WEEK #10 WEEK OF 04/01/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #10 WEEK OF 04/01/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #10 WEEK OF 04/01/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO Deck (58):
1


1. Which is not an accurate characteristic on an Old Law Tenement? (2.1.9 - 2.1.11,
4.1.6)

a. Railroad flats are apartments that extend from the front to the rear of the building.
b. If present, there are usually two railroad flats on each floor
c. Buildings with railroad flats always have a rear fire escape
d. Some OLT’s have four apartments per floor; these buildings will have a fire escape on the
front and rear.

1. C

2


2. A major difference between the OLT and NLT is the use of steel in NLTs. Select the
incorrect statement. (2.2.1 J, 2.2.2 E & F)

a. Between 1901 and 1916, steel was introduced and to carry floor joists
b. Between 1916 and 1929, unprotected steel beams were used to support some of the wood
floor joists; these steel beams were supported by vertical steel columns
c. Between 1901 and 1916, the steel beams are supported by steel girders that span the width
of the building.
d. Between 1916 and 1929, wooden floor joists run horizontally from brick wall to a steel
girder or from a steel girder to a steel girder.

2. C

 Steel "I" beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn't span the enlarged
floor areas. These steel beams generally were supported by masonry walls.

3

3. Select the inaccurate statement about the construction features of multiple dwellings:
(2.2.1 B C G, 2.2.2 A, 2.2.3 D)

a. New Law Tenements built between 1901 and 1916 have fireproof interior stairs enclosed in
partitions of fireproof construction
b. NLT built from 1901 to before 1916 can be as large as 50’ x 85’
c. NLT built from 1916 to 1929 can be as large as 150’ x 200’
d. For class “A” NFP MDs built after 4/18/1929 the size of the area to be enclosed by fire
walls is 2,500 square feet

3. D

4


4. The fire walls in the buildings were required to be a minimum height depending on when
the building was constructed. Which statement correctly describes aspects of fire walls?
(2.2.2 D, 2.2.3 C, 5.3.3 F)

a. From 1901 until 1929, fire walls were only required in the cellars between buildings
b. Between 1930 and 1940 the firewalls went to the ceiling of the top floor
c. After 1940 the fire walls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards
d. Firewalls cannot be depended upon to stop the spread of fire

4. D

5

5. What is the primary purpose of the first hoseline stretched at a multiple dwelling fire?
3.2.12 A

a. Prevent fire from extending to adjacent buildings
b. Confine the fire to the original apartment
c. Extinguish the fire on the lowest floor
d. Safeguard the stairway for use by escaping occupants.

5. D

6

6. Select the correct action during operations at a multiple dwelling fire? (3.2.8 -
3.2.10, 3.2.12 C)

a. A hose line on the roof may be used to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below
b. After two lines are stretched up a stairway, additional lines should be stretched via an
alternate means unless the building is narrow
c. At Old law tenement fires, the third line is usually stretched to the top floor of an exposure
d. A quick and acceptable method to get a third line into operation on an upper floor is to
stretch it up the aerial ladder

6. A

7


7. At multiple dwelling fires members are expected to complete specific assignments. Which
is stated incorrectly? (3.2.2, 3.2.12 B, 3.6.5, 3.3.6)

a. The first company officer inside the fire building must make known to the chief and other
members the manner in which the floors and apartments are designated
b. The first member entering the building should use a chock or other means to ensure the
door doesn’t lock behind them
c. The decision as to the location where the 2nd and 3rd lines shall be stretched rests with the
incident commander, based on his / her sizeup
d. It is the responsibility of the first officer to arrive to determine the location of the fir

7. D

1st ladder LODANCE

8

8. During BISP in an OLT the topic of burning gas meters was discussed. The Officer was
incorrect when he made which statement? (3.5.9 A-C)

a. Although gas meters may be found in the cellar or public hallways, they are usually located
in the apartments
b. If gas meters are burning they should be allowed to continue to burn until the gas supply is
shut off
c. If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and members
moved away from the leaking gas
d. Members may attempt to stop a leak or break in the gas piping

8. A

9

9. Outside streams may be necessary at multiple dwelling fires. Which are correct points
about the use of outside streams? (3.5.10 A –F)

a. Generally, outside streams should not be directed into occupied buildings
b. Only the incident commander may authorize the use of outside streams
c. Fire conditions may require use of outside streams prior to removing occupants
d. Members inside the building must be warned and removed from the building before outside
streams are directed into the building
e. The incident commander must verify the members are in a safe location prior to use of
outside streams
f. Outside streams should be used in one position only as long as necessary to extinguish
visible fir

9. A, B, C, E, F

F. The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members
operating inside the building. Except in extreme, lifesaving instances
members inside the building must be warned, and moved to safe location
before outside streams are directed into the building. This safe location
must be verified by radio or personal contact, by the Incident Commander.

10

10. Which statement about hose line placement for a cellar fire in an OLT is incorrect?
(4.2.1 A)

a. The first line should be stretched to the cellar door on the first floor
b. The first line should remain at its position to provide protection for people coming down
the stairs
c. For a medium fire condition in a cellar with an outside entrance the first line should remain
at the top of the interior stairs
d. The first line should only be advanced down the interior stairs if there is no outside cellar
entrance

10. D

4.2 OPERATIONS AT CELLAR FIRES

4.2.1 The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located
inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor. This line should
remain at this position to provide protection for people coming down the stairway
and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar via
partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other voids. This line should not be advanced
down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or
rear of the building, unless the fire is minor.

11

11. Which is an incorrect point about engine company operations at multiple dwelling fires?
(3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.3, 3.2.6, 4.1.2)

a. At OLT fires at least the first length of hose should be brought up to the fire floor
b. The only exception to stretching the first line to the seat of the fire is when people on the
fire escape are endangered by fire
c. All arriving engine companies shall locate and connect to a positive water source
d. When possible, the side suction inlet should be used when connecting to hydrant

11. B

12


12. You are the Lieutenant working in Ladder 57. You are assigned as an additional truck for a
fire on the 2nd floor of a large NFP MD. You are conducting searches on the floors above.
Which are correct actions? (3.3.2, 3.3.3)

a. You know you must make every effort to search all apartments that present a hazard to
anyone therein
b. If necessary and possible, windows should be opened 1/3 from the top and 2/3 from the
bottom
c. If any smoke and heat are present and the windows cannot be opened, at least one window
should be broken
d. Windows may be left intact even if smoke is present

12. A, D

13


13. Members inside the building and not engaged in operations should remain below the fire
and not crowd the stairs or landings (3.5.1)

a. Agree or d. Disagree

13. A

14


14. Which is an incorrect statement about collapse in old law tenements? 4.3.1

a. The collapse of floors is usually not a problem.
b. Indications of collapse include plaster ceilings falling, floors or ceilings sagging, and
unusual creaking noises.
c. If there is any indication of collapsing floors during fire operations, members must be
withdrawn to safe positions
d. Floor joists supported by masonry walls usually do not have fire cuts

14. D

15

15. Party wall balconies may be found on some OLTs. Select the incorrect point: (4.3.7)

a. Firefighters may use this type of fire escape to go from one apartment to an adjoining
apartment for ventilation and search purposes.
b. The party wall balcony cannot be used to gain access to the roof.
c. This fire escape should be used for stretching hose lines, especially for top floor fires
d. There is a danger of locked, barred or gated windows preventing occupants from the fire
building from using the escape route of the adjoining building

15. C

16


16. Trench cuts have prevented the spread of fire throughout buildings. Which are incorrect
statements? (5.3.3 I 3, 5, 10)

a. The trench must be at least 3 feet wide
b. A trench must not be cut until there is an adequate vent hole (at least 8’x 8’) opened
directly over the fire
c. The trench shall cut about 20 feet from the initial vent hole
d. If fire has extended across the pulled trench cut, it will be obvious to members on the roof.

16. B,D

17


17. Select the incorrect statement about rear tenements that are still located throughout the city.
(4.3.8 A-E)

a. Rear tenements are small in area and access is usually through the front building
b. The distance between the front building and the rear building varies but is generally
between 20 and 30 feet
c. Although they are usually 2 to 5 stories, the rear buildings are frequently not visible from
the street. This may result in a delay in discovery of fire in a rear tenement especially at
nighttime.
d. Raising ladders at rear tenements is a problem, portable ladders may have to be carried
through the hallway of the front building or hoisted by utility rope up and over the front building.

17. B

18

18. Which is not an accurate statement about steel which is used extensively in “H” type
multiple dwellings? (5.1.1 B C)

a. Steel is used as columns, beams and girders in “H” type MDs
b. When heated, steel will expand and possibly fail
c. Unless the steel is set within a wall, heated steel can cause a wall to bulge or collapse
d. A steel “I” beam, when used as a column, can transmit heat and fire to the cockloft are

18. C

19

19. Vertical steel columns are erected from the foundation to the cockloft. Select the incorrect
point: (5.1.1 F 1)

a. There is little doubt that fire will travel vertically via this type of void
b. The FDNY’s main concern is that these voids are not fire stopped.
c. Channel rails, as the vertical steel columns are called, are often located in voids behind
closets
d. Channel rails are usually remote from the pipes and other elements that run vertically in the
building

19. D

20

20. Which statement about Ladder Company positioning is incorrect at an H-type fire?
(5.2.2 B, C)

a. If necessary, Lt. Smith may position his first arriving aerial ladder across the front entrance
courtyard, allowing access for the tower ladder
b. With fire showing out the throat, courtyard and front windows, Lt. Jones directed the tower
ladder stream to be directed in front windows first.
c. If two floors are involved with fire, the aerial may be initially raised to the roof for the
rapid ascent of the Roof and OV firefighters
d. The primary means of roof access is an isolated or winged stairway within the building or
an adjoining building

20. B

21

21. You are a Lieutenant in command of a ladder company operating on the floor above a
heavy fire in an apartment in an H-type MD. Which statement is not correct? (5.3.4 A, B, C)

a. The most probable point for vertical fire extension is the vertical steel channels; these must
be opened up and examined.
b. Heat in channel rails necessitates opening up above and at the top floor ceiling.
c. Any time fire enters a vertical void, the top and bottom must be checked for extension.
d. Fire may also spread horizontally via horizontal channel rails

21. B

Smoke or fire

22

22. You are a Lieutenant in command of a ladder company operating on the 3rd floor, the floor
above the fire, in a 6-story H-type building. While opening a hot interior wall to check for
extension, your Irons firefighter tells you there is fire in the wall. Which action is correct?
(5.3.4 F)

a. Notify the incident commander and immediately check the termination point of the void in
the cellar
b. Notify the roof firefighter to immediately open up the roof
c. Notify the incident commander and immediately proceed to the top floor to check the void
for extension to the cockloft

22. C

23


23. Select two correct statements concerning the characteristics of an “H” type building.
(5.1.1 J, 5.4.4, 5.4.5)

a. A fire escape in the street side courtyard will have a goose neck ladder leading to the roof.
b. A fire escape in the throat often spans the firewall and indicates two (2) separate
apartments in the throat.
c. Fire escapes are only found in the courtyard and sides of these buildings
d. One apartment in the throat may span a firewall with no fire escape and have two (2)
interior exits.

23. B, D

24

1. You are working in Engine 78 sitting at the Housewatch desk writing the roll call during
your first tour as a Lieutenant when there is a knock on the door. One of the firefighters answers
the door and encounters a civilian speaking an unknown language apparently seeking help of
some sort. Since none of your firefighters understand the civilian you determine a language
barrier exists. Which statement is incorrect? (4.1)

a. Use the Language Identification Card to help identify the language spoken by the civilian
b. The language must be identified prior to calling the Language Line Service
c. The language interpretive service is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week
d. Show the language list to the civilian, they may be able to identify the language

1. B

25

2. Which is a correct statement about the Language Interpretive Service? (3.1, 4.2, 4.3)

a. Only Department phones or Battalion or Division cell phones may be used to access the
service
b. The service should only be used for an emergency; it is not intended for routine service to
the public
c. If no speaker phone is available, the phone handset can be used by the person requiring
interpretive services
d. Access codes are only required when calling from Battalion or Division cell phones,
Department phone numbers are pre-programmed

2. C

26

3. You are the Lieutenant of the first arriving engine for a truck fire on the Williamsburg
Bridge. Upon reaching the scene you see two trucks, both carrying hay and blocking traffic
lanes, heavily involved with fire. The flames are reaching more than 20 feet in the air. You
think this incident may possibly be terrorist related. You are concerned whether the fire is
impacting the bridge supports. You know all but which point to be correct? (1.3, 1.4)

a. The green covered Field Guide of the First Responder’s Bridge Manual is carried on every
apparatus
b. Battalion Chief vehicles have copies of the red covered Risk Management Guide for use in
conjunction with the Field Guide
c. FDOC will immediately notify DOT engineers of the info gathered from the Incident
Assessment Report
d. The incident commander for this incident must maintain radio and cell phone
communication with the Command Chief

3. B

1.4 Use of the First Responder’s Bridge Manual - Field Guide (Green Book)
• The Field Guide is carried on every apparatus with the Emergency Response
Guidebook for Hazardous Materials Incidents (Orange Book).
• If an unusual, complex or possible terrorist related incident occurs, acquire situational
awareness and the Field Guide.
• Refer to the specific bridge section of the Field Guide to identify affected structural
members.
• Transmit an incident assessment report to the Dispatcher using the “Size-up” section
of the Field Guide. The report should include:
a. What has occurred.
b. The life hazard.
c. The magnitude and location of damage to bridge components.
d. Firefighters actions.
e. If the bridge is secured.
• Dispatchers shall inform FDOC.
• FDOC will inform the Command Chief on duty, and DOT’s Operation Center of the
damage.

1.5 Use of the First Responder's Bridge Manual - Risk Management Guide (Red Book)
• Command Chiefs will respond to the scene with the Risk Management Guide
(Red Book) or have it transported to the scene via FDOC.
• Based on the description of damage to the bridge, the Command Chief will determine
whether to implement rescue, evacuation or defensive tactics.
• The primary incident objective is the Life Safety of the public and First Responders

27

4. Pre-incident guidelines (PG) have been created to provide FDNY members with an easy to
read summary of building features for specific buildings. Which is correct about the PG
process?

a. PGs are prepared by the administrative unit and forwarded thru the bag to the Battalion for
verification and approval
b. After the PG has been finalized, a familiarization drill shall be conducted every 90 days
c. The Battalion Commander must accompany the administrative company for an on-site visit
and review prior to approval
d. The on-site visit shall be made at a time when it doesn’t interfere with regularly scheduled
BISP periods

4. D

28

5. Which is incorrect about Pre-incident Guidelines? (3.1, 4.1)

a. Any building which has a pre-incident guideline must be included in CIDS
b. FD designation “PG” must be at the beginning of the transmitted data section
c. Every Company should have a binder for Pre-incident Guidelines on their apparatus
d. Company Officers responding to incidents with CIDS that indicate “PG” must refer to the
PG binder while responding

5. D

29

6. You are the Captain of Engine 77. You have finally received approval for the pre-incident
guideline you’ve been working on for several weeks. You are notified via email that the GIS
unit has uploaded the aerial maps and 360° view. While reviewing what GIS uploaded you
realize they uploaded the wrong address. In this situation you would be correct to? (add. #1)

a. Forward a letterhead request directly to the GIS unit informing them of the problem
b. Forward a letterhead through the chain of command the Chief of Planning at the Bureau of
Operations notifying them of the change
c. Forward an email notification of the change to the Division Commander
d. Forward an email fireops@fdny.nyc.gov with “PG” followed by the building address in the
subject line

6. D

30

7. The electronic riding list has greatly increased the FDNY’s ability to account for members
on the fireground. Which is incorrect about the EBF-4? (1.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.6)

a. The EBF-4 is directly linked to the HRIS database, spare radio list and spare SCBA list
b. Chief and company officers shall submit an EBF-4 at the start of each tour
c. Only members actually riding the apparatus for that tour shall be listed, members detailed
to another unit shall not be listed.
d. Paper copies are required for both the apparatus and the officer

7. A

31

8. You are the lieutenant submitting the EBF-4 for the 9x6 tour in Engine 85. FF Smith, who
is scheduled to work this tour, was detailed to a company in another division on the previous 6x9
tour. A member is awaiting relief for FF Smith. You have decided FF Smith will be the back-up
firefighter for the 9x6 tour. Which is correct about the EBF-4? (2.2, 2.5)

a. FF Smith should be included on the EBF-4 for the 9x6 tour because he is scheduled to
work the 9x6 tour
b. The back-up position shall be left blank until FF Smith returns to Engine 85’s quarters
c. Until FF Smith returns from the detail you should only submit a preliminary EBF-4
d. The EBF-4 should not be submitted until all members have reported for duty and are
assigned riding positions

8. C

32


9. Since the EBF-4 is linked to other databases other important information is available.
Select the incorrect statement: (2.6, 3.1, 3.2)

a. Spare radio numbers shall be listed adjacent to the riding positions on the EBF-4 for all
positions that have a spare radio assigned
b. Customized “Division reports” can be produced that include other units in their response
area
c. An “Incident report” is available and will list all units that responded to a particular
incident based on box number, incident number or borough
d. The Field Com Unit can provide a copy of the incident based riding list to the command
post

9. B

33

1. Concrete buildings under construction pose a significant hazard if they have a fire. Select
the correct points about this type of construction? (p.1)

a. The wood forms and supports are usually stored on the floor below the most recently
poured floor
b. The construction progresses by pouring one concrete floor every third day
c. One shoring stud is placed every four feet on center extending from floor to underside of
plywood form
d. If fire damages the plywood forms and supporting studs of a recently poured floor,
structural damage could occur
e. Structural failure is a problem associated with the floor used for the temporary storage of
the lumber for shoring

1. C, D

34

2. You are the Lieutenant of the first arriving unit for a report of a smoke condition in a cast in place
concrete building under construction. It is 4pm on a Tuesday and many workers are present on the scene.
As you arrive the security guard tells you there is a rubbish fire near the top of the building. What
information should you immediately determine?

a. Number of operating elevators
b. Location of the proposed fire alarm panel
c. Time the last floor was poured
d. Name of the general contractor

2. C

35

2. You are the Lieutenant of the first arriving unit for a report of a smoke condition in a cast in place
concrete building under construction. It is 4pm on a Tuesday and many workers are present on the scene.
As you arrive the security guard tells you there is a rubbish fire near the top of the building. What
information should you immediately determine?

a. Number of operating elevators
b. Location of the proposed fire alarm panel
c. Time the last floor was poured
d. Name of the general contractor

3. C

36


4. While searching a floor in a cast in place concrete building under construction you see
4”x4” studs placed every 8 feet. You know this indicates:

a. This floor is in the advanced stages of curing and presents a collapse hazard if exposed to
fire
b. This floor is the initial stages of curing and presents a collapse hazard if exposed to fire
c. This floor is in the advanced stages of curing and should not present a collapse hazard if
exposed to fire
d. This floor is in the initial stages of curing and should not present a collapse hazard if
exposed to fire

4. C

37

5. Speed humps have replaced speed bumps as a method to get drivers to drive slower on
certain roadways. Select the accurate points about this topic.

a. DOT installs signs warning of upcoming speed humps
b. FDNY apparatus must slow to either 15mph or 20mph (depending on height of hump) prior
to crossing a speed hump
c. If the DOT sign is missing, a report should be forwarded to the Public Transportation
Safety Unit in Operations
d. The humps may be 3” or 4” in height and either can be asphalt or concrete
e. Speed bumps are no longer legal on City streets

5. A, B, D, E

Note: When signs denoting speed humps are found to be missing, a report shall be
forwarded to City Planning, 7
th
floor, Bureau of Operations, FDNY.

38

SB 77
6. During BISP you discover that fire retardant treated plywood in use on the roof of a 3-story
townhouse. You would be correct to perform all but which of the following actions?

a. Forward an A-234 to the appropriate Fire Prevention Office
b. Notify adjoining companies by telephone
c. Forward written memo to adjoining companies
d. Forward an updated CIDS for the building

7. D


1.8 If FRTP is observed at a construction or alteration site, officers shall notify adjoining
companies by telephone followed by a written memo and comply with the Manual of Fire
Communications Chapter 4 (CIDS).

39


SB 78
7. FDNY personnel use elevators daily throughout the City. Sometimes these elevators
malfunction at the worst possible time. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement:
When attempting to use fireman service and the elevators do not react properly, turn
fireman service off and use in the normal mode, taking care to stop two floors below the
reported fire floor.

a. Agree or d. Disagre

7. D

40

8. Many newer buildings are being constructed with lightweight products. Select the accurate
statements about wooden I-beams:

a. As soon as they begin to burn they lose strength
b. Their use should be entered into CIDS
c. They are produced in lengths up to 35 feet
d. The web is usually 2” thick with the flanges thicker
e. Holes will usually not be drilled in the web since they can compromise the integrity of the
beam

8. A, B

2.4 Wooden I beams resemble steel I beams on a smaller scale. The top and bottom flanges
measure approximately two inches by four inches. The web, which separates the top and
bottom flanges is very thin plywood. The web of these beams was eleven inches high by
three eighths inch thick. These beams are produced in lengths up to fifty six feet. A
typical twenty six foot beam weighs less than fifty pounds.

2.5 Holes are drilled in the web of these beams to facilitate plumbing and electrical
installations. These holes, if not properly sized and placed, can compromise the integrity
of the beam and certainly present avenues for fire extension. Plywood burns with a high
rate of heat release. As soon as it begins to burn, the beam begins to lose strength.

41


1. Select the incorrect characteristics of the FDNY hand held Purple K Dry Chemical
extinguisher: (2.2, 2.3.3)

a. Discharge range is 20’ - 25’
b. Discharge time of 11 seconds
c. Coverage area 30 square feet
d. Temperature restrictions, can only be used between 40° - 120° F
e. Expended extinguishers exchanged by forwarding with RT-2 to Tech Services

1. A, D

2.2 FEATURES

2.2.1 Purple K Dry Chemical Capacity of 27 lbs.
2.2.2 Discharge Range 19' - 20'.
2.2.3 Discharge Time - 11 seconds.
2.2.4 Coverage approximately - 30 square feet.
2.2.5 Temperature restrictions - extinguisher can be used between minus 40 and 120
degrees.

42


2. FDNY officers should know which point to be inaccurate about the inspection of the purple
K extinguisher? (2.4)

a. Checked at the beginning of each tour
b. Thoroughly examined once a month
c. Tourly inspection includes examining the shell for corrosion
d. If defective it is sent to MSU for repair

2. D

2.4 INSPECTION
The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined
once a month.
2.4.1 Inspection at the beginning of each tour is to include:

A. Ensuring the extinguisher is in its designated place and is accessible for
immediate use.
B. Examining the extinguisher shell for evidence of physical damage,
corrosion or other impairments.
C. If extinguisher is defective for any reason, attach an RT-2 and forward to
Technical Services for replacement.

43


3. FDNY personnel should be familiar with the operation of the wheeled dry chemical
extinguisher units. Which is the only correct point? (3.1, 3.2)

a. These one hundred pound units are used extensively in industrial complexes throughout the
City
b. The FDNY Purple K Units each carry one of these wheeled extinguisher units
c. Purple K is the only extinguishing agent compatible with these wheeled units
d. A separate compressed air cylinder propels the agent through the hose
e. The hose is approximately 300’ long
f. The entire amount of hose, regardless of distance to operation, should be stretched before
charging the system

3. F

3.2 OPERATION
3.2.1 Stretch entire amount of hose from unit, approximately 100 ft.
3.2.2 Charge unit by opening valve on nitrogen cylinder.
3.2.3 Open nozzle until flow of dry chemical is noted.
3.2.4. Close nozzle and move to the point of operation.
Note: Hose, whether on wheeled units or on reels found on dry chemical trucks should
be stretched before charging to eliminate the binding of the hose to the reel.
Pressurization of the hose will cause the hose to expand and possibly bind on the
reel.

44

4. Purple K and other dry chemical extinguishing agents are compatible with many different
fuels. Select the incorrect. (1, 3)

a. Purple K is superior in combating methanol fires
b. Purple K is effective on gasoline and diesel but not compressed gas fires
c. Sodium bicarbonate is not as effective on methanol fires as Purple K
d. Purple K is potassium bicarbonate base dry chemical

4. B

1. INTRODUCTION
Purple K dry chemical extinguishers have been issued to various units of the department.
Purple K is a potassium bicarbonate base dry chemical. While other dry chemical
extinguishers are effective, Purple K has demonstrated a superior extinguishing
capability in combating methanol fires. Methanol's use as an alternate fuel for gasoline
and diesel powered vehicles and equipment throughout the city will inevitably lead to fire
situations at which the extinguishment of this fuel will be required. Purple K is also
effective on gasoline, diesel and compressed gas fires.

45

5. Select the incorrect actions when using the Purple K extinguisher: (4.1 - 4.3)

a. Approach the fire from upwind
b. Hold nozzle at a 30° angle to the ground
c. Take a position 15-18 feet from the front edge of the fire area
d. When extinguishing the final small fire at the back edge of the spill at a flammable liquid
spill fire, you should raise the nozzle to chase the fire ball
e. When extinguishing the fire remaining behind the obstacle at a flammable liquid spill fire
with obstacle, both streams should be aimed at the base of the flames
f. When extinguishing the final small fire at the back edge of the spill at a flammable liquid
spill fire, you should raise the nozzle to chase the fire ball
g. When encountering a flammable liquid fire in depth you should raise the dry chemical
stream slightly but maintain the 45° angle with the nozzles

5. B, C, D, F

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6. Extinguishing gravity fed and pressure fires with dry chemical agents can be complicated.
Select the correct actions: (4.5 - 4.8)

a. For gravity fed fires, the fire on the ground is extinguished first
b. For gravity fed fires, the fuel source is extinguished last
c. For flammable liquid pressure fires the dry chemical stream is directed at the fuel source
last
d. For flammable gas pressure fires the dry chemical stream is directed upward until the fire
ball is extinguishe

6. A, B, D

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7. LPG may be extinguished using Purple K and water. Select the incorrect statement about
this procedure: (4.9)

a. The water nozzles should be opened first and adjusted to the fog position
b. Once opened, the dry chemical nozzle should be directed at the fuel source
c. After extinguishing the fire, the dry chemical operator should stand by in case of reflash
d. The simultaneous application of water and dry chemical reduces the effectiveness of each
and is not considered an effective fire fighting tool

7. D

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Chapter 9
1. To determine roof collapse risk, three facts must be known about the roof. Which is
incorrect? (131)

a. The type of roof support system
b. How the joists are connected to the supporting wall
c. The presence of a drop ceiling on the top floor hanging from the main roof beams

1. C

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2. Some roofs are supported by steel bar joists. Which is an inaccurate point? (132 - 133)

a. These steel joists could be unprotected or covered with spray-on fire retarding insulation
b. A membrane panel ceiling could also protect the steel bar joist. This system is preferred
since it has a wide margin for installation error and still provide protection
c. A fluted metal steel deck laid on top of the steel bar joists will form the roof deck
d. Horizontal ventilation is preferred to vertical ventilation when confronting a fire in a
building with a steel bar joist roof

2. B

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3. Historically, sawn wood is the most common material used for joists in ordinary
construction. Which is a correct statement? (133)

a. Although it will withstand considerably more fire damage than lightweight trusses, wood
joists collapse suddenly when reaching its failure point
b. The smaller space between solid wood joists increases the possibility a firefighter may fall
into the fire
c. In terms of withstanding high temperatures, wood joist roof support systems are barely
superior to steel bar joist systems
d. When a wood joist supported system is exposed to fire, the roof deck will soften prior to
joist failure

3. D

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4. The method in which the roof joists are connected to their support can tell how it will
perform in a collapse. Which is an incorrect point? (134 – 135)

a. An example of a restrained beam is Corbel shelf construction
b. An unrestrained beam and fire cut beam fail in a similar manner
c. In brick cavity construction, wood beams may continue to provide support even if the
center is weakened by fire
d. Most H-type apartment buildings have their roof joists simply resting on masonry

5. A

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5. Select the correct statement about inverted or raised roofs: (137 – 138)

a. An example of an inverted roof is when the top floor ceiling is several feet below the main
roof beams
b. A raised roof is expected to be softer and fail sooner than the main roof beams
c. The 2”x4” supports of an inverted roof are usually spaced closer together than the roof
beams
d. A rain roof, if installed, will generally be flat with no pitch above the original roof to allow
the rain to form shallow puddles

5. B

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Chapter 10

1. Which of the following are examples of shaped steel? (143 – 144)

a. Bar joist truss
b. C beam
c. Fluted floor decking
d. Hollow tube steel columns
e. Steel partition wall studs

1. A, B, C, D, E

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2. Steel performs well as a structural component until it is heated. Which is not a correct
statement? (145)

a. Steel is more likely to melt instead of just deform in most commercial fires
b. The failure temperature of steel is between 1000° and 1100°
c. Shaping steel gives steel greater load bearing capacity and allows for lighter weight steel
buildings
d. Thin steel such as C-beams reach failure temp much faster than solid steel I-beam sections

2. A

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3. Select the correct point about the different methods to protect steel: (145 – 147)

a. Concrete encasement is the best method to protect steel and has no drawbacks
b. A membrane ceiling is a collapse danger for firefighters and is also the least effective
method of protecting steel from heat of a fire
c. Primer paint placed on steel reduces the adhesion of Spray-on fire retarding by one-third to
one-half

3. C


1100°F failure temp of steel? will lose 40% of load carrying capacit

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Chapter 11

1. When discussing lightweight wood truss construction, which of the following is the main
concern of the fire service?

a. Lack of redundancy that permits the use of wood of smaller dimensions than previously
used
b. Lack of horizontal fire stopping ability in the void space
c. The sheet metal fastener that connects the truss members together
d. The inability to identify buildings using this type construction after they are built

1. C

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2. Which is an incorrect point about lightweight wooden trusses?

a. Generally, this type construction will fail under fire conditions faster than solid beam
construction.
b. The most serious defect in this type of construction is the lack of redundancy
c. The points of connection are the first to fail in a fire
d. The V-shaped nailing points enter the wood to a depth of only one half inch.
e. The fasteners may also rust and weaken when properly installed in an enclosed well
insulated roof space

2. B

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3. The 2nd edition of Chief Dunn’s book included some new points about lightweight wood
truss collapse, which is incorrect?

a. New York State has a law that requires buildings with trusses be marked with two vertical
lines
b. Content fires should be extinguished with interior handlines
c. The strategy for a fire that involves the structure should be to remove personnel from the
building and conduct an exterior attack
d. Fire spread inside a building’s truss void space is 50% faster than in concealed spaces of
conventional solid wood beam construction

3. D

Decks in Firetech Class (61):