – TB - FIRES #1 - 4 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #2 & 6 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #1 WEEK OF 1/14/13 PART I – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. #1 – 5.6.7} PART II – DUNN CH. #4 & 5 PART III – AUC’S #220, 225, 230, 231 & 233 PART IV – TB - FIRES #1 - 4 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #2 & 6 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #1 WEEK OF 1/14/13 PART I – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. #1 – 5.6.7} PART II – DUNN CH. #4 & 5 PART III – AUC’S #220, 225, 230, 231 & 233 PART IV – TB - FIRES #1 - 4 PART V – SAFETY BULLETINS #2 & 6 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Deck (62):
1

1. There are three broad categories of taxpayers. One type was built from the turn of the
century until the 1920’s. The most prevalent type was built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.
The third type is the newer type built since the 1960’s. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement about these taxpayers? (2.3.1, 2.3.2, 2.3.3)
(A) In the older type of taxpayers, the decorative metal cornices, found on the front of some
buildings, can be removed to provide access to the cockloft area.
(B) In taxpayers built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s, fire walls may have been installed for
subdivision of the building. The upper termination points of these walls will end at ceiling level.
(C) In taxpayers built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s, removing the cornice or sign in front in
most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area.
(D) In the newer types of taxpayers, the use of combustible construction material has been
reduced. In many of these buildings, the roofs and floors are supported by steel bar joists.

1. B

2

2. Generally, the only auxiliary fire protection that may be found in taxpayers will be
automatic sprinkler systems where they are required by code. Which of the following taxpayers
would require an automatic sprinkler system? (2.5.1)
(A) A building built under the 1938 Building Code that has an area of 7500 sq. feet between
fire walls.
(B) A building built under the 1968 Building Code that has an area of 5000 square feet between
exterior walls.
(C) A building built under the 1938 Building Code that has an area of 9000 square feet between
exterior walls.
(D) A building built under the 1968 Building Code that has an area of 8000 square feet between
exterior walls.

2. D

3

3. What is the height of the cockloft in taxpayer buildings? (3.2.1)
(A) 2 to 3 feet
(B) Four inches to more than six feet.
(C) 1 foot to tall enough for a man to stand in
(D) Four feet

3. B

4

4. Which one of the following is the most common type of roof on taxpayers? (3.3.1)
(A) Wood joist covered with tongue and groove boards or plywood
(B) Wooden bowstring truss
(C) Steel bar joists
(D) Parallel chord wood truss

4. A

5

5. Truss construction is used where large areas, free of roof support columns, are desired.
Trusses can either be wood or steel. All of the following are correct statements about truss roofs
with the exception of which choice? (3.3.3)
(A) Wooden bowstring trusses have a characteristic hump-like roof profile. The longer the
span, the higher the bow.
(B) The wooden bowstring truss can always be determined from the exterior from ground level.
Other types of truss construction are not as easily discerned from the exterior of the building.
(C) Failure of one truss element can cause a failure of the entire truss. Failure can occur in the
early stages of the fire.
(D) In older type truss roof buildings, the trusses may be spaced 10 or 20 feet apart with roof
beams installed between the trusses to support roof coverings.

5. B

6

6. There are several differences between steel and wood trusses. Which of the following
correctly describes wood and steel trusses? (3.3.3)
(A) Wood truss roofs sag and get spongy prior to failing.
(B) Steel trusses tend to stretch when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures.
(C) Steel open web joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have excellent fire resistance
ratings.
(D) Protected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures and
may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

6. B

J. Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get
"spongy." Steel trusses tend to "stretch" when losing their strength because of
elevated temperatures, but wood tends to "snap" (See Fig. 5 and 10).

A. Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have no fire
resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finish
roofing.

D. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated
temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

7

7. A parapet wall is a continuation of an exterior wall, fire wall or party wall above the roof
line. Which one of the following incorrectly describes parapet walls? (3.4.3)
(A) The weight of the parapet wall is supported by steel I beams or angle shapes which span the
openings for the display windows and entrance doors.
(B) The parapet wall is often unsupported laterally for a long distance, receiving its support
only at the ends where they tie into crosswalls.
(C) I beams which support roof joists often butt against the front parapet. An uncontrolled fire
in a remote portion of the taxpayer or in the cockloft may be heating these I beams causing their
expansion and steadily pushing the parapet outward.
(D) Parapet walls usually do not remain intact horizontally when they collapse. When parapet
walls collapse, it is usually only small sections that collapse.

7. D

8

8. An average 50 foot long steel beam, heated uniformly over its length to 970 degrees F will
extend in length approximately ____. A longer “I” beam will expand a ______ greater distance,
and as the temperature increases, the rate of expansion increases. At 1000 Degrees F, a 100 foot
long beam will have increased in length ______. (3.6.1)
(A) 4 inches, exponentially, 9 ½ inches
(B) 4 feet, proportionately, 9 ½ feet
(C) 4 inches, proportionately, 9 ½ inches
(D) 4 feet, exponentially, 9 ½ feet

8. C

9

9. When steel beams are heated from 1000 degrees F to 1500 degrees F, their yield strength
drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can be reached in 5 to 10
minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the
smaller beam sections), until these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitations. Which
of the following is a correct point about heated steel columns or beams? (3.6.4)
(A) Hot steel beams or columns cooled by hose streams will crack or fail.
(B) Cooling a steel member will cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability.
(C) If the beam has already sagged under the weight of floors or roof, firefighters should not
operate underneath until the beams are shored.
(D) When heated steel beams are cooled, the steel will not contract to its original length.

9. B

10

10. Flooring can vary in taxpayers. All of the following are correct with the exception of
which choice? (3.9)
(A) The most common floors are tongue and groove boards or plywood, supported by light
weight steel open web joists.
(B) Heavy terrazzo or concrete is sometimes placed over wood joist floor construction, an
exceptionally hazardous condition.
(C) The flooring under the raised display platform is sometimes omitted behind paneling under
display windows at street fronts.
(D) In newer type taxpayer slab construction, concrete floors are prevalent on ground level with
no basements or cellars in the building.

10. A

11

11. Metal overhead rolling doors commonly cover the entire store or building front. Which is a
correct statement about these security doors? (3.11.1, 3.11.4)
(A) The weight that is added to the front walls, especially when these doors are in the closed
position, can cause the lintel over the store front to fail and the wall and door assembly may fall
during a fire.
(B) When a store covers large area or there are a number of stores in a building all with
overhead doors, it may be difficult to determine the exact location of the entrance door or doors
to the stores. Overhead signs might give a clue.
(C) If these overhead doors start down without the counterbalance or fully tensioned springs
they will come down with tremendous force. Doors used in commercial installations range in
weight from 150 – 400 pounds. Larger commercial occupancies will have similar weighted
doors.
(D) If the spring tension is gone, motor or hoist devices will prevent the door from coming
down hard once it starts down. In addition, at more advanced fires the steel track on either side
can warp, resulting in the door rolling straight down.

11. B

12

12. The IC, Operations Section Chief, Sector or Group Supervisors at a fire must draw on their
knowledge and experience to detect the warning signs of collapse as early as possible and vacate
affected structure in sufficient time. Which of the following is not a warning sign of collapse?
(4.2.1 D, E)
(A) Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes or more,
particularly in a large open floor area.
(B) Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into
the operation at the fire.
(C) Spongy or soft feeling as you walk on the roof.
(D) An impact load.

12. D

13

13. Engine 100 arrives at an early morning fire at a commercial occupancy. While performing
size up, the officer notices a sign that identifies the building as a smoke shop. The officer of
Engine 100 orders his unit to stretch a 2 ½” line, and to knock down the fire from the sidewalk
before attempting entry. Do you agree or disagree with this decision? (4.3.3)
(A) Agree or (D) Disagree

13. A

14

14. A backdraft, smoke explosion or hot air explosion is the ignition and rapid combustion of a
mixture of flammable gas or dust and air which flashes back through openings around the fire
area. Combustibles, oxygen, and heat are necessary for a backdraft. Which one of the following
choices incorrectly describes backdrafts? (4.4)
(A) Colors of smoke associated with backdrafts are dense black smoke, dirty brown, yellow
brown and gray yellow.
(B) Warning signs of a potential backdraft include reversal of air and glass windows stained
with smoke condensation and pulsating form the pressure of the fire.
(C) The type and size of openings made by the Fire Department do not influence the severity of
the backdraft.
(D) Cellar and storage areas are particularly vulnerable, although backdrafts can occur in any
part of the structure.

14. C

15

15. What percentage of its space does a room or fire area require to contain the explosive
mixture for the entire area to possibly explode? (4.4.1 F)
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 100

15. A

16

16. Backdrafts may cause the entire area to explode when firefighters enter to search and allow
fresh air to enter with them. Which of the following point(s) are correct? (4.4.1)
(A) Open the roof or area directly over the fire.
(B) After roof venting has been accomplished, entry may be forced at the lower level and lines
advanced to extinguish the fire.
(C) Immediately discharge a hoseline into the fire area from a flanking position when the fire
area is opened up.
(D) Perform horizontal ventilation immediately before vertical ventilation, to provide an exit
for the products of combustion

16. A, B, C

17

17. When a taxpayer has an inverted roof, the roof beams create the original ceiling level.
Roof supports of 2”x4” short studs are connected to the roof beams and extended upward, where
they connect to a roof grid to which the roof boards are nailed. Choose the incorrect statement
from the following about roofs and fire travel. (5.3.3)
(A) The inverted roof may be pitched from the front to the rear, front and rear to the center, or
from the front, rear and sides to the center.
(B) How the roof is pitched is usually determined by the configuration of the building and the
position of the drainage facilities.
(C) Since most fires originate in the rear of the cellar where utilities, storage, and services are
located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.
(D) The standard (flat) roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front
to the rear.

17. C

18

18. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about ventilation? (5.4.2, 5.4.4,
5.4.6, 5.4.8)
(A) It must be understood that ventilation probably will increase the intensity of the fire.
Ventilation, therefore, must be carefully coordinated with engine hoseline operations.
(B) Horizontal ventilation may be very difficult. At times, it may be attained by the use of a
horizontal opening in conjunction with a remote vertical opening.
(C) The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to permit quick exit for eh heat,
smoke and gases. A hole 3 feet by 6 feet, where possible is recommended.
(D) If difficulty is encountered in opening the returns of scuttles or skylight openings, it may be
quicker and more practical to make examination holes for ventilation around the openings.

18. C

19

19. A Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof
operations. This could be a chief or company officer as designated by the IC. Which of the
following is not correct concerning the Roof Sector Supervisor? (5.4.9, 5.4.12, 5.5.20,
5.5.26, 5.6.4)
(A) A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations when one or more power saws
are working on the roof.
(B) Where roof cutting is critical a chief officer should be assigned as the Roof Sector
Supervisor to coordinate and direct roof operations.
(C) Members may be unable to complete roof openings and must start and complete additional
openings. The choice of locations must be made by the Roof Sector Supervisor based on their
size-up or orders from the IC.
(D) The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a white powdery residue during
saw operations. Upon this observation, members should immediately notify the Roof Sector
Supervisor and IC and evacuate the roof.
(E) The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where they see the necessity for it.
Immediate notification of the IC of the operation is mandatory.

19. A

20

20. Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as
needed. The need for, and use of, four ladder companies at a serious taxpayer fire is not unusual.
Who should initiate the request for the additional ladder companies if necessary? (5.4.13)
(A) First arriving officer
(B) First arriving ladder officer
(C) First arriving Battalion Chief
(D) First arriving Deputy Chief

20. A

5.4.13 Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation
as needed. The first arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary.
Consideration should be given to whether tower ladder apparatus is responding or
should be called. The need for, and use of, four ladder companies at a serious
taxpayer fire is not unusual

21

21. At taxpayer fires, nothing affects the outcome of an operation as much as ventilation.
Which of the following is an incorrect point about ventilation? (5.5.22, 5.5.23, 5.5.25)
(A) A cellar fires, it is often necessary to cut the first floor to provide the necessary means of
ventilation, so that the engine companies may advance their lines for extinguishment.
(B) When cutting the first floor, the cuts should be made near windows in the doorways and
aisles.
(C) At times due to intense heat, smoke, or a lack of horizontal ventilation, the roof must be
opened over the ventilation holes on the first floor.
(D) A number of older taxpayers may have roofs of bow truss construction. These may be of
wood, steel or a combination of both. If a serious fire involves roof portions then members
should not be committed to cut such roofs.

21. B

22

22. In newer taxpayers the roof supports are of lightweight open web steel joists. All of the
following are correct concerning these lightweight joists with the exception of which one?
(5.5.26)
(A) The most common decking is corrugated steel. With this type decking, the joists are
spaced from four to six feet.
(B) Steel rib straight trusses do not present the same problems for fire spread as does wood
joist construction. The danger is their being weakened by heat and fire from the contents or
occupancy.
(C) Vertical ventilation of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be
undertaken.
(D) Gypsum concrete decking is of lightweight construction, spans wide spaces and is
vulnerable to moisture. Members should not be committed to roof operations, and interior
operations shall be conducted form areas of safety due to the weight of such decking materials
(17.5 lbs. sq. ft).

22. C

23

23. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning trench cuts? (5.6.1,
5.6.2, 5.6.3, 5.6.5)
(A) The width of the trench cut should be at least 2 feet wide.
(B) Trenching may take the place of ventilation holes.
(C) It is practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a
major portion of the cockloft.
(D) In the event of a cellar fire or a serious first floor fire where successful operations are
doubtful and it is feared that that fire may eventually extend into the cockloft, a trench as a
defensive measure may be advisable.

23. D

24

1. There are three ways in which a masonry exterior building wall may collapse. The wall
may collapse at a 90 degree angle, the wall may crumble in a curtain fall collapse, or the wall
may collapse in an inward/outward fashion. Please choose the incorrect point about these types
of collapses. (p. 57 - 59)
(A) A 90 degree angle collapse is the most common type of masonry wall failure that occurs at
fires.
(B) The collapse of the brick veneer, brick cavity, or masonry-backed stone wall often occurs
in a curtain-fall manner.
(C) In an inward-outward collapse, the top of the broken wall usually falls outward and the
bottom falls inward.
(D) An inward/outward collapse may be caused by the collapse of a bowstring timber truss
roof.

1. C

25

2. A fire officer can never predict the way in which a wall will collapse, so when a safe
distance is established between the unstable wall and the firefighters in the command, the officer
must expect the worst: a 90 degree angle wall collapse with chunks of bricks and steel lintels
thrown out farther than the falling wall. Which of the following are correct statement(s)
concerning masonry wall collapse? (more than 1 correct) (p. 60)
(A) As a general rule, the collapse zone – the area adjacent to an unstable wall that firefighters
should not be allowed to enter- is a distance equal to the height of the wall.
(B) The collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall if an
explosion triggers the wall collapse.
(C) The wall collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall
if ordered by the IC.
(D) The wall collapse zone may be increased to one and one half or twice the height of the wall
when a timber truss roof triggers the wall collapse.

2. A, B, C

26

3. At fires where the officer in command suspects an explosion or other factor to cause a wall
to collapse out into the street for a distance greater than the height of the wall, which of the
following is a correct action to take? (p. 60)
(A) Only a chief should keep everyone away from the front wall of the fire building altogether.
(B) A heavy caliber stream should be positioned in a flanking position, that is, on either side of
the front wall, beyond the outer perimeter of the building’s width.
(C) Under no conditions will a master stream be operated inside a collapse zone.

3. B

27

4. A façade is a general term that indicates the front of a building and could include a parapet
wall, a marquee, a canopy, and/or a cornice. All of these are cantilever structures, but which one
has the additional hazard of contributing to fire spread? (p. 63)
(A) Parapet
(B) Marquee
(C) Canopy
(D) Cornice

4. D

28

5. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about decorative wall attachments?
(p. 60 - 63)
(A) A parapet wall built over a one or two story commercial building with large display
windows beneath it is a collapse-prone structure because the parapet walls are often supported by
steel beams.
(B) A marquee may be connected to the parapet by steel cables.
(C) A canopy is less of a collapse danger than a marquee.
(D) The area beneath a marquee, canopy, or cornice is considered to be inside the burning building.

5. C

29

6. What is the most dangerous area outside of a burning structure? (p. 67)
(A) The rear of the building
(B) The sidewalk directly in front of the building.
(C) The side of a building

6. B

30

7. Which of the following is not considered a design defect in the construction of a parapet
wall? (p. 67 - 69)
(A) It’s a freestanding wall. A front, freestanding parapet wall over a store can be considered a
cantilever beam.
(B) The steel lintel that that supports the parapet wall.
(C) Lack of steel reinforcement rods embedded in a parapet wall
(D) Coping stones and cornices of a parapet wall
(E) Unfinished brick on one side of the parapet wall

7. C

31

8. When does a parapet wall often collapse? (p.73)
(A) During the incipient/growth stage of a fire
(B) During the fully developed/free burning stage
(C) During the overhauling stage of a fire

8. C

32

9. Which of the following contains the correct actions to take when collapse is a concern?
(p. 74)
(A) A FF should report any condition that might indicate structural failure to his officer.
(B) When an officer is notified by a FF of a condition that might indicate structural failure, he
must first notify the IC and then safeguard firefighters.
(C) Only chiefs and officers are responsible for reporting signs of structural failure.

9. A

33

1. Which of the following situations would not require members to use their SCBA in
accordance with FDNY Policy? (2.1, TB Confined Space Sec. 2.1)
(A) Performing interior structural firefighting operations.
(B) Performing interior structural emergency operations when toxic substances or smoke are
present
(C) Operating at exterior positions where exposed to smoke or toxic substances.
(D) Operating in a Confined Space, after the atmosphere has been verified safe

1. D

34

2. In which two of the following choices can members operating in smoke or toxic
atmospheres remove their SCBA regulator? (2.2)
(A) The member’s cylinder becomes depleted.
(B) The Sector Supervisor that the member is operating under authorizes discontinuance of use.
(C) The member’s SCBA is malfunctioning, so as to cut off air supply.
(D) In order to share their air with another member.

2. A, C

35

3. Engine 100 is operating a 1 ¾” handline on the 2nd floor of a Row frame building when the
Nozzle FF notifies the officer that his SCBA cylinder is depleted. Due to this being a serious
fire, a Fire Floor Sector and Floor Above Sector have been established. Which action taken by
the officer of Engine 100 is correct? (2.4)
(A) The officer notifies the Fire Floor Sector Supervisor that a member under his supervision
has a depleted SCBA cylinder and is being accompanied to a safe area by the Control FF who is using an SCBA.
(B) The officer tells the Nozzle FF to move back on the line and to exit the building himself.
(C) The officer notifies the IC that a member under his supervision has a depleted SCBA
cylinder and is being accompanied to a safe area by the Control FF who is wearing an SCBA.
(D) The officer withdraws the unit from the fire floor until the Nozzle FF can service their
SCBA.

3. A

36

4. Ladder 100 is operating at the scene of a building collapse. As the 1st arriving Ladder
Company, Ladder 100 has already removed surface victims, and is searching voids. After
locating a civilian trapped in an unsupported lean-to void, in which CO readings are 36 PPM,
which two actions taken by Ladder 100 are incorrect? (2.7, 2.8)
(A) Ladder 100 utilizes the FAST PAK from their apparatus to provide air supply to the
civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
(B) Ladder 100 utilizes a spare SCBA that they obtain from Ladder 300, the FAST Unit, to
provide air supply to the civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
(C) Ladder 100 utilizes the FAST Pak assigned to Ladder 300, the FAST Unit, to provide air
supply to the civilian while extrication efforts are underway.
(D) A member of Ladder 100 provides air to the civilian from his own SCBA while extrication
efforts are underway.

4. C, D

37

5. The first full week in May each year, Deputy Chiefs shall cause all engine and squad
companies to obtain pressure readings on the hydrants nearest their quarters. Which one of the
following is incorrect concerning these procedures? (2.1, 2.2, 2.4,)
(A) Readings for each calendar day, Sunday to Saturday inclusive, will be taken at
approximately 1000 hours, 1300 hours, 1600 hours, 1900 hours, and 2200 hours.
(B) The readings taken shall be recorded on the Hydrant Pressure Chart (Form CD-65)
(C) All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants. If the Officer in
Command determines that such action will precipitate an incident, he shall notify the Police
Department and shut down the hydrant.
(D) After completion, the Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted at the Housewatch Desk
throughout the summer season. This chart will be near the Rad – chart.

5. C

2.4 All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants whenever the
officer in command determines that such action will not precipitate an incident. The
Police Department shall be notified when necessary.

38

6. Phase I constitutes “Water Pressure Alert” Procedures. Choose the correct choice about
Phase I procedures. (3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.7)
(A) Starting at 1000 hours only engines and squads shall take and record the pressure on the
hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours.
(B) Within 1 hour of a Phase One announcement, Battalion Chiefs shall leave quarters and
physically survey their districts to observe and note the number and location of illegally opened
hydrants. Battalion Chiefs may not schedule units to assist in this survey.
(C) Battalion Chiefs shall notify the Deputy Chief of their division of the pressure on hydrants
recorded by their units and recommend a Phase II be implemented if warranted.
(D) All notifications shall be via telephone.

6. C

3.3 Battalion chiefs shall notify the deputy chief of their division of the following at the
conclusion of the survey:
A. The pressure on hydrants recorded by their units.
B. If warranted, recommend a Phase II be implemented.
C. Other actions that may be required. (Refer to Section 3.5)

39

7. Phase II is implemented for a Water Pressure Emergency. Units shall patrol in their district
as per schedules established be Deputy Chiefs, and shall shut down and/or place spray caps
unless a serious confrontation may result. Which of the following incorrectly describes Phase II
procedures? (4.3, 4.4, 4.5)
(A) Whenever a hydrant is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
recorded by completing a “Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report” (Form CD-64).
The Officer on duty may require the FF who shut down and/or inspected the hydrant to enter the
required information on form CD-64.
(B) The CD-64 shall be faxed to DEP. If a hydrant is found defective, it is not necessary to
also complete a Defective Hydrant Report (CD-63).
(C) Upon completion of assigned patrol duties, the Officer on duty shall fax to the battalion:
the number or illegally opened hydrants, the number shut down, the number of spray caps placed
and any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressures that could adversely affect
firefighting operations.
(D) Every 3 hours during a Phase II emergency, the BC shall provide the administrative DC
with the information received from units in Choice (C).

7. D

4.3 Whenever a hydrant(s) is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
recorded by completing a "Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report" (form
CD-64). Officer on duty may require the firefighter who shut down and/or inspected the
hydrant to enter the required information on form CD-64.

4.3 Whenever a hydrant(s) is shut down, the location and condition of the hydrant shall be
recorded by completing a "Water Pressure Emergency/Hydrant Shutoff Report" (form
CD-64). Officer on duty may require the firefighter who shut down and/or inspected the
hydrant to enter the required information on form CD-64.

4.4 Officers on duty upon completing their assigned patrol duties, shall fax to the battalion
the following information:
A. the number of illegally opened hydrants,
B. the number shut down,
C. the number of spray caps placed, and
D. any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressures that could adversely
affect firefighting operations.
4.5 Every 2 hours during a Phase II emergency, the battalion chief shall provide the
administrative deputy chief with the information received from units in section 4.4 above

40

8. During a Phase II Water Pressure Emergency, engine companies shall be prepared to utilize
booster tank water, small diameter hose and nozzle tips to their fullest extent and must anticipate
the need for relay operations. Upon completion of operations, officers on duty shall insure that
booster tanks are filled and maintained full. The booster tank may only be filled by hydrant
pressure or another low-pressure source. (4.7)
(A) Agree or (D) Disagree

8. D

4.7 Engine Companies shall be prepared to utilize booster tank water, small diameter hose
and nozzle tips to their fullest extent and must anticipate the need for relay operations.
Upon completion of operations, officers on duty shall insure that booster tanks are filled
and maintained full.
Note: The use of high fire pump pressure to fill the Booster Tank may result in damage
to the internal baffles of the Booster Tank. As a general rule, the Booster Tank should
only be filled by hydrant pressure or another low-pressure source. If absolutely necessary,
the Booster Tank may be filled receiving high or low pressures, while the apparatus is in
pumps.

41

9. The IC shall establish rehabilitation according to the circumstances of the incident. Which
of the following is an incorrect statement about rehabilitation and care procedures?
(2.1, 2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.3)
(A) Rehabilitation can only take place with the establishment of a formal functional area of
operation.
(B) Upon arrival of the RAC Unit at an All Hands incident, the RAC FF shall contact
Command via HT for the proposed location to co-locate the RAC unit with EMS resources.
(C) At an All Hands incident members shall report to the RAC Unit for rehabilitation and care.
(D) Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before
being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Medical Branch
Director, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.

9. A

42

10. Which of the following incidents is not mentioned as an example of when the IC will
establish a Rehabilitation Group? (2.2)
(A) At long duration incidents
(B) At physically demanding incidents
(C) In extreme temperatures
(D) At All Hands or greater fires

10. D

2.2 A Rehabilitation Group shall be established by the IC at 2nd alarm or greater fires. At longduration
and/or physically demanding incidents or in extreme temperatures the IC should
establish a Rehabilitation Group.
2.2.1 When the Rehabilitation Group is established, the Medical Branch Director will
designate an EMS Officer as the Rehabilitation Group Supervisor. The
Rehabilitation Group will consist of an EMS Officer, a MERV or the MRTU, a
BLS ambulance and the Recuperation and Care (RAC) Unit.

43

11. At 2nd alarm or greater fires, or as determined by the IC, all members exposed to products
of combustion, shall have their oxyhemoglobin (SpO2), and carboxyhemoglobin (SpCO) levels
measured with a RAD-57 Pulse CO-Oximeter. In which of the following instances would a
member not be considered a patient? (3.6.1)
(A) They are complaining of illness
(B) They have symptoms of CO exposure or hypoxia
(C) They have a SpCO of 10 % or greater or a SpO2 of less than 80%
(D) They are complaining of injury

11. C

3.6.1 Members will be considered patients if:
 They are complaining of illness or injury.
 Have symptoms of CO exposure or hypoxia.
 Have a SpCO of 15% or greater or a SpO2 of less than 90%.

44

12. Large padlocks with hardened shackles have been issued to Battalions to secure premises.
Which of the following are conditions for the use of these locks? (2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6)
(A) Commercial or residential occupancy
(B) Very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred
(C) Egress gained through forced entry that was accomplished with no damage.
(D) There is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises
(E) There is nothing abnormal or unusual about the premises or its contents
(F) The original padlock hasp and/or staples are in place, or there is a folding gate, or similar
devices that can be easily secured with a padlock.

12-B, D, E, F,

2.2 Commercial occupancy.
2.3 Very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred.
2.4 Egress gained through forced entry that was accomplished with minimal damage.
(Padlocks removed, through the lock means, etc.)
2.5 The original padlock hasp and/or staples are in place, or there is a folding gate, or similar
devices that can be easily secured with a padlock.
2.6 There is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises.

45

13. When a BC decides to secure a premise with a Department issued padlock, they shall take
several steps. Which of the following incorrectly describes the duties of a BC? (3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
(A) The Battalion Chief shall issue a padlock and key to a company at the scene and direct the
company to secure the premises.
(B) Battalions shall carry locks and both keys in Battalion car. Keys and locks shall be
properly tagged.
(C) When necessary, new locks and tags shall be requisitioned from Repairs & Transportation
Unit

13. B

46

14. After investigating a Class 3 alarm at an unoccupied warehouse at 0300 hours, BC Smith
gives a Department padlock to the officer of Ladder 100 and directs the officer to secure the
premises by locking a roll down gate. Which of the following is an incorrect action for the
officer of Ladder 100 to take upon return to quarters? (4.2.1, 4.2.2)
(A) The dispatcher was notified of the securing of the premises, for entry on his Secured
Premises list.
(B) The officer made appropriate journal entries.
(C) The key was placed in a secure place in the housewatch in case the unit was relocated or
operating at an extended operation when the owner calls the dispatcher to have the lock removed.

14. C

47

15. The dispatcher shall maintain a list of premises secured by companies with a padlock.
When the owner or occupant calls a Borough Communications Office the dispatcher will notify
the company that placed the lock to respond to the premises to remove the lock. Which action
taken by the company that responds is incorrect? (4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
(A) The company responds as soon as practicable upon receipt of instructions from the
dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises.
(B) The officer shall secure positive ID of the person desiring entry, and have the appropriate
receipt signed and have the padlock removed.
(C) If there is any reasonable doubt as to the identity of the person, the Fire Marshals and
Administrative BC is to be summoned.
(D) The company returns the padlock with the key to the appropriate Battalion.

15. C

48

16. With the new Modified Response program, operations are sometimes completed by a single
unit. Which of the following are considered to be within the capability of a single unit? (1.2)
1. Outside Rubbish Fire
2. Brush Fires
3. Food on the stove
4. Compactor Fire
5. Oil Burner
6. Gas leak
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2,4,5,6
(C) 1,2,3,5
(D) 3,4,5,6

16. C

49

17. Implementation of single unit operations includes transmitting a Signal 10-19 to indicate
that one company is required at the scene of an incident and no further assistance is required.
Which of the following incorrectly describes this implementation? (2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.6)
(A) When a Chief Officer responds to a box and arrives before the company officer has clearly
defined the situation, it shall be his decision to institute a single unit operation and designate the
unit to perform.
(B) When a Chief Officer has not yet responded to a box, it will be the decision of the Officer
in Command to implement a one unit operation. The Officer in Command is a Captain or
senior Lieutenant on scene.
(C) When a single engine company responds and determines that the situation does not require
additional help, the engine company, now adequately equipped with the necessary tools, will
handle the job alone.
(D) The officer in command of the unit operating at a single unit operation shall obtain all the
information required and is responsible for forwarding the required incident report (fire or
emergency)

17. B

50

18. Engine 100 responds to a rubbish fire behind a hospital. The officer of Engine 100 makes
the following statements about this operation. In which statement should the officer be
corrected? (Ref. #1)
(A) Fires in dumpsters should be flooded and the dumpster not entered.
(B) Hospitals are required to have procedures for disposing of waste. The waste is usually
packaged in different colored bags.
(C) Red bags are for potentially infectious material, this waste must be incinerated and may
contain needles or other sharp objects.
(D) White bags contain potentially infectious material which has been auto cleaned (sterilized
by superheated steam under pressure). These bags may be opened by members wearing gloves to
ensure final extinguishment.

18. D

51

1. Fires in mailboxes can be handled efficiently by the use of carbon dioxide extinguishers.
Which of the following is the correct procedure to use? (Fires 1)
(A) For all types of mailboxes, use 2 short blasts and wait 3 minutes.
(B) Additional extinguishing agent should not be injected after the initial short blasts to avoid
destroying the mail.
(C) The extinguishing medium should be injected into the mail slot and the slot cover kept
opened to provide ventilation.
(D) Use 3 short blasts and wait 2 minutes when extinguishing fire in a Parcel Post, Medium
Letter, or Small Letter mailbox.

1. D

52

2. Choose the incorrect description of categories of dogs that may be encountered by
Firefighters. (Fires 2, Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
(A) Security dogs are classified as Attack Dogs, Watch Dogs, and Command Dogs.
(B) House Dogs are generally untrained and will not be intimidated by loud commands or
threatening gestures.
(C) Household Pets bark but do not present a problem.
(D) Attack Dogs and Command Dogs will attack, and Watch dogs will sound a warning by
barking but will not attack.

2. B

53

3. Ladder 100 arrives at a fire in an H type Multiple Dwelling at 1300 hours on a Tuesday.
Smoke is seeping from a locked door on the 3rd floor. While forcible entry is being performed,
the officer notices a sign posted that indicate a security dog is present. Which of the following is
an incorrect action taken by members? (4.2, 4.6, 4.8, 4.9)
(A) Ladder 100 stopped forcing entry and called the listed number relative to the security dog.
(B) Ladder 100 opened the door slowly and when they encountered the dog, they kept it at a
distance by using an extinguisher stream into the dog’s face.
(C) A chair was pushed towards the dog and the dog was allowed to bite it. When the dog bit
the chair, resistance was offered to the bite.
(D) A charged hose line was used as a back up.

3. A

4.2 If smoke or fire conditions are not evident and a dog is present, call the listed number
relative to security dogs (24-hour service is maintained to take charge of these dogs).

4.6 Once the door of the premise is unlocked, it should be opened slowly. If the animal
appears dangerous, it is a good practice to keep it at a distance by using a pressurized
water extinguisher or a CO2 extinguisher if available. Direct the extinguisher stream into
the dog's face; then, use short bursts of the extinguisher to back the dog into another
room or out of the area entirely

4.8 If the dog is still aggressive, push a chair or tool towards the animal and allow the dog to
bite it. Offer resistance to the bite. Often the dog will hang on, giving you a chance to
call for assistance or to move to safety

4.9 A charged hose line should be used as a back up when methods in sections 4.6, 4.7,
and 4.8 are used. If necessary, use the hose stream on the dog

54

4. While overhauling a mattress fire in a NYC Housing Authority Building, Ladder 200 took
several actions when they encountered a foam rubber mattress that was involved in fire. Which
one was not correct? (Fires 3, Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4)
(A) The foam rubber mattress was rolled up and tied tightly with rope before it was removed to
the hallway.
(B) An additional water extinguisher was used to effect complete extinguishment after the
initial extinguishment was performed by a water extinguisher.
(C) The charred material was removed to a tub filled with water due to evidence of fire burning
below the surface.
(D) After realizing that the mattress was actually cotton filled instead of foam rubber, Ladder
200 ensured that the mattress was wet down thoroughly with a hose line and was tied tightly
before moving.

4. B

55

5. Choose the correct point about Lexan. (Fires 4, Sec. 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 2.2, 2.3)
(A) It has an impact resistance 250 times greater than safety glass and will not shatter, even on
the impact of a bullet.
(B) It’s weight is one third the weight of glass, and it has one half the thermal conductivity of
glass.
(C) Lexan is approved for installation in NYC schools for windows up to the 2nd floor.
(D) When installed on the windows of a Nynex building, Lexan is found only on the first floor
windows.

5. A

1.4 Its weight is half the weight of glass.

1.5 It is self extinguishing and has one third the thermal conductivity of glass.

2.2 It is approved for installation in New York City schools for windows up to
seventy-five feet in height.

2.3 For security purposes, LEXAN is installed in the first floor windows of many
buildings owned or operated by Nynex, formerly the N. Y. Telephone Company. At
times it is installed on cellar windows and second floor windows.

56

6. Which of the following tools may be used to ventilate LEXAN windows? (More than 1
correct) (Section 3)
(A) Portable Power Saw equipped with an aluminum oxide blade.
(B) The Sawzall with the coarse wood tooth blade.
(C) Superior Air Hammer (Air Chisel)
(D) Oxyacetylene torch
(E) Pike Axe
(F) Chain Saw
(G) Portable electric hand saw with a carbon tipped blade
(H) A portable ladder used at ground level or lower

6. B, G, H

3.2 LEXAN can be cut quickly and easily by using the Portable Power Saw equipped
with the carbide tipped blade.
3.3 The Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blade, is also effective on LEXAN but it is
slower than the Portable Power Saw.
3.4 The Superior Air Hammer (air chisel) is ineffective.
3.5 The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective.
3.6 The pike axe is ineffective

3.7 The chain saw is unsafe to use since it tends to shatter the LEXAN and throws chips
like shrapnel.
3.8 The portable electric hand saw can be used but the wood cutting blade tends to gum
up quickly. A carbide tipped blade would be more effective

57

1. Apparatus accidents can occur while the apparatus is being operated in reverse gear.
Which of the following is an incorrect action taken when an apparatus is being operated in
reverse? (3.1, 3.3, 3.4)
(A) The officer ensures that all members of the company are fully utilized when the apparatus
is backing up.
(B) Take advantage of traffic signals when available. Use all lights other than warning lights
when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear.
(C) The officer shall take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near
the cab. The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered.
(D) Members of the unit should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on
each side, and shall be directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse gear.

1. B

58

2. When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be
brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection. When may the apparatus be backed
into the intersection? (3.4)
(A) When the chauffeur has verified that all traffic has stopped.
(B) When the members acting as guides give approval.
(C) When the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so.
(D) When the traffic light for oncoming traffic is red.

2. C

59

3. Lt. Jones is conducting a drill with the members of Ladder 300, a tiller apparatus, on the
proper way to operate in reverse gear. In which statement should Lt. Jones be corrected?
(5.1, 5.2, 6.1)
(A) The tiller person should, if possible, center the vehicle in the allowable entrance area.
(B) If it is not possible to center the vehicle, then when the chauffeur’s side of the apparatus is
blind to quarter’s entrance doors, the tiller person should bring the apparatus closer to the
officer’s side.
(C) When the chauffeur can see the quarter’s entrance doors, the tiller person should bring the
apparatus closer to the chauffeur’s side.
(D) When backing up at operations, it is safer to use the handie talkie instead of hand signals
between the chauffeur and other members.

3. D

60

4. Ladder 100, a tiller apparatus, receives a run at 2300 hours for a reported fire in a multiple
dwelling. Which action taken by Ladder 100 is incorrect? (3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.6)
(A) Members, properly dressed for fire duty, proceed to the front of quarters to warn
pedestrians and vehicle traffic. Members are equipped with flashlights.
(B) All members, except officer, chauffeur, and tillerman board the apparatus outside of
quarters.
(C) The chauffeur determines when the apparatus is ready to proceed.
(D) While leaving quarters, the chauffeur uses all lights and warning devices necessary to alert
traffic.

4. C

61

5. While responding to a reported fire with numerous reports of people trapped, Engine 200
approaches a school bus in the opposite lane which is discharging children. It would be incorrect
for Engine 200 to stop and remain stopped until? (Ref. 1)
(A) The bus resumes motion.
(B) The bus driver signals Engine 200 to proceed.
(C) The officer determines that it is safe to proceed.
(D) A police officer signals Engine 200 to proceed.

5. C

62

1. The use of a LCS can only be ordered by the Incident Commander (IC). This includes the
first arriving engine using its “Deck Pipe” for a quick fire knock down or exposure protection. If
LCS use is ordered, all operating forces within the building must be notified and time permitted
for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions. Confirmation of their safe withdrawal should
be verified by handie-talkie or face to face communication with the IC. As an additional safety
measure, the LCS should be quickly swept through the building without stopping at any window
or other opening to serve as a warning to any members left in the area of operation. Please
choose from the list below specific operating tactics for LCS? (Engine Operations,
Chapter 11, section 11.2)
A) At well involved frame buildings, vacants, and taxpayers, tower ladder operations can be
anticipated and engine apparatus should position with this in mind.
B) Use of the "deck- pipe" should not interfere with proper tower ladder positioning for
effective use of elevated LCS.
C) An engine company supplying LCS should always be dedicated to that task and not
engaged in supplying hand-lines.
D) Relief valves may be use when supplying LCS.
E) An engine company supplying a LCS during in-line pumping must be augmented as soon
as possible.

1. Answer: A, B, E - C = Whenever possible, an engine company supplying LCS should be
dedicated to that task and not engaged in supplying hand-lines. D = Relief valves must be used
when supplying LCS.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):