WEEK #10 WEEK OF 11/18/13 PART I – REGULATIONS CH. #12, 13 & 20 PART II – ERP – ADD #4A, 4B, 4C & 4D PART III – EVOLUTIONS #23 & 24 PART IV – AUC'S #220, 225, 231, 233, 254 & 259 PART V – FFP COLLAPSE INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #10 WEEK OF 11/18/13 PART I – REGULATIONS CH. #12, 13 & 20 PART II – ERP – ADD #4A, 4B, 4C & 4D PART III – EVOLUTIONS #23 & 24 PART IV – AUC'S #220, 225, 231, 233, 254 & 259 PART V – FFP COLLAPSE INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #10 WEEK OF 11/18/13 PART I – REGULATIONS CH. #12, 13 & 20 PART II – ERP – ADD #4A, 4B, 4C & 4D PART III – EVOLUTIONS #23 & 24 PART IV – AUC'S #220, 225, 231, 233, 254 & 259 PART V – FFP COLLAPSE INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Deck (74):
1

PART I – REGULATIONS CHAP. #12, 13 & 20:
1. You are a company officer who is sitting on the rig at 1900 hours while the members are
shopping for the meal when a person approaches you and states that the theatre across the street
would not let her in because they are already overcrowded with too many people. In this
situation, you would be most correct to? (12.1.6)
A. If it is your district, promptly inspect the complaint
B. Promptly inspect the complaint regardless of whose district it is
C. Inspect the theatre on your next BISP period
D. Immediately phone the Administrative Battalion

1. D

2

2. A company officer conducting a surveillance inspection of a 2-story mixed occupancy with
a pizzeria on the first floor and an apartment on the second floor for the possible storage of
fireworks would be correct to think that? (12.1.9)
A. All areas of the building shall be inspected
B. If fireworks are found, an NOV shall be issued
C. If fireworks are found, the Bureau of Fire Investigation shall be notified and NYPD called
to the scene for confiscation and disposal
D. If fireworks are found, a report shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations

2. C

12.1.9 Chief and Company Officers shall cause frequent inspections of buildings or
occupancies, excluding living quarters, wherein it is suspected fireworks are
being illegally stored or sold. Where such fireworks are discovered, a summons
shall be served, the Bureau of Fire Investigation notified and the Police
Department called to the scene for confiscation and disposal. A small quantity
shall be retained by the company officer for evidence. Receipts shall be
obtained from the police official called to the scene.
The Bureau of Fire Prevention shall be notified of the incident, followed by a
report with full particulars.

3

3. Engine companies are required to carry a minimum of how many lengths of hose rolled or
folded? (13.2.8)
A. 3 lengths of 2 ½”, 3 lengths of 1 ¾” — one of which has a nozzle connected
B. 3 lengths of 1 ¾”, 4 lengths of 2 ½” — one of which has a nozzle connected
C. 4 lengths of 2 ½”, 3 lengths of 1 ¾” — one of which has a nozzle connected
D. 3 lengths of 2 ½”, 4 lengths of 1 ¾” — one of which has a nozzle connected

3. D

13.2.8 Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2" and not less
than three lengths of 1 3/4" hose (rolled or folded). Ladder companies shall
carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4" hose (rolled or folded) and the
necessary fittings to place a line in operation including, but not limited to,
appropriate hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.
Additionally, each engine company shall ensure that an extra length of 1 3/4
inch hose with nozzle, either rolled or folded, is stored on the apparatus.
This hose must be easily accessible so that it can be used to replace a burst
length or for adding to a short stretch.
13.2.9

4

4. All of the following accurately indicate proper inspection of apparatus and equipment
except? (13.2.13, 13.3.4, 13.3.24, 13.3.28, 22.5.3)
A. On Monday 9 x 6 tours, special unit apparatus stored in quarters must operate their motors
and pumps for at least 10 minutes
B. A thorough inspection of the apparatus must be conducted by the officer with the
chauffeur, after the roll call
C. Hose must be removed, cleaned and repacked in the spring and fall, but tested annually
D. Masks must be inspected prior to the 0900 and 1800 roll calls, upon return to quarters after
use, and an operating test and inspection conducted immediately prior to the start of MUD

4. A, D

13.2.13 Company commanders shall arrange, each Monday on the 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. tour,
for the operation of all motors and pumps of special unit apparatus stored in
quarters.

5

5. In which of the following situation(s) should the company officer place an apparatus out of
service? (13.3.8, 13.3.9, Comm 8—Pg 32)
A. Electronic siren out of service, air horn works, warning lights work
B. Electronic siren works, air horn works, warning lights not working
C. Unit apparatus has a flat tire
D. Apparatus Department radio is out of service

5. B, C

There are occasions when there are no radio mechanics on duty to repair
apparatus sirens. When a unit's electronic siren is out of service, the officer
shall notify the Battalion and Division. In the case where the unit is equipped
with another operating audible device, such as an air horn and emergency lights
(both are required), the unit will remain in service. If there is no audible signal
or emergency lights, a spare apparatus shall be requested.

13.3.9 When an apparatus sustains a flat tire, the unit must be placed out of service and
the Fleet Maintenance Division notified. The Fleet Maintenance Division will
determine if a spare apparatus is required. Notifications are to be made as per
Section 13.3.8.
No attempt shall be made to reinflate a tire that has gone flat. To try to inflate a
flat tire on the apparatus could result in an injury to a member.
This does not prohibit the inflation of a tire to the required pressure, where there
has been a loss of pressure not resulting from a flat tire.

6

6. In which one of the following situations should the housewatch person state over the
intercom “Lieutenant, your presence is required at the housewatch desk? (20.3.10)
A. Visit by BITS
B. Visit by EEO
C. Visit by DOI
D. Visit by the Testing Unit

6. B

No Fire Department employee shall make any notification to any superior
officers or any other announcement regarding the entry or presence of
DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel on official business unless specifically
directed to do so by DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel.

The EEO staff will enter quarters and announce their visit to the member
performing housewatch duty. This member will notify the officer on-duty that
his/her presence is required at the housewatch area. No other notification or
any other announcement shall be made regarding the presence of EEO.

7

7. When a firehouse is visited by EEO personnel for an EEO compliance inspection, it would
be incorrect to state that? (20.3.10)
A. EEO investigators, officers, and staff will present their FDNY ID and sign the company
journal—but they may sign using their employee ID number
B. Members may be directed to gather in a common area like the kitchen while the
investigation is conducted
C. The units remain in service, and if an alarm is received requiring a single house unit or both
units in a double house to respond, the EEO staff will terminate the inspection and leave the
premises
D. Once an inspection is terminated due to a response, it must be started from the beginning at
another time

7. D

If the Unit in a single unit house or both Units in a double house
receive an alarm during the EEO visit, then the EEO staff will terminate the
inspection and leave the premises. The EEO staff can/may/will resume the
EEO inspection when the Unit returns or at another time.

8

PART II – ERP - ADD #4A, 4B, 4C & 4D:
1. An officer conducting drill on the Radalert 50 was incorrect in which one of the following
statements that he made? (4A - 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4)
A. When leaving quarters, the Radalert 50 shall be turned on, have its OFF/ON/AUDIO
switch placed in the AUDIO position, and its mode switch placed in the mR/Hr position
B. After turning the unit on, it requires one full minute to show a complete reading on the
LCD. The continuous screen readings will then reflect normal background radiation
C. When moving towards a suspected area of contamination, move slowly. The unit takes a
full minute for a change to be indicated
D. When examining broken shipping packages or injured patients for contamination, slowly
move the monitor one to two feet from the surface with the Beta port facing the object, area or
person to be tested

1. D

When examining any of
these for contamination, slowly move the monitor one to two inches from the surface
with the alpha port (open window on the top of the case) facing the object, area or person
to be tested.

9

3. When operating at an incident and using the Radalert 50, an officer would be incorrect to
think that? (4A - 2.5, 2.6)
A. To determine the isolation zone, use a circular pattern with the Radalert 50 around the
object or area
B. All Radalert 50 reports must go to the IC or Haz-Mat Group Supervisor
C. Any area that causes the Radalert 50 to alarm, requires confirmation by a second unit
D. Access inside an established hotline is restricted to ONLY those operations conducted for
life saving operations

3. D

Access to this area is restricted to first
responders conducting life saving operations and protection of life and major property.

10

2. An Engine Officer arrives at the scene of an alarm for an explosion and finds explosive
debris from a UPS vehicle on the ground near the truck. She then gets the following readings /
indications: (4A - 2.2, 2.3, 2.6)

1. 05 millirems by the pumper—she thinks this is normal background radiation
2. 30 seconds later, an alert tone goes off on the Radalert 50 — but it still reads .05 millirems
— she suspects that she is in an area with radiation levels above 1 mR/Hr
3. Where the Radalert reads 1 mR/Hr, she establishes a hotline and marks it off with red haz-
mat barrier tape

She was correct in which thoughts / actions?

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

2. A

NOTE: The unit takes a full minute for a change to be indicated on the LCD display,
therefore progress slowly. As a safety factor, if the rate at any time goes over 1 mR/Hr,
the monitor will immediately sound the alert tone.

The Fire Department
of New York uses 1 mR/Hr as an action level. The Hotline (defining the Hot Zone)
should be established at a rate of 2 mR/Hr, and marked with the red “hazardous
materials” barrier tape supplied by Tech Services. Access to this area is restricted to first
responders conducting life saving operations and protection of life and major property.

11

4. 9-Volt batteries for the Radalert 50 must be changed every? (4A - 4.1)

A. Month C. 6 months
B. 3 Months D. Time the meter is actually used at an incident

4. B

4.1 Maintenance of the Radalert™ 50 requires that the 9-volt alkaline battery be changed
every 3 months. The 9-volt alkaline battery shall be changed on Jan. 1, April 1, July 1,
and Oct. 1 of each year.

12

5. An officer conducting drill on radiological instrumentation was incorrect when she stated
that? (4B - 1.3.2, 5.1.2, 5.1.7)

A. Dosimeters measure the TOTAL DOSE an individual is exposed to during a period of time
B. Dosimeters measure the total amount of beta or gamma radiation to which the instrument
has been exposed
C. Dosimeters instantly indicate changes in the accumulated dose
D. Members should accept the reading on their dosimeter as a measure of their exposure at
any emergency operation

5.

1.3.2 Dosimeters measure the Total Dose of radiation to which an individual may have
been exposed during a period of time.

5.1.2 Measures the total amount of gamma radiation to which the instrument has been
exposed.

5.1.7 Responds instantaneously to changes in the accumulated dose. During any
emergency operation, personnel should accept the reading on their dosimeter as a
measurement of exposure

13

6. Members have just returned from a “Good Radiological Job” where they were exposed to a
radioactive iodine cloud. On their return to quarters, they question their officer about the taking
Potassium Iodide Tablets (KI) to protect their thyroid gland. In this situation, they would be
correct to think that? (4C - 1.3, 2.2, 5.4)

A. The optimal administration of KI is prior to or immediately coincident with the passage of
a radiological cloud within a 1 hour window after exposure
B. The adult dose recommended for FDNY members following an exposure to radioactive
iodine is one tablet of 130 milligrams of KI
C. Taking two tablets of KI may offer more protection in certain situations
D. Members shall only take KI tablets when ordered by the IC

6. B

KI is most effective when taken soon after an exposure.
The ideal window is pre-exposure or immediately post exposure. Some radiation
physiologists argue that the time frame is within one-hour post exposure. The utility of
KI drops off rapidly as a function of time with respect to exposure and the exposed
person's age.

2.2 The adult dose recommended for FDNY members following an exposure to radioactive
iodine is: 130 milligram (mg) POTASSIUM IODIDE (KI), one tablet as soon after
exposure as possible.
NOTE: Taking a higher dose or taking KI more often than recommended will NOT
offer more protection and can cause severe illness and death due to allergic
reaction.

5.4 The Chief of Department, in consultation with the Chief Medical Officer and emergency
management officials, shall direct the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) to
make notification for members in specific areas to take one 130-mg Potassium Iodide
(KI) tablet. FDOC will make all appropriate notifications to ensure members are
notified.
NOTE: Members shall only take Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets when directed by the
Chief of Department.


14


7. Regarding the carrying of KI tablets on FDNY apparatus, it would be incorrect to state that
they are located / carried by? (4C - 5.2)

A. Engines, Squads and Rescue Companies in their CFR carry bags / first aid kits
B. Ladder Companies in their first aid kits or apparatus glove box
C. Battalions and Divisions in their first aid kits or apparatus glove box
D. Battalions have additional caches in their respective offices

7. D

Additional caches of 130 mg Potassium Iodide
(KI) tablets will be stored at Division offices. If needed, units and/or members must
respond to the nearest Division office, or as directed, to obtain 130 mg Potassium
Iodide (KI) tablets.

15


8. Regarding the FDNY Ultraradiac, it would be correct to state that it? (4D - 1.2, 2.1)

A. Only detects Gamma radiation, nothing else
B. Only measures DOSE RATES, not TOTAL DOSE
C. Does not measure alpha, beta, or neutron radiation
D. Should be continuously secured to each member’s handie-talkie case by use of the
Ultraradiac Retention Strap

8. C

1.2 The UltraRadiac has the capability to detect Gamma and X-ray radiation. Therefore, the
UltraRadiac will measure the RATE and DOSE based only on the presence of these
specific types of radiation. To detect and measure other types of radiation (alpha, beta,
neutron) additional instrumentation will be required.

2.1 The wear/use policy for the UltraRadiac is as follows:
• An UltraRadiac designated for use by a Fire Officer shall be continuously secured to
the Officer’s handie-talkie case by the use of the UltraRadiac Retention Strap.
• Fire Officers will be required to wear and have their designated UltraRadiacs turned
on whenever they are out of quarters (emergency and non-emergency operations).


• An UltraRadiac designated for use by a Firefighter will be stored within the
Firefighter UltraRadiac Storage Container (yellow pelican case) in a secure location
on the fire apparatus.

16

9. A Company officer should be aware that his Ultraradiac should? (4D - 2.1)

1. Be turned on when out of quarters, and turned off when in quarters
2. Be tested and have its accumulated dose cleared at 0900 hours only

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2 D. Both are incorrect

9. A

• Fire Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are tested and the
accumulated doses are cleared at the beginning of each tour.
• Fire Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are turned off when in
quarters.

17

10. All of the following indications on the Ultraradiac indicate that the batteries should be
replaced except? (4D - 6.1, 8.1)

A. A b appears in the display area
B. A blinking BAT appears in the display area
C. The display area is blank
D. A low beeping sound occurs on the Ultraradiac every 10 second

8.1 Battery Life Indicators
• If a blinking b is displayed, the unit has stopped functioning and the batteries need to
be replaced.
• If a blinking BAT is seen in the top-left corner of the display, the unit’s batteries have
10 hours or less of useful life. The batteries need to be replaced.
• If the display is blank, the batteries are dead. The batteries need to be replaced.

18

11. In order to determine how many more minutes a member can stay in an area without
exceeding the HIGH DOSE threshold, a member should press the _____ key on their Ultraradiac
to see their Stay Time? (4D - 5.1, 6.4)

A. Rate
B. Dose
C. Alarm
D. Light

11. C

6.4 Checking Your Stay Time
• Press ALARM key to see the number of minutes you could stay in an area without
exceeding the High Dose threshold. The Stay Time will change as the dose rate in
the area changes and the accumulated dose increases.

5. FUNCTION KEYS

5.1 The primary function of each of the function keys is briefly described below.
• ON/OFF Press and hold to turn the unit on and off.
• RATE Press to change to the Rate Mode.
• DOSE Press to change to the Dose Mode.
• ALARM Press to see the Stay Time. Stay Time is the number of minutes
you can stay in an area without exceeding the High Dose
threshold. The Stay Time will change as the dose rate in the area
changes and the accumulated dose increases.
• LIGHT Press to illuminate the display for about five seconds (the backlight
may not be visible in daylight or normal room lighting).
• CLR/TEST Press and hold to enable the Display Test Sequence while in the
Rate Mode.

19


12. An officer arrives at an operation where he will have all members use their Ultraradiac.
Regarding such usage, the officer would be correct to believe that? (4D - 6.3, 6.6, 6.7)

A. When pressing the CLR/TEST key to initially test it, a blinking “9” will indicate that the
Ultraradiac failed the test
B. An Ultraradiac’s accumulated dose is cleared whenever the Ultraradiac is turned off
C. When using the Ultraradiac in the Source Finder Mode, the unit will start clicking with an
audible sound if near radioactive material
D. When using the Ultraradiac in the Source Finder Mode, aim the middle of the unit at
suspected source of radiation

12. C

6.3 Operational Test
• Press and hold CLR/TEST key until display test sequence begins.
• Displays test sequence.
• Unit returns to Rate Mode 10 seconds after completion.
o A blinking”9” indicates UltraRadiac passed all tests.
o A blinking “0” indicates an instrument failure. Place UltraRadiac out of service.

6.6 Clearing the Accumulated Dose
• Press DOSE key to see the accumulated dose.
• Press and hold DOSE + CLR/TEST keys.
• The display will flash for a few seconds; then clear the accumulated dose.
• To return to the Rate Mode, press the RATE key.
Note: The accumulated dose is NOT cleared on the UltraRadiac when it is turned off.



6.7 Source Finder Mode
Source Finder Mode allows unit to locate an isolated source by using an audible sound.
The unit will start clicking if near radioactive material. As the user moves closer to the
radiation, the unit will click faster. Aim top of unit at the suspected source of radiation.

20

13. All of the following alarms on the Ultraradiac are correctly indicated except?

A. It has a LOW RATE ALARM at 2 mR/Hr
B. It has a HIGH RATE ALARM at 50 mR/Hr
C. It has a LOW DOSE ALARM at 5 R
D. It has a LOW DOSE ALARM at 10 R

13. B

7. ALARMS

Alarm Type Rate /Dose
Low 2 mR/hr 5 R
High 50 R/hr 12 R

21

14. Members can turn off their red light and DOSE / ALARM indicators by clearing their
accumulated dose only when their accumulated dose is recorded or when ordered by the IC?
(4D - 7.3 Note, 7.4 Note)

A. Agree or D. Disagree

14. A

Note: The green light and the ALARM indicator can be turned off by clearing the
accumulated dose. This will NOT be done at a radiological incident or emergency
until the accumulated dose is recorded or when ordered by the Incident
Commander.

Note: The red light and the DOSE / ALARM indicators can be turned off by clearing the
accumulated dose. This will NOT be done at a radiological incident or emergency
until the accumulated dose is recorded or when ordered by the Incident
Commander.

22


PART III – EVOLUTIONS #23 & 24:

1. A member who has decided to deploy their PSS would be incorrect to think that?
(Evol 23 Pg 1)

A. The PSS should only be used after all other means of self-rescue have been exhausted
B. He should transmit an Urgent Message to the IC
C. During the emergency transmissions with the IC, indicate you are deploying your PSS
D. He should notify the IC when he has reached a point of safety

1. B

• When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday
transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted.
o In addition to all other required information relayed for a trapped member, include
that you are in the process of deploying the Personal Safety System.

o When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the
Incident Commander must be notified.

23


2. Tying off to a substantial object is the preferred method of anchoring the PSS. Which of the
following are considered substantial object(s) for this purpose? (Evol 23 Pg 2)

A. Steam riser
B. Radiator
C. Two wall studs
D. Door fram

2­. ALL

24

3. When deploying the PSS at an operation using a remote anchor, the deploying member
must be aware that he should? (Evol 23 Pgs 3-7)

A. Tie an “Anchor Knot” which is composed of two half hitches
B. If placing the anchor hook on a door frame or steam riser, place it midway between the
floor and ceiling to maximize tension when exiting the window
C. Have the left shoulder point towards the exit window
D. Keep the rope in your left hand while moving across the room. Leading with your left hand
is the most effective way to exit the room
E. Insure the EXO is brought to a point on the middle of the window sill

3. A

Note: When using the anchor hook as pictured in figure 12 and 13, place the anchor hook
as low as possible keeping tension. This will help prevent the anchor hook from
coming off of the anchor point.

• Turn slightly to the right. Right shoulder points to the exit window.
• Keep rope in right hand while moving across room.
• Continue pulling rope from the storage bag, maintaining a small amount of slack
between right hand and the EXO to eliminate friction while moving towards window.
Note: Leading with your right hand will be the most effective way to exit room.

Note: It is absolutely necessary that the EXO be brought beyond the sill.

25

4. When exiting the window using the PSS system, members would be correct to think that
they should? (Evol 23 Pgs 8-10)
A. Hold the EXO while exiting
B. Straddle the window first, then roll forward in a head first manner until the upper torso and
right leg are outside the window
C. After rolling headfirst out of the window, lock their left leg on the interior wall and
maintain the position of their left hand on the interior wall opposite the left leg
D. Release the left leg and left hand simultaneously to reach the final position before
descending

4. C

Note: Holding the EXO while
exiting may prevent
engagement of the locking
cam and result in a free fall.

Note: This maneuver eliminates
the need to straddle the
window and keeps member
in lower portion of the
window below high heat

Note: Left hand must maintain its
grasp on the interior wall
until the body is in an
upright position.

26

5. When descending with the PSS, the rope should be grasped with the right hand, and the
hand slid out so that the rope is at a ______ degree angle to the EXO. This position and angle
must be maintained during the descent? (Evol 23 Pg 10)
A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

5. D

27

6. When exiting a building at a window using the PSS where the system will be anchored at
the WINDOW itself, it would be incorrect to state that? (Evol 24 Pg 3)
A. The member must assess which is the best location for the anchor hook, the window sill or
interior side wall
B. The anchor hook is placed in the palm of the left hand
C. The rope is grasped with the right hand
D. When exiting the window, wrap the fingers of the left hand around the anchor hook and
maintain its position inside of the window

6. D

• Place anchor hook in palm of left
hand. (Figure 6)

28

PART IV – AUC's #220, 225, 231, 233, 254 & 259:
1. Members must use their SCBA in all of the following situations except? (AUC
220--2.1, TB SCBA 2.2)
A. Working on a fire escape and exposed to smoke
B. Cutting a hole on a roof and exposed to toxic substances
C. Performing a search inside of a manhole
D. Searching for a water leak in a commercial building that has very few windows
2.

1. D

29

2. A Ladder Company is operating as an entire unit performing overhaul on the first floor in a
commercial building. Which one of the following members in the IDLH area operated correctly?
(AUC 220 - 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6)
A. The Irons FF completely removed his facepiece because his SCBA cylinder was depleted
B. The Can FF removed the SCBA regulator because his SCBA was malfunctioning and
cutting off his air supply
C. The OV FF, whose SCBA cylinder was depleted, notified his officer he was leaving
immediately, by himself, to go change his cylinder
D. The Officer, whose cylinder was depleted, left with the Roof FF to exchange his cylinder.
He left the LCC in charge temporarily of the remaining members of the unit until his return

2. B

30

3. Facepiece sharing is prohibited with? (AUC 220 - 2.7)
A. Only civilians
B. Only members
C. Civilians and members, unless extreme conditions allow for no other actions
D. Civilians and members in all circumstances

3. D

31

4. Members operating at a third alarm took the following actions to provide an interim air
supply for trapped individuals:
1. When a member became trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got the
nearest available FAST-Pak
2. When a civilian was trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got the
nearest available FAST-Pak
3. When a member became trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got a
spare SCBA
4. When a civilian was trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got a spare
SCBA
How many of their actions were correct? (AUC 220 — 2.8)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4. C (1,3,4)

32

5. A Captain reviewing “Low Water Pressure Procedures” at company drill was incorrect
when he stated that? (AUC 225—2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5)
A. All Engines and Squads shall obtain pressure readings on the hydrants nearest quarters
during the first full week in May and record them on the Hydrant Pressure Chart
B. The Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted at the housewatch desk throughout the entire
year
C. All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants, whenever the
Officer determines that such action will not precipitate an incident
D. Anyone found illegally using a hydrant may be issued a summons

5. B

2.2 After completion the "Hydrant Pressure Chart" shall be posted at the housewatch desk
throughout the summer season.

33

6. During a “Water Pressure Alert” or a “Water Pressure Emergency”, units are required to
take and record the pressure readings on the hydrants nearest to quarters every ______ from
1000 hours until _____ hours? (AUC 225—3.1, 4.1)
A. Hour, 1800
B. Hour, 2200
C. 3 hours, 1800
D. 3 hours, 2200

6. B

34

7. You are an Officer conducting patrol duties during a Phase II, “Water Pressure
Emergency”. At the conclusion of your patrol duties, you would be correct to fax to the Battalion
all of the following information except? (4.4)
A. The number of illegally opened hydrants
B. The number of hydrants shut down
C. The number of Spray Caps placed
D. The number of Summons issued
E. Any areas experiencing dangerous low water pressure that could affect operations

7. D

4.4 Officers on duty upon completing their assigned patrol duties, shall fax to the battalion
the following information:
A. the number of illegally opened hydrants,
B. the number shut down,
C. the number of spray caps placed, and
D. any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressures that could adversely
affect firefighting operations.

35

8. At 0308 hours first alarm units respond to a report of a fire in a deli and on arrival at the
scene determine that there is a minor smoke condition showing from the storefront window.
After cutting a padlock, they are able to gain entry easily through the front entrance with no other
damage. They then find a very small electrical fire that they extinguish with the can. Because
they cannot locate anyone to safeguard the premises, they consider using the Battalion padlock.
In this situation, they would be correct to think that using the Battalion lock is?
(AUC 231—2.1—2.7)
A. Appropriate, provided there is no other damage to the entire perimeter
B. Inappropriate, because of the nature of the occupancy
C. Inappropriate, because they forced entry
D. Inappropriate, because there was a fire condition

8. A

36

9. After using the Battalion lock to safeguard a premises, who is responsible to notify the
dispatcher for entry on their Secured Premises List? (AUC 231 — 4.2)
A. Company Officer, from the scene, and he should place the key on the apparatus
B. Company Officer, on return to quarters, and he should place the key on the apparatus
C. Battalion Chief, from the scene, and he should place the key in the Battalion vehicle
D. Battalion Chief, on return to quarters, and he should place the key in the Battalion office

9. B

4.2 On return to quarters:
4.2.1 The dispatcher will be notified of the securing of the premises, for entry on his
Secured Premises List.
4.2.1 Appropriate journal entries made.
4.2.2 Key shall be put in a secure place on the apparatus selected by the Officer on duty

37

10. All of the following operations are routinely considered within the capability of a single
unit except? (AUC 233)
A. Outside rubbish D. Oil Burner
B. Food on the stove E. Steam discharge
C. Compactor fire F. Sprinkler discharge

10. C

Oh Boy Food WOOSSI

1.2 Operations to be considered routinely within the capability of a single unit:
1.2.1 Deleted.
1.2.2 Outside rubbish Fire. (See REFERENCE # 1)
1.2.3 Brush Fires.
1.2.4 Food on the stove.
1.2.5 Minor emergencies such as:
a. Incinerator
b. Oil Burner
c. Odor of Smoke
d. Steam Discharge
e. Sprinkler Discharge
f. Water Leak

38

11. Regarding the selection of chauffeurs, Department policy is accurately indicated in all of
the following points except? (AUC 254 - #3, 6, 8, 9)
A. Members must have 3 years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur
Training School.
B. The Chauffeur Qualification checklist shall be a tool to assist the training officer and
forwarded with the candidate when they are selected to attend Chauffeur Training School
C. Members who have passed Chauffeur Training School are eligible for a position as a
regular unit chauffeur
D. If qualified Chauffeurs are not assigned as Chauffeurs and / or Tiller FF’s for an extended
period of time, they shall practice operating the apparatus during drills and responding to alarms

11. D

39

12. The Company Commander must be aware that regarding the training and availability of
School Trained Chauffeurs, it is accurate to state that? (AUC 254 — Add 1)
A. Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least 10 hours
of driver training
B. Training shall be conducted by having members drive and / or operate the apparatus at
MUD, inspectional activities, and responding and returning from alarms
C. When a Company Commander believes a member is proficient in driving and operating the
apparatus, an entry shall be made in the Company Journal
D. If a Company Commander believes a member’s performance as a chauffeur is less than
satisfactory, he may recommend, by written report with all relevant facts to the Chief of
Operations that the members chauffeur designation be revoked
E. ECC’s transferred to ladder companies and LCC’s transferred to Engine companies will
have their prior unit chauffeur designation revoked 12 months after they transfer

12. D

3. Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least five
(5) hours of driver training, not including emergency responses.
4. To assure this, company commanders shall implement and maintain an ongoing program
of developing and evaluating selected members by having them drive and/or operate the
apparatus at multi-unit drills, returning from alarms, on inspectional duties, etc.
5. When, in the opinion of the company commander, a firefighter is proficient in driving
and operating the apparatus, an entry shall be made in the office record journal.

6.1 Engine company chauffeurs (ECC) transferred to ladder companies and ladder company
chauffeurs (LCC) transferred to engine companies, shall have their prior unit chauffeur
designation immediately revoked upon transfer. In unusual circumstances, exceptions to
this policy will be granted with the approval of the Chief of Operations.

40

13. You are the Officer on overtime working in Reserve Apparatus 506 that has been activated
and established in the quarters of Engine 206 as a CFR-D Engine for a 6 x 9 tour. In this
situation, you would be incorrect to think that you should? (AUC 259 — 5.2, 6.4,
9.3, 9.6, 9.7)
A. Post a 3rd copy of the riding list at the housewatch desk
B. Identify yourself to the Brooklyn CO as “Engine 506 acting Engine 206”
C. Utilize the Battalion Depot for your initial supply of CFR-D equipment and any further
needed supplies during the tour
D. Have a minimum compliment of two CFR-D trained firefighters

13. C


9.4 Reserve CFR-D Units will be provided with CFR-D equipment by Technical
Services Division upon activation. This equipment will consist of an “Emergency
CFR-D Kit”

5.2 Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were a relocator in the quarters where needed.
It will, therefore, take a standard relocator's identity for the period in service at the
particular quarters.
Example: Eng. 506 (a reserve apparatus) is established in the quarters of Eng. 219. It
would be identified as "E 506 acting E 219". NOTE: The terminology 2nd or 3rd, etc.,
section is. not acceptable.

41

14. When a reserve apparatus is utilized, who is responsible for a “Lost Property Report” if any
equipment is lost during the tour? (AUC 259 — 7.2)
A. The Officer in charge of the apparatus while it was out of storage
B. The Officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored

14. A

7.5.4 The administrative battalion shall notify the officer who was in charge of the
apparatus, while it was out of storage, that the responsibility for the preparation and
forwarding of the, Lost Property Report and the notifications required regarding the
loss of department property are his/hers. A record of this communication shall be
included in the administrative battalion endorsement of the report required under
the provisions of section 7.5.3 (C).
7.5.5 Officer placed in charge of a reserve apparatus, while it is not in storage, is
responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus. Such officer
will be responsible for complying with the regulations regarding reporting lost
department property if any tool and/or equipment assigned to that apparatus is lost
while apparatus is under his/her custody

42

PART V – FFP - COLLAPSE:
1. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a collapse of a 2 story flat roof Private Dwelling and
find that the 1st and 2nd floor have collapsed trapping 5 civilians, who are also seriously injured.
On arrival witnesses indicate that there was a smell of gas, then a loud explosion. Based on this
sizeup, it would be correct for members to believe?
A. This will be a Single Command event with the FDNY in charge
B. This will be a Unified Command event

1. B

43

2. Which of the following are core competencies of the FDNY? (Indicate all correct)
A. Search and rescue
B. Evacuation of both structures and areas
C. Pre-Hospital medical care
D. Arson — both cause and origin and major cases
E. Mass Decon and Life Safety operations at Haz-Mat operations

2. B

44

3. An engine and ladder company arriving first at the scene of a major collapse would be
correct to consider all of the following points except? (4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.6)
A. An initial staging area should be established
B. At least one tower ladder should be special called if none was assigned on the initial alarm
C. Safety is the single most important consideration during the operation
D. SOC units shall ensure the immediate area is monitored for the presence of any biological
agents
E. Explosions shall be viewed as a possible “dirty-bomb” until monitoring shows the area to
be clear of such contamination

3. D

Note: At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the
immediate area is monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.

45

4. If possible, when arriving at the scene of a collapse, the first and second arriving engines
would be correct to supply handlines and large caliber tower ladder streams by taking?
(5.3.1)
A. Hydrants outside the block, on the same main
B. Hydrants inside the block, on different mains
C. Hydrants outside the block, on different mains
D. One engine inside the block on a hydrant, one engine outside the block on a hydrant—both
on the same main

4. C

46

5. Units arriving at the scene of a major collapse of a 30’ x 75’ NLT building with no
immediate rescues required, took the following actions: (5.3.2, 5.4.1, 5.4.3)
1. The 3rd arriving engine took a hydrant at the rear of the building on another block
2. The 4th arriving engine sealed off one end of the street with the collapsed building
3. The 1st engine on the second alarm sealed off another end of the street with the collapsed
building
4. The 1st arriving ladder, a tower ladder unit, was placed in front of the collapsed structure—
outside of the collapse danger zone
5. The 2nd arriving ladder, a tower ladder, took a position also in the front of the collapsed
building, outside of the collapse danger zone
6. The 3rd arriving ladder, an aerial ladder, placed its apparatus at a secondary staging area
away from the front of the building
How many actions were correct SOP according to the FDNY Collapse procedures?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

5. B (1, 3, 4 ,6)

47

6. A Battalion Chief operating at a collapse that is a large scale incident would be incorrect to
think he should? (6.1, 6.2, 8.8.2)
A. Insure the ICP is located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, but outside the
operations site and collapse zone
B. Insure the ICP is visible from the collapsed structure
C. Establish a Command Channel
D. Have a Company Officer assigned as the Staging Area Manager and remain as such
throughout the incident
E. Have a Company Officer assigned as the Street Coordination Manager and remain as such
throughout the incident

6. D

6.2 Staging Area
The initial IC establishes a staging area. Reevaluate the location and assign a company
officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by a Battalion Chief. Transmit a
preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the staging area. The Dispatcher
can assist in identifying a staging area

48

7. The highest priority for first alarm engines is to extinguish active fire in the affected
collapsed building and to also / next (in priority order)? (7.1.1)
A. Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse
B. Protect the exposures from possible extension
C. Extinguish active fire in surrounding debris
D. Stretch a 3 ½” line to supply the first arriving tower ladder

7. C

7.1 Engine Company Responsibilities
7.1.1 In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to:
 Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.
 Protect exposures.
 Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
 At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary
2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.
In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first
arriving tower ladder.
 At a suspected terrorist event, 2½” hoselines should be located between two
apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from
secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders.
Note: If flooding occurs, shutting off the water mains and obtaining dewatering
pumps will aid victims trapped in the lower areas.

49

8. If there is no active fire at the scene of a collapse, precautionary lines of sufficient number
and length to cover the entire operation shall be stretched. Depending on the type of building
encountered, the size of precautionary hose lines stretched (1 ¾” or 2 ½”) should be compatible
with the type of occupancy encountered. (7.1.1)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

8. D

At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary
2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation.
In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first
arriving tower ladder.

50

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.
9. In this situation, the first arriving engine officer would be incorrect to believe that he?
(7.2.1)
A. May consider taking a position in the block to use the apparatus master stream to control
the fire
B. May consider taking a position in the block to use the apparatus master stream to protect
the exposures
C. Should stretch a 2 ½” line of sufficient length to cover the entire site
D. Must stretch a 3 ½” line to supply a tower ladder

9. D

7.3 Second Arriving Engine
7.3.1 Officer
 Obtain briefing from the IC and/or the first arriving engine company officer.
 Supervise apparatus placement.
 Ensure a 3½” supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder.

51

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

10. The ______ arriving engine should ensure that a 3 ½” supply line is stretched to the first
tower ladder? (7.3.1)
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

10. B

7.3 Second Arriving Engine
7.3.1 Officer
 Obtain briefing from the IC and/or the first arriving engine company officer.
 Supervise apparatus placement.
 Ensure a 3½” supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder.

52

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

11. The first arriving ladder company would be incorrect to consider which tactic? (7.5)
A. Splitting into teams
B. Performing scene survey and hazard assessment
C. Removing surface victims, including those who are lightly buried
D. Visually searching accessible voids; Calling and listening for victims
E. Cutting, lifting or removing a load bearing members only if a viable victim is trapped

11. E

o Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load
bearing members. Call and listen.

53

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

12. The second arriving ladder officer should know that all of the following are correct
considerations for his unit except? (7.6.2)
A. This Officer should ensure the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews
B. Their major priority is to assist with life safety by augmenting search and rescue efforts
C. They should shut down accessible gas, electric and water services
D. Curb valves may be shut for both gas and water if the main building shut off is inaccessible

12. B

7.6.2 Second Arriving Ladder Company Members: Utilities
 Assist with life safety if necessary. Augment search and rescue efforts.
 The major priority is controlling the gas, electric and water services.
 Shut down accessible services.
o Gas: Main building shut-off or curb valve.
o Electric: Main disconnect.
o Water: Main building shut-off or curb valve.

54

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

13. Lookouts posted around the perimeter of the collapse site and equipped with handheld air
horns should know that they should sound ______ in order to cease operations and have all
quiet? (9.2.2)
A. 3 short blasts C. One long blast and one short blast
B. One long blast D. Two short blasts and one long blast

13. B

1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations

55

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

14. A Battalion Chief should know which point(s) below to be accurate considerations at this
event? (9.4, 10.1)
A. Any victim removal activity that requires tunneling, trenching, shoring, or cutting of
structural members should be performed Rescue Companies
B. The IC may assign a Squad or Collapse Rescue Unit to perform victim removal activity
that requires tunneling, trenching, shoring, or cutting of structural members at large scale
incidents with multiple buried victims
C. A SOC Support Ladder Companies can be used as a second FAST Unit, working
underneath the search and rescue branch
D. Con Ed Vacuum Trucks may only be used by trained members of the Special Operations
Command, with or without the Con Ed operators
E. Fire Marshal may be used to interview occupants and witnesses to help determine the
occupancy of the building and location of potential victims

14. A, C, E

Collapse Rescue Units
Units are stocked with additional supplies, tools and shoring.
 They augment the tools and supplies carried by the Rescue Companies.
 They carry heavy timbers, which no other unit carries.
 They shall be given priority access to the operational area.
 One Collapse Rescue Unit is located in each borough and responds as part of a
Collapse Rescue Task Force.



D. They
may only be used by trained members of Special Operations Command, in conjunction
with the Con Ed operators and at the direction of the Incident Commander.

56

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

15. Units arriving during the early stages and operating at this alarm would be correct to
consider all of the following points concerning collapse rescue operations except? (11.2,
11.3, 11.4, Fig 4)
A. Reconnaissance, accounting for and removing surface victims, and searching voids may be
performed simultaneously, if sufficient personnel are present
B. An officer should be immediately designated as the Victim Accounting Manager to keep
track of all persons removed from the debris — obtaining the person’s name and where they
were located when the collapse occurred
C. No life should be risked to recover a body
D. Company officers may be sent to view camera recordings and view incident tape to
determine if any passerby was caught in the collapse
E. An “Unsupported Lean-To” is extremely dangerous and must be secured early

15. D

Send Fire Marshals or a
Battalion to each of these camera recording locations to view the incident tape to help
determine if a passerby was caught in the collapse on the sidewalk or in the street in front
of the collapse site.

57

Answer questions 9 - 16 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a major collapse of a 5-story Old Law Tenement
where there is also a fire condition in the debris pile. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar
attached OLT buildings that are unaffected at this time.

16. Regarding shoring operations at this incident, it would be accurate to state that?
(11.5.2, 11.5.3)
A. Under no circumstances should first arriving units perform shoring
B. No unit other than a Rescue, Squad, or SOC Support Ladder companies should perform
any cutting of load bearing members
C. Once a rescue company is on scene, the installation of shoring should generally be left to
Rescue Companies, supported by Squad and SOC Support Ladder companies
D. Once shoring is installed by the FDNY, it should never be removed by the FDNY

16. C

11.5.2 First arriving units may be forced to perform some emergency shoring using
available materials on hand in order to safely reach trapped victims. Units other
than Rescue or Squad Companies should not perform any cutting of load bearing
elements, since first alarm units are not trained or equipped to properly shore
around such loads. Once a Rescue Company is on-scene, the installation of
additional shoring should generally be left to these units, supported by Squad
Companies and SOC Support Ladder Companies. Rescue Companies carry a
variety of shoring equipment and devices, each with its own limitations.
Knowledge of these limitations is essential for the safety of all persons in the area.
11.5.3 Shoring Guidelines: At times, the FDNY is asked by the Department of Buildings,
or Housing Preservation and Development to install shoring in structures that
have suffered structural damage. As a guideline, the FDNY will only install
shoring in the following instances:
 Whenever human life is in danger, to provide a safe area around
victims/rescuers.
 When shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy.
 Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the
shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is
a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.
 A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial
risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to
substantially improve the overall outcome.
 If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be
shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of
occupants.
 Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise
stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.

58

17. A 10-60 Code 2 should be transmitted in which of the following situation(s)?
(Comm 8 — 10-60 signal)
A. The derailment of a subway car
B. A 2 ½ story PD collapse where enhanced technical rescue resources will be required
C. A major collapse of a 6 story Old Law Tenement
D. Multiple pipe bomb explosions occur in the street at a parade with hundreds of civilians
injured, but no structural damage to buildings
E. A passenger airplane with 275 victims crashes onto the Belt Parkway Brooklyn
F. A passenger airplane with 325 victims crash lands on the tarmac at JFK airport

17. C, E

10-60 Code 2 Major Emergency Response
Enhanced Technical Rescue Resources Required – Large Scale
Major Emergency Incident with the potential for multiple casualties, with the need
for Enhanced Technical Rescue Resources. Incident is of a larger scale requiring
an enhanced 2nd Alarm assignment, e.g. collapse of a 6 story multiple dwelling, an
explosion with severe collateral structural damage, airplane crash (except Airport
Crash Boxes 37 LaGuardia and 269 JFK).

59

18. A Ladder Company responding to a major collapse is told that they are being special called
above the 10-60 signal as part of an additional “Victim Removal Group” In this situation, this
should indicate to the Ladder company that their primary duty will be the removal of victims?
(Comm 8 — 10-60 signal)
A. In tunneling and trenching operations
B. Using complicated disentanglement / extrication procedures
C. Via skeds and stokes
D. By assisting with shoring and cutting of load-bearing members

18. C

Note: Requests from the IC for additional resources on Signal 10-60, including
Codes 1 and 2, may come in the form of special calls, e.g.:
 Individual Resources
 Victim Removal Group:
Defined as 3 Engines, 2 Ladders and 1 Battalion Chief whose primary duty is
the removal of victims via skeds, stokes, etc. The IC may choose to utilize
these companies as individual resources

60

19. A Staging Area will be established on the 10-60 signal in which situations?
(Comm 8 — 10-60 signal)
1. If any resources are requested above a 10-60 signal
2. On all 10-60 Code 1’s and Code 2’s
3. Only on a 10-60 Code 2
A. Only # 2 B. Only #3 C. 1, 2

19. C

Note: Requests from the IC for additional resources above a 10-60 will require
the establishment of a Staging Area. An additional Battalion Chief will be
assigned and designated as the Staging Area Manager.

61

20. Units are just arriving at an alarm where they find heavy fire in a 3-story row frame. While
initiating operations, there is a serious collapse, trapping two civilians. With regard to this firerelated
collapse, it would be incorrect to state that? (11.4.5)
A. Fire will try to fill any void spaces
B. The survival of victims depends on reaching them first, preferably with a hoseline
C. The trapped civilians should be provided with the nearest Fast-Pak or a spare SCBA
D. A search rope should be attached to any persons trapped to lead other rescuers directly to
them

20. C

11.4.5 In fire related collapses, fire will be trying to fill these same void spaces.
The survival of the victims depends on reaching them first, preferably with a
hoseline. Trapped victims should be provided a spare SCBA or the FAST-PAK.
Attach a search rope to the person to lead other rescuers directly to him.

62

21. Regarding the shoring of buildings by the FDNY, it would be correct to state that?
(11.5.3)
A. Vacant buildings should never be shored
B. Unoccupied buildings should not be shored when there is any risk at all to members
installing the shoring
C. Never install shoring in a building that will be demolished
D. Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise stabilized or the
situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area

21. D

11.5.3 Shoring Guidelines: At times, the FDNY is asked by the Department of Buildings,
or Housing Preservation and Development to install shoring in structures that
have suffered structural damage. As a guideline, the FDNY will only install
shoring in the following instances:
 Whenever human life is in danger, to provide a safe area around
victims/rescuers.
 When shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy.
 Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the
shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is
a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.
 A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial
risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to
substantially improve the overall outcome.
 If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be
shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of
occupants.
 Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise
stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.

63

22. Units operating at the scene of a major collapse where selected debris removal is about to
commence would be correct to think that? (11.6.1, 11.6.4, 11.8.2, 11.8.3)
A. Selected Debris Removal is a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are located
B. Only collapse trained members of SOC units are to perform tunneling or trenching
involving the cutting of potentially load bearing structural members
C. 20 minutes is the recommended maximum work time for members
D. If a victim has been pinned for more than 30 minutes or appears to have suffered serious
injuries, a Rescue Paramedic must be given access to the patient as soon as there is access to
treat for crush syndrome or other life-threats
E. Rescue paramedics only need an arm, leg or even a neck exposed on a victim to permit
establishment of an IV. The IV must be established into the patient immediately after releasing
any pressure

22. B

64

23. A potentially life-threatening condition that develops in buried collapse victims whose
circulation to the limbs becomes restricted and limits blood flow to the limb is known as?
(11.8.1)
A. Muscle Mass Compression
B. Crush Syndrome
C. Compromised Circulation Syndrome
D. Hypolvelmic Shock Syndrome

23. B

65

24. During collapse operations, it would be incorrect to state that? (11.12.1, 11.13.2,
11.13.2, 12.1)
A. General debris removal should be completed under the direction of the FDNY, even though
heavy equipment may be required
B. Heavy demolition equipment is forbidden during the Selected Debris Removal stage
C. Once the operations come within the reach of a victim, all work should proceed with only
hand powered tools, unless the object and victim are visibly clear and no injury is likely
D. The Fire Department must always remain at the collapse site until all debris removal is
complete

24. D

12.1 The Fire Department will remain at the collapse site until debris removal phase is
complete or until the IC is reasonably certain all victims have been removed.

66

25. You are the officer of Ladder Company 99 that is performing searches at a major collapse
and you are using the Search Assessment Marking System. Regarding this marking system, it
would be correct to state that? (1.5, 1.6, 2.1, 2.2)
A. These markings should be 18” x 18”, so when completed, they form the letter “X”
B. A square box should be drawn around the “X” marking
C. Lime yellow colored reflective spray paint shall be used and units are to insure they carry
at least one can of such spray paint on their apparatus
D. If after searching an area a new void is discovered in the same area, the old marking should
be crossed out and a new marking is made

25. D

1.5 These markings are dynamic; they should be updated as new voids become accessible.
New markings should be made and old markings crossed out.

67

26. While conducting searches in various voids, Ladder 99 comes upon the symbol below at a
specific location with the words “Ladder 98” in the left quadrant of the X.
X
In this situation, they should recognize that Ladder 98? (Add 2, 4.2)
A. Has entered and is still inside searching the selected void
B. Has remaining personnel conducting secondary searches
C. Is conducting a secondary search inside the void
D. Has searched and exited from that area

26. D

The second, crossing slash shall be drawn when all
personnel exit from that structure or area.

68

27. While conducting searches in various voids Ladder 98” should place the designation
“_____” in the bottom quadrant of the X to indicate that there are no victims — alive or dead,
inside the area searched? (Add 2—4.6)
A. “Negative” C. “0”
B. “Zero” D. “None”

27. C

69

28. Ladder 99 should be aware that the time and date that a company or team has left a
structure or area should be placed in the ______ of the “X”? (Add 2, 4.4)
A. Top Quadrant C. Bottom Quadrant
B. Right Quadrant D. Left Quadrant

28. A

Top Quadrant: The time and date that the company/team
personnel left the structure/area.

70

29. Ladder 99 should be aware that any personnel hazards to members should be placed in the
_____ of the “X”? (Add 2, 4.5)
A. Top Quadrant C. Bottom Quadrant
B. Right Quadrant D. Left Quadrant

29. B

Right Quadrant: Personal hazards to units/teams.
(e.g., utilities, open shafts, dangerous areas, rats)

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30. If an area has been searched and marked and new information becomes available regarding
the searched area, previous markings should be crossed out and a new marking placed next to it,
with the most recent information. (Add 2 4.6 Note)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

30. A

NOTE: It is important that markings are made specific to each area of entry or separate
part of the building. If an area is searched and no victims are found, it must still
be noted with an "X" to avoid duplications of searches. It is also important that
situation updates be noted as they are available, to reduce needless duplication of
search efforts. Previous markings should be crossed out and a new marking
placed next to it, with the most recent information. Results of all searches shall be
relayed to the Command Post or Officer in Charge of that sector/area when the
search is completed.

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Answer question 29 - 31 based upon the following:
Units coming upon a large “V” approximately 2” high as indicated below, and recognize
that this indicates a known or potential victim.
V

31. Once the location of the victim has been confirmed, the unit should place? (Add 2 5.3)
A. A circle around the “V” C. A horizontal line through the “V”
B. The letter “C” inside the “V” D. A vertical line through the “V

31. A

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32. Once the victim has been confirmed deceased, the unit should place? (Add 2 5.4)
A. A diagonal slash through the “V” C. A horizontal line through the “V”
B. The letter “D” inside the “V” D. A vertical line through the “V”

32. C

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33. Once the victim(s) that are confirmed deceased are removed from the specific location with
the marking, the unit should place? (Add 2 5.5)
A. A diagonal slash through the “V” C. A horizontal line through the “V”
B. The letter “R” inside the “V” D. A vertical line through the “V”

33. D

Decks in Firetech Class (61):