WEEK #11 WEEK OF 12/02/13 PART I – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART II – TB – CONFINED SPACE OPERATIONS PART III – AUC's #266, 268, 269 & 271 PART IV – HAZ MAT #1, 2, 3 & 4 PART V – EVOLUTIONS #25, 26 & 27 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #11 WEEK OF 12/02/13 PART I – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART II – TB – CONFINED SPACE OPERATIONS PART III – AUC's #266, 268, 269 & 271 PART IV – HAZ MAT #1, 2, 3 & 4 PART V – EVOLUTIONS #25, 26 & 27 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #11 WEEK OF 12/02/13 PART I – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART II – TB – CONFINED SPACE OPERATIONS PART III – AUC's #266, 268, 269 & 271 PART IV – HAZ MAT #1, 2, 3 & 4 PART V – EVOLUTIONS #25, 26 & 27 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Deck (65):
1

1. Under river tubes are cylindrical in shape and are constructed of brick, concrete, or tubular
cast iron. Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete. Choose the incorrect point about under
river tubes. (2.2.1, Figure 1, 2.2.2)
(A) Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is only large enough to contain one
track.
(B) When evacuating passengers, walk them between the running rails. Do not walk
passengers outside the rails due to the 3rd rail alternating sides as it goes through the tube.
(C) Most tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.
(D) There is very little space between the train and the tube. In the event of a collision or an
explosion, it may be impossible to obtain access to the side of the train from the exterior.

1. B

Typical under river NYCT subway tube. Note the following features: Cylindrical tube shape,
drainage trough between running rails, benchwall, dry chemical extinguisher, blue light phone
and standpipe. Also note that it would be unsafe to walk between the running rails due to the
drainage trough. Personnel and evacuating passengers should walk in the area outside the
rails, opposite to the third rail; be aware that the 3rd rail alternates sides as it goes through the tube

2

2. Which point about emergency exits and crossovers associated with under river tubes is
incorrect? (2.4, 2.5.1, Photo p. 5, 2.5.2, 2.6.1, Figure 6A, 2.6.2)
(A) The tunnel to tube transition area is the point where the underground tunnel connects to the
under river tube. In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover
to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river.
(B) Emergency exits may be standard (flush with the sidewalk), or upright (located in the side
of a structure). Both types of exits are opened with a subway emergency tool, the triangle key.
(C) Exit stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The metal stairs are often
steeper, with open treads.
(D) Crossovers (cross passageways), are connections between adjacent tunnels. They are
located only in underground areas and at the ends of under river tubes. Crossovers associated
with emergency exits are usually one or more levels above the tracks.

2. D

Figure 6A shows a crossover at track level, the most common configuration.

3

3. Standpipes and other fire protection systems and equipment are found in under river tubes.
Which of the following is incorrect about these systems? (2.7.1, 2.7.2)
(A) All under river standpipes in the NYC Transit System are wet. Standpipes are city-main
fed. There are no pumps to augment pressure, but Siameses are usually located at the emergency
exits closest to the river.
(B) 2 ½” outlets are located every 200 feet throughout under river tubes. Section valves are
located approximately 600 feet apart.
(C) Sound powered phone jacks are located at all under river standpipe outlets in all tubes.
(D) 20 pound dry chemical extinguishers are located at power removal boxes, approximately
every 600 feet.
(E) Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) are located at both ends of each under river tube at
the base of the emergency exits.

3. C

• Sound-powered phone jacks are located at standpipe outlets (exception:
Joralemon Tube).

4

4. Communications in incidents involving under river tubes can be extremely challenging.
Which of the following would not be a proper way to communicate at these incidents?
(2.9.1, 2.9.2, 2.9.6)
(A) If enough personnel are on scene and conditions warrant, the HT relay should be
established. The HT relay is the basic means of communication in the subway system.
(B) For maximum repeater coverage, the IC should ensure that a member operating on the
repeater channel is at street level in a position at the closest station on both sides of the river.
(C) Repeater coverage is available in all emergency exit stairways. If repeater use is
unsatisfactory in the emergency exit stairwell, a HT relay on Channel 14 should be used.
(D) Notify NYC Transit when Post Radios are in use within the subway system. Post radios
may be useful to communicate above ground from one side of the river to the other.

4. C

2.9.2 The Subway Repeater System
The NYCT is in the process of installing a radio repeater system for all below
grade subway stations and tunnels. Refer to AUC 207, Addendum 16A: Interim
Procedures for the NYCT Repeater System for more information. The following
points pertain specifically to under river tunnels:
The breaks between repeater zones, as described in Addendum 16, Sec 3.3, often
occur inside under river tubes. At present, members inside the tube on opposite
sides of the break will not be able to communicate with each other. For maximum
repeater coverage, the IC should ensure that a member operating on the repeater
channel is at street level in a position at the closest station on both sides of the
river. Members operating at street level on opposite sides of the tunnel should
relay important messages across the river.
At present, there are no repeater antennas at most emergency exits, and no repeater
coverage inside most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on the tactical
channel shall be used.

5

5. Additional methods of communication include Blue Light Phones, TA Portable Radios, and
Sound Powered Phones. Choose the correct point about these methods of communication.
(2.9.5, 2.9.7)
(A) TA portable radios are carried by conductors, train operators, and TA supervisors. These
radios may not work above ground.
(B) Members using Sound Powered Phones in the tubes should use handsets for more effective
communication.
(C) A blue light phone can be used to call outside the system, and can receive calls from
outside the system.
(D) To call a blue light telephone from outside the system, dial the 2 digit access code and the
four digit extension number.

5. A

• A blue light phone cannot be used to call outside the system, but can receive calls
from outside the system. To call a blue light telephone from outside of the
system, dial 1 + the area code (usually 718) + the three digit exchange + the four
digit extension number.

6

6. The acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size up. Which one of the
following is not correctly indicated concerning this acronym? (3.2)
(A) L stands for Location of the Incident and Life Hazard
(B) I stands for Incident Information
(C) V indicates Ventilation
(D) E stands for EMS and need for first aid.
(E) S stands for Safety.

6. D

E Evacuation

7

7. Ladder 100 is assigned to an emergency exit at a reported explosion in an under river tube.
Which action taken by Ladder 100 is incorrect? (3.3, 4.3)
(A) Ladder 100 consulted the Emergency Exit Guidebook and Operational Guide to verify that
they were operating at the correct emergency exit.
(B) Upon opening the exit door, Ladder 100 checked for the presence of smoke, haze, odors,
unusual sounds, and people in the stairwell.
(C) Ladder 100 notified the dispatcher which emergency exit they opened, and requested power
off on Track # 1 due to passengers self evacuating on Track # 1.
(D) Ladder 100 descended the stairwell and searched the tracks for approximately ½ mile to
ensure any self evacuating passengers were not missed in the initial stages of the operation.

7. D

7. Ladder 100 is assigned to an emergency exit at a reported explosion in an under river tube.
Which action taken by Ladder 100 is incorrect? (3.3, 4.3)
(A) Ladder 100 consulted the Emergency Exit Guidebook and Operational Guide to verify that
they were operating at the correct emergency exit.
(B) Upon opening the exit door, Ladder 100 checked for the presence of smoke, haze, odors,
unusual sounds, and people in the stairwell.
(C) Ladder 100 notified the dispatcher which emergency exit they opened, and requested power
off on Track # 1 due to passengers self evacuating on Track # 1.
(D) Ladder 100 descended the stairwell and searched the tracks for approximately ½ mile to
ensure any self evacuating passengers were not missed in the initial stages of the operation.

4.3 Coordinate and Control Actions of Units
• Members should assist evacuating civilians, but they should not be committed too
far into a dangerous area until a proper hazard assessment is completed.

8

8. The First Arriving Battalion Chief has many duties at an Under River Rail emergency.
Which one of the following is a correct action to take? (BATTALION CHIEF QUESTION)
(4.2, 4.4, 4.5)
(A) Special call a Battalion Chief, at least one engine and one SOC Support Ladder to stage at
the stations and the emergency exits nearest to the under river tube.
(B) SOC resources should be used only for monitoring, structural assessment, and technical
rescue. If the use of the SOC Rebreather System is being considered, request it as soon as
possible.
(C) In most cases, the Initial Command Post should be established at the emergency exit or
station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.
(D) If passengers and/or firefighters are in the adjacent tube, request power removal. The
power must remain off in the adjacent tube until all Fire Department operations have been
completed.

8. B

• Special call a Battalion Chief, at least one engine and one ladder, and a unit with
monitoring capability to stage at the stations and the emergency exits nearest to the
under river tube.

4.4 Establish Command Post
The best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more
well-defined. The Command Post location should provide:
• Communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube.
• Protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise (upwind and a safe
distance from the ventilation system exhaust fans).
• Sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.
• In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the
tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.

• A decision will need to be made regarding the power status of the adjacent tube, which
may be accessible via the crossover at the emergency exit. If passengers and/or
firefighters are in the adjacent tube, request power removal. After the adjacent tube is
searched and secured, the IC may request a “Rescue Train” be routed through this
tube, in which case the power would have to be restored.

9

9. Ladder 100 is operating at a fire in an under river tube. The ventilation fans on the
Brooklyn side of the tube are being operated in supply mode. The ventilation fans on the
Manhattan side are being operated in the exhaust mode. There is an occupied subway car in the
tube, approximately 2500 feet from Brooklyn, and 1300 feet from Manhattan. Which would be a
correct thought for Ladder 100 to consider concerning evacuation of the passengers of this car?
(4.6)
(A) Evacuate the passengers towards Brooklyn, after ensuring power removal in the affected
tube.
(B) Evacuate passengers towards Manhattan, after ensuring power removal in the affected tube.
(C) Evacuate the passengers towards Brooklyn, after ensuring power removal in the entire
system.
(D) Evacuate passengers towards Manhattan, after ensuring power removal in the entire
system.

9. A

10

10. Depending on the results of the size-up and hazard assessment, the IC may authorize
limited entry into the tube for reconnaissance (recon). Which unit(s) would be a logical choice
for recon? (6.1.1)
(A) A SOC Support Ladder due to their metering capability
(B) A Squad company
(C) A Rescue Company
(D) Haz Mat Company 1

10. B, C

6.1.1 A Rescue or Squad Company would be a logical choice as a recon unit for the
following reasons:
• Metering capability
• 1 hour SCBA cylinders
• Knowledge of structural issues

11

11. A massive search and rescue operation in an under river tube will present significant
logistical requirements, which will take time to assemble and put into position. Choose the
incorrect point about logistics in an under river tube. (BATTALION CHIEF QUESTION)
(6.3, 6.3.1, 6.3.3, 6.3.6)
(A) If supplies and equipment are needed at track level, consider loading them onto a rescue
train at the nearest station for efficient transport to point of operations.
(B) 45 minute and 1 hour SCBA cylinders should be provided to both sides of the incident.
The Mask Service Unit of a High Rise Unit can be special called if necessary.
(C) There may be a need for RAC supplies at track level. These supplies will have to be
transported to track level by RAC personnel only, due to operational units being occupied with
other duties.
(D) Lighting methods should cause as little noise and heat buildup as possible. Hand lights,
glow sticks and portable lighting can be used to provide lighting.

11. C

6.3.6 RAC
There may be a need for RAC supplies at track level. These supplies will have to be
transported to track level by full duty personnel.

12

12. Triage duties within under river tubes will probably be performed by Rescue Paramedics
and/or CFR trained firefighters. The guiding principle should be to remove the largest number of
victims as quickly as possible. Choose the correct order to remove victims. (7.1)
1. Non-Ambulatory Victims
- Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
- Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
2. Ambulatory Victims
3. Black Tag (deceased victims)
4. Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication
- Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
- Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3

12. B

13

13. When ambulatory victims have reached the area at the base of the emergency exit stairs,
there are several possible removal options. Which of the following is incorrect concerning
removal? (7.2.2)
(A) Passengers may be directed to walk along the track to the nearest station. This decision
will be based on travel distance, patient condition, and the status of 3rd rail power.
(B) FD members attempting to descend an Emergency Exit Stairway must first allow civilians
to evacuate.
(C) When two emergency exits are present, designate an Evacuation Stairway and an Attack
Stairway.
(D) A Rescue Train is always the quickest option. The more likely scenario is using the Rescue
Train on the same track as the incident.

13. D

C. Rescue Train
A Rescue Train would take some time to put in operation. It would be
useful to remove victims who are non-ambulatory, or too weak to evacuate
on foot. CFR units and/or EMS personnel should initiate treatment onboard
the rescue train, conditions permitting. Consider loading medical
equipment onto rescue train at the nearest station. There are two possible
scenarios for use of rescue trains:
• A rescue train may be used on the track in the adjacent tube, accessed
via the emergency exit crossover. Power would remain off on the track
where the incident took place. Passengers would have to walk or be
carried from the incident scene to crossover at the emergency exit.
• Rescue train on same track as incident. Although unlikely, this may be
possible if passengers are not on the tracks and they can be sheltered in
place on the affected train, allowing 3rd rail power to remain on.
Passengers would only have to be moved a short distance along the
benchwall from train to train.
Note: Potential rescue trains should be swept for secondary devices by law
enforcement personnel prior to deployment.

14

14. Removing non-ambulatory victims from the tube will be labor intensive and will require
increased personnel and logistical support. Which choice below is incorrect concerning the
removal of non-ambulatory victims? (7.2.2 Note, 7.3)
(A) Victim removal teams would spread out from victim location to emergency exit. Victims
would be passed from team to team in a relay fashion.
(B) SKED stretchers have proven to be the most efficient way to move non-ambulatory
victims.
(C) Rail carts, which ride on the tracks, are the primary method for moving patients and
equipment.
(D) Rescue trains may also be used. Potential rescue trains should be swept for secondary
devices by law enforcement personnel prior to deployment.

14. B

15

15. When FD units operate at fires in an under river rail incident, they will confirm power
removal, but operate as if power is on. Which of the following guidelines is incorrect about
engine operations? (8.1.3)
(A) It is most likely that handlines will be stretched through an emergency exit.
(B) Units shall use the FT-2 nozzle.
(C) When stretching a hoseline through a train, it may be necessary to chock numerous car
doors to reach the fire. Many chocks would be required.
(D) Several units may need to work together to stretch and operate a handline.
(E) Consider the use of dry chemical extinguishers, which are located at the blue lights in the
tube.

15. A

• It is most likely that handlines will be operated from standpipe outlets. If the
incident is very close to an emergency exit, it may be feasible to stretch a
handline via the exit. However, we cannot operate from an emergency exit in a
manner that hinders passenger evacuation.

16

16. Ladder companies have many duties at an under river rail incident. Which one of the
following is not a correct action for a ladder company to take? (8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.4, 8.2.5)
(A) Assist victims who are self-evacuating and verify the location and nature of the incident.
(B) Ensure a HT relay is set up and later arriving units augment it as necessary.
(C) Enter hazardous locations immediately after gaining access and obtaining approval of the
Ladder Officer.
(D) Include bolt cutters in the tools carried, to assist in gaining access to Emergency
Evacuation Devices.

16. C

17

17. Electrical Power in Under River Tubes presents dangers to members operating. Which
point about the electrical power is incorrect? (9.1.1)
(A) Third rails in the affected tube and adjacent tubes may be live.
(B) 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level. These lines are deactivated
by routine requests for power removal.
(C) An explosion or derailment may cause the high voltage lines to come in contact with the
metal skin of the car.
(D) Electrical fires may generate thick, irritating smoke.

17. B

18

18. Which of the following safety guidelines is incorrectly stated? (9.1.2)
(A) If a terrorist event is suspected, the possibility of secondary devices must be considered.
(B) Members must be aware that trains may be traveling in any direction at any time. An
approaching train may be indicated by increased noise level, powerful air movement, a distant
light reflecting on the rails, or vibration in the tracks.
(C) Members must have SCBA facepieces equipped with APR adaptors and canisters due to
the potential for large amounts of airborne dust.
(D) A water flow will only be caused by a ruptured standpipe.

18. D

9.1.8 Structural Failure
• A severe explosion or a high speed derailment may cause structural damage to
the tube itself. Catastrophic tube failure could result in extensive flooding.

19

19. It is very important for members to know where they are in an under river tube. Which of
the following cannot be used to help identify the location of the incident? (2.10,
Figure 7, Ops Guide 6B Add. 1, Figure 13)
(A) The numbers associated with ventilation fans located in the under river tubes.
(B) Standpipe outlet numbers
(C) Column numbers on columns or walls
(D) Signal numbers attached to signal lights

19. A

20

20. Choose the incorrect point about Under River Operational Guides. (2.11, Figure 13)
(A) Two sided Operational Guides have been developed to provide information regarding
each individual under river tube.
(B) Side “A” contains maps, pictures, and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the
associated emergency exits and stations.
(C) Side “B” contains a diagram of the tube and information about emergency exits, distances
and crossovers.
(D) You will not find information about the land side of the tube. Only information that
pertains to under river tube areas is included.

20. D

Figure 12
Side “A” of the Operational Guide for the Clark Street Tubes. The IC can use this side of the guide to
determine where to assign resources. Individual units can use it to understand where they need to go to
carry out their assignments.

Figure 13
Side “B” of the Operational Guide for the Clark Street Tubes. The lengths of the under river sections of the tubes are
shown, along with the distances from the closest stations to the emergency exits at the start of the tubes. Column
numbers provide a means to estimate the distance from an incident to an exit or a station. Standpipe outlets
throughout most of the tubes are numbered, as indicated by the numbers in the red circles. In every tube, except the
Joralemon Tubes, sound powered phone jacks are located at the standpipe outlets. The information in the lower
corners pertains to the land-side of the tube directly above. For example, the information bullet in the lower left
corner of this guide pertains to the emergency exit and crossover on the Manhattan side.

21

PART II – TB – CONFINED SPACE OPERATIONS:
1. If a confined space poses a danger to anyone that enters it, it is designated a Permit
Required Confined Space (permit space). Which point about Permit spaces is incorrect?
(1.2.2)
(A) It contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
(B) It contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
(C) It is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering
walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross section.
(D) It contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard.
(E) A non-permit space will not be as deadly as a permit space, and therefore does not require a
sign to warn of the dangers.

1. E

1.2 What is a Permit Required Confined Space?
1.2.1 If a confined space poses a danger to anyone that enters it, it is designated a
Permit Required Confined Space (permit space). A Permit Space is any
confined space that has one or more of the following potential problems:
• Contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
• Contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
• Is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly
tapering walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross
section.
• Contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard.
A permit space is designated by the owner of the space, who issues the permit. They may
be recognized by the warning sign which OSHA requires to be posted at the entry to the
space reading: Danger: Permit Required Confined Space-Do Not Enter or similar wording.

22

2. A confined space is defined as any area that is not designed for continuous human
occupancy; and is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform work; and
has limited means for entry and escape. Which one of the following is not a confined space?
(1.1.2, TB SCBA Sec. 2.2.1)
(A) Manholes
(B) Basements
(C) Sub-cellars
(D) Chimneys
(E) Storage Buildings with windows

2. E

23

3. Atmospheric hazards can be Asphyxiants, Toxic or Explosive. Choose the correct action to
take to deal successfully with Atmospheric hazards. (2.1.1)
(A) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter carried
by Rescue Companies and Haz Mat.
(B) Due to the potential for life threatening atmosphere, all members entering any confined
space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, throughout the entire operation.
(C) The only accurate way to test for the presence of all possibly toxic materials in the field is
through the use of DEP’s Mobile Lab or Haz Mat Company 1 meters.
(D) Materials will be either flammable or toxic, but will not be both flammable and toxic.

3. A

2.1 Atmospheric Hazard
Due to the potential for life threatening atmosphere, all members entering any
confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, until the
atmosphere is verified safe !
2.1.1 Atmospheres that are simply asphyxiants (do not contain enough oxygen to
support life) account for as many as 50% of all confined space deaths. Oxygen
deficiency can be brought on by a number of factors in a closed space. Oxygen
can be displaced by another gas, such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen, both are inert
gases. Oxygen can be used up in a space by the action of biological decay, even
steel rusting in a ship’s tanks can use up the oxygen. In most of these cases there
will be no hint to give indication of any lack of oxygen-no visible cloud or any
other outward sign. The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through
the use of an oxygen meter carried by Rescue Companies and Haz Mat. The
use of an SCBA will protect the wearer against an oxygen deficient atmosphere.

Remember that some materials have multiple hazards,
i.e., some flammable materials such as methanol are highly toxic, and highly toxic
materials like hydrogen cyanide can be flammable

24

4. Physical hazards also pose dangers to members at Confined Space operations. Which of
the following is not correct concerning Fire Department precautions taken to combat physical
hazards? (2.2.1, 2.2.2)
(A) Members entering these spaces should always use a Fire Department ladder due to the
likelihood that the ladders built into these spaces have deteriorated significantly.
(B) Members should be protected against sudden falling by tying off their life line around a
substantial object to allow them to be lowered into the space.
(C) Members should remain attached to their lifeline at all times while operating in the space.
(D) The lifeline may act as a guideline for retreat, guide reinforcements to the member’s
position, or be used to pull additional equipment in or out of the space.

4. A

2.2.2 Members entering these spaces should use a Fire Department ladder if conditions
permit.

25

5. As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know all of the
following except? (3.1.1)
(A) The hazards within the space, including signs of danger and symptoms of exposure to
materials in the space.
(B) How to escape the space in an emergency.
(C) How to communicate with the attendant outside.
(D) How to use the equipment needed to perform the rescue, especially the rescuers personal
protective equipment and patient handling equipment.
(E) All CFR-D procedures

5. E

3.1.1 As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know:
• The hazards within the space, including signs of danger and symptoms of
exposure to materials in the space.
• How to escape the space in an emergency.
• How to communicate with the attendant outside.
• How to use the equipment needed to perform the rescue, especially the
rescuers personal protective equipment and patient handling equipment.
• First Aid procedures and C.P.R.

26

6. Engine 333 arrives at the scene of a worker trapped in a chemical storage tank. Which
action taken by Engine 333 was incorrect? (4.1, Data Sheet #1)
(A) Engine 333 established a control perimeter and posted two radio equipped members with
necessary tools at each location which controls the flow inside space.
(B) Contacted the victim by entering the space and establishing physical contact with the
victim.
(C) Ensured the response of the nearest Rescue Company, Haz Mat Company 1, a Battalion
Chief, a SOC Support Ladder Company and CFR-D Engine, and an ALS ambulance.
(D) Began ventilation of the chemical tank, and explored the possibility of using positive
pressure venting.

6. B

27

7. Several precautions must be followed when members enter a confined space. Choose the
wrong action to take at a confined space incident. (4.2, 4.3, Data Sheet #1)
(A) As a general rule, each member operating with a 30 minute cylinder must be withdrawn to
fresh air in 15 minutes.
(B) Entry into confined spaces with 30 minute cylinders must be strictly limited where rescuers
can be seen and removed from the outside.
(C) Each member entering a confined space must be secured in a bowline on a bight and
slippery hitch to a life saving rope.
(D) Members may enter the confined space prior to a retrieval system being set up if Rescue
has not arrived on scene yet.

7. D

28

8. A very stable, easily created high point anchor is a tower ladder, or if there is no better
alternative, an aerial ladder. Choose the incorrect point about using these as high point anchors.
(4.4, TB Apparatus L-7)
(A) The tower ladder is preferred due to its greater weight supporting capacity, at least 800
pounds.
(B) The weight supporting capacity of the aerial ladder is 250 - 750 pounds, depending on
elevation.
(C) The Aerial or Tower shall never be used as a crane to lift a person.
(D) Once the boom or ladder is in position, all personnel shall be removed from the turntable
and the apparatus kept running in case rapid repositioning of the high point is needed.

8. D

29

9. Treatment of injured victims in dangerous confined spaces is a difficult task. Choose the
correct medical treatment at a confined space. (5.1, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4, 5.5, 5.6)
(A) If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and
placement of a mask facepiece is the highest priority. The rescuers shall never remove their
facepieces.
(B) Use of the resuscitator and performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere are never to be
performed in a confined space.
(C) Any victim that is unconscious for any reason should be treated as having spinal injuries.
Even under extreme conditions, patients should always be immobilized to prevent further
injuries.
(D) At the very least, one rescuer must have access to the patient’s head, and another rescuer
must be positioned at the patient’s feet to facilitate a smooth removal.

9. A

Performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere is generally to be discouraged.

At
times, under extreme conditions, it may be necessary to forego nearly all attempts at
immobilization in order to secure patient survival.

At the very
least, he/she should have access to the victim’s head to ensure an open airway and
provide ventilation if needed, as well as monitoring the patient’s status and signaling the
person doing the hauling if that status changes during transport.

30

10. Which of the following would be considered an unsafe atmospheric condition?
(Data Sheet # 1)
(A) Oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
(B) The flammable range not over 10% of LEL
(C) Carbon Monoxide Readings of 40 PPM
(D) Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide

10. C

31

PART III – AUC's #266, 268, 269 & 271:
AUC 266 – PCB INCIDENTS
1. The primary consideration at PCB incidents is the safety of civilians and fire personnel.
There are several different substances that are found in transformers that are used as coolants.
Which one is incorrect? (5.2.1)
(A) If “oil” is shown in the type of fluid/coolant column, the PCB level will be “0”, a number
or blank. If blank, assume equipment is PCB Contaminated (50-499 PPM PCB).
(B) Silicon is a non PCB type of dielectric fluid used as a replacement for PCB fluids in a
transformer.
(C) A transformer cooled by air will contain large amounts of PCB.
(D) Carcasses are “PCB transformers” taken out of service. If drained, they will always
contain residual dielectric fluid.

1. C

32

2. The NYC Fire Department considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a PCB
transformer. Choose an incorrect procedure to take at a PCB incident. (6.4.1, 6.4.2,
6.4.3, 6.4.7)
(A) Entrance into the contaminated or suspected area shall be kept to a minimum.
(B) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by Con Ed Personnel or FD members
when accompanied by Engineering Personnel.
(C) When extinguishing fire, fog or foam shall be used for flammable liquids. Water shall be
used for structural members.
(D) Use of self-contained masks is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition.
Breathing apparatus shall be used at all times until the Officer in Command confirms that the
area is free of toxic gases.

2. B

33

3. Decontamination procedures shall be implemented only when members or equipment are
exposed to levels of PCBs of _______ PPM or higher. (BC QUESTION) (8.1)
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) Any amount
(D) 500

3. B

34

4. M2 Metro North Railroad cars are the only cars operated by Metro North with transformers
containing PCBs. Which choice incorrectly describes these cars? (Add. 2 – 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
(A) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one “A” car and one “B” car.
(B) The “A” car is an even numbered car, and the “B” car is an odd numbered car.
(C) Each “A” and “B” car will have a pantograph and a PCB containing transformer which will
have attached to it the EPA approved label.
(D) The pantograph will be unfolded when receiving power from catenary (overhead) wires.

4. C

35

AUC 268 – NOTIFCATIONS TO THE IG AND BITS
5. At 1000 hours on a Wednesday morning, you are informed by your members that a store
manager attempted to give them a bribe to overlook building violations on BISP. You would be
correct to take which action? (2, 2.1)
(A) Notify the IG on-call supervisor through FDOC.
(B) Notify BITS via telephone.
(C) Notify the IG directly via telephone.
(D) Notify BITS through the FOC.

5. C

36

6. BC Smith is operating as the IC at a 2nd alarm fire in a taxpayer that has extended to the
cockloft. While BC Smith is directing units, his aide tells him that a civilian just alleged that
Firefighters were stealing from the taxpayer while operating. Which choice is incorrect
concerning this situation? (BC QUESTION) (2.1.10)
(A) BC Smith must immediately notify the IG. This notification must be made immediately,
even if the chief is busy with other matters.
(B) A cell phone shall be used to notify the IG.
(C) The IG shall be notified via the Fire Operations Center.
(D) The notification to the IG shall not be delegated to the aide.

6. A

37

7. Which one of the following would not require immediate notification to the Bureau of
Investigations and Trials? (3.1.1, 3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.1.4)
(A) Arrest of Department employees.
(B) Physical altercations among members.
(C) On duty confrontations between Department members and members of the Police
Department which may lead to possible disciplinary action.
(D) Preference of charges against a member.

7. D

38

8. Which of the following would require written notification to the Bureau of Investigations
and Trials? (2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.2, 4.1)
(A) Dangerous misuse of Department Vehicles.
(B) Serious confrontations with civilians.
(C) Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time.
(D) On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol.

8. C

39

AUC 269 – AIR SUPPORT PLAN
9. The Air Recon Chief shall usually be operating on the Primary Command Channel. When
will the Air Recon Chief switch to the TAC U channel? (BC QUESTION) (5.10)
(A) On the decision to assemble the Air Rescue Teams.
(B) Upon arrival at an incident and there is heavy radio traffic on the Primary Command
Channel.
(C) On the decision to “Airlift” the Air Rescue Teams.

9. C

5.10 On the decision of the IC to "Airlift" the Air Rescue Teams (see AUC 269 Addendum 1),
♦ The Air Recon Chief shall have the pilot switch his (the Air Recon Chief's) helicopter
radio to the interoperable TAC U channel.
♦ The HRRC and HRRT's shall switch their handi-talkies to the TAC U channel.
♦ NYPD Aviation and ESU will switch to TAC U and advise the ARC and IC on the
TAC U channel as to the feasibility of landing the helicopter on the roof.
♦ The ARC shall relay this information to the IC via the 25-watt helicopter radio on the
TAC U channel.
♦ If available, the Air Recon Battalion Firefighter will monitor the primary command
channel.

40

AUC 269 – ADDENDUM 1
11. A High Rise Roof Team consists of a trained and properly equipped ladder company
staffed with an officer and 5 FFs. Which of the following would not be found in the High Rise
Roof Kit? (3.3.1)
(A) 1 Bolt Cutter
(B) 1 Rabbit Tool
(C) 2 Halligans and 2 axes
(D) 2 Life Saving Ropes
(E) 6 SCBA with 1 hour cylinders
12.

11. D

41

12. Which is an incorrect action for a High Rise Roof Team Officer to take? (4.3.5)
(A) Insure all members have their personal harness.
(B) Approach the helicopter after receiving the signal from the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief.
(C) Supervise loading and unloading in view of the pilot as directed by the crew chief.
(D) Monitor the HT TAC U channel during flight.
(E) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, select an assembly point near the helispot.
Avoid using a bulkhead or other roof projection.

12. E

42

13. Which safety requirement is not correctly stated? (5.1)
(A) All members must wear a personal safety harness or Life Saving Belt during flight
operations as a High Rise Roof Chief or member of a High Rise Roof Team.
(B) Raise nothing above the head in vicinity of the helicopter.
(C) Do not approach the tail section under any circumstances.
(D) Air Rescue Teams shall board the air-rescue Bell 412 from amid-ship.

13. D

43

14. The Air Recon Chief, High Rise Roof Chief, and High Rise Roof Teams will all wear
Mustang Survival Personal Flotation Devices (PFDs). Choose the incorrect point about these
devices. (Add. 2 Sec. 3.1.2, 6)
(A) The High Rise Roof Chief and High Rise Roof Team will don PFDs over their bunker gear
prior to boarding the aircraft.
(B) The Air Recon Chief will don PFDs over the work duty uniform prior to boarding the
aircraft and will not be wearing any other PPE.
(C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft.
(D) Although not designed for firefighting, PFDs can be worn while operating at fires.

14. D

44

AUC 271 – POLICY STATEMENT ON EDPS
15. Units would be operating properly in which choice below at an incident involving
emotionally disturbed persons (EDP)? (1.1, 3, 3.2, 3.3)
(A) Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre
behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request a 10-47 for “Possible
EDP.”
(B) When persons are threatening to jump from a window, the primary concern shall be the
safety of the person threatening to jump.
(C) No attempts to forcibly restrain the person shall be made by members at any time.
(D) Units should not force entry to the door to an apartment which is on fire and contains an
EDP until arrival of police personnel, and then done only at police request.

15. A

3. Where persons are threatening to jump from a window ledge, bridge, etc., the primary
concern shall be for the safety of persons using sidewalks, streets, and roadways below.

3.2 No attempts to forcibly restrain the person shall be made unless there is a direct threat of
physical harm to members of the Department.
3.3 Absent clear indications of fire or other imminent danger of a type which mandates
immediate Fire Department actions, forcible entry will be delayed until arrival of police
personnel, and then done only at police request.

45

PART IV – HAZ MAT #1, 2, 3 & 4:
HAZ MAT 1 – ALTERNATE FUELS
1. LP refers to Liquefied Petroleum Gases, which are stored as a liquid under pressure but
vaporize into a gas when the pressure is released. Which point about the properties of and
operations involving LP gases is incorrect? (1.2.5, 1.3.3, 1.4.1, 1.4.2)
(A) LP gases are heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier).
(B) At LP gas fires and emergencies, keep everyone at least 1000 feet from the front and rear
of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.
(C) At a LP Gas leak with a fire, do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped,
except under extremely unusual conditions.
(D) If the only valve that can be used to stop the flow of gas is involved in fire or is exposed to
heat or flame, consider the possibility of using a heavy fog stream to protect the member while
he shuts off the valve.

1. B

1.3.3 Keep everyone, not actually engaged in operations, at least 1000 feet from the
front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.

46

2. Choose the correct action to take at a LP Gas leak with a fire. (1.4.5, 1.4.6, 1.4.7,
1.4.8, 1.4.9)
(A) Where escaping gas is on fire and the flow cannot be shut off, application of large
quantities of water on the tank and piping will permit controlled burning. Make certain the fire is
not extinguished.
(B) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are ineffective on small LP gas fires. Carbon Dioxide
extinguishers should also not be used.
(C) Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the area containing the liquid. Apply
sufficient water to the liquid area to prevent the metal from softening or weakening.
(D) When units notice an increase in the volume of fire, a rise in the noise level, a bubble or a
blister forming on the tank shell, they shall continue operations, as this means the hazard is
decreasing and the liquid is nearly depleted.
(E) Ordinarily, a tank involved in fire should be moved. Portable LP gas cylinders that are
exposed to a serious fire should not be moved.

2. A

47

3. Propane fueled vehicles are mostly found in dual-fueled vehicles which have both gasoline
and propane. Choose an incorrect point about these vehicles. (2.4.3, 2.4.4, 2.6.1, 2.6.4)
(A) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE”. A satisfactory
performance of a relief valve cannot prevent a BLEVE.
(B) An impact failure of a cylinder in a transportation accident can also cause a BLEVE.
(C) At a fire in a dual fueled vehicle which uses both propane and gasoline, fire involving
either gasoline or propane should not be extinguished except by shutting off the flow of escaping
propane.
(D) If the tank area of the vehicle is involved in a fire, immediately locate where the tank relief
valve discharges and keep clear of this area. The relief valve on passenger cars are positioned
within 45 degrees of vertical.
(E) Vans, trucks and buses relief valve discharges must be piped to a safe area.

3. C

48

4. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) fueled vehicles have become increasingly common
recently. Which one of the following choices incorrectly describes CNG, or operations
involving CNG vehicles? (3.2.1, 3.3.3, 3.4.3, 3.5.2)
(A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which require a Fire Department permit to operate using
such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on their front and rear bumper with the ID #
1971 in the diamond.
(B) CNG powered vehicles registered in New York State that do not require a Fire Department
permit are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper. There may be some states that do not
require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard.
(C) Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy). CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not
to BLEVEs.
(D) At a fire in a CNG vehicle, if the flow of gas cannot be stopped, extinguish the fire only
under extremely unusual conditions.

4. D

3.5.2 Fires
A. Extinguish a fire by stopping the flow of gas.
B. If the flow of Gas can not he stopped do not extinguish the fire - let it
burn.
C. Use a hose stream to cool cylinders and protect exposures.

49

5. Although New York City Transit Operators, both MTA and private, no longer have
methanol fueled buses in operation, members must still be familiar with methanol. Choose the
incorrect point about Methanol. (4.2, 4.4.1, 4.4.2)
(A) Methanol has a flash point of 54 degrees Fahrenheit.
(B) Methanol vapors are slightly heavier than air and burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale
blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.
(C) Use fog streams to channel vapors away from possible ignition sources. Fog streams will
absorb and dilute vapors.
(D) Fluoropolydol type foam should be used. Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam.
(E) For small fire, type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate. Purple K is the most
effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.
(F) Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non-flammable.
The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 10% to be effective.

5. F

B. Application of large amounts of water will dilute the Methanol rendering
it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below
20% to be effective. Adequate water supply must be available. Run-off
should be contained by diking or other means to prevent entry into sewers
and to assist in the dilution.

50

HAZ MAT 2 – FIRST RESPONDER GENERAL GUIDELINES
6. Which class would Flammable Solids be classified under? (2.1)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

6. C

Every Good Lieutenants SOP Requires Corrective Measures

51

7. When units respond to Hazardous Material Incidents, identification should be the initial
action taken by the first to arrive units. One way to identify material is by checking the shipping
papers. Choose the incorrect point about shipping papers. (4.4)
(A) The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
(B) The “waybill” is carried by the engineer in the engine.
(C) The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
(D) The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.

7. B

4.4 Check shipping papers if possible.
♦ Truck ---------The "bill of lading" is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
♦ Railroad ------The "waybill" is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
♦ Aircraft-------The "air bill" is kept by the pilot.
♦ Ships ----------The "cargo manifest" is kept by the master or first mate.

52

8. Which of the following is not a method that can be used to identify materials? (4.6, 5.2 C)
(A) Obtain the transporter’s name on the vehicle and the license plate number and state, which
can be checked by Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted
for ID of the contents.
(B) For railroad cars, the name on the train car and track number of the car can be checked by
Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for ID of the
contents.
(C) By black 4 digit ID number on placard or orange panel, or by the 4 digit number (preceded
by UN or MA) on shipping papers or packages, and use the Emergency Response Guidebook.
(D) Match the diamond shaped placard on tank, vehicle, or railroad car with a placard in the
back of the Emergency Response Guidebook, and then turn to the guide page number given.

8. B

4.6 If no information is available from placards or chemical names on the vehicle, obtain the
transporter's name on the vehicle and the license plate number and state, which can be
checked by Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted
for identification of the contents. A similar procedure can be used for railroad cars, using
the railroad's name and the number on the car.
4.7 Obtain as much information as possible to assist in identification. Often, a series of
numbers and letters which mean nothing to you will provide much information to trained
personnel.

53

9. Choose the only correct action taken by units. (7)
(A) BC Smith decided not to call Haz Mat 1 to a railroad tank car derailment, due to no damage
being suffered to the car.
(B) When Engine 100 responded to an incident where muriatic acid was being used to clean
the façade of the wall, the officer ordered spraying to be stopped while Engine 100 was on scene.
The officer ensured the response of the Haz Mat Unit although there was no spill.
(C) Engine 200 used water on a fuming product prior to the hazard assessment being completed
to reduce the exposure problem.
(D) When Engine 300 obtained the name of a Hazardous material, the officer relayed the name
of the material letter by letter to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and the Haz Mat
Response Team (HMRT).

9. D

Damage assessment requires specialized training and skill. Initial responders are not
qualified to fully assess these situations. In all cases involving derailment of railroad
tank cars the Hazardous Materials unit must be called, even when it appears there is no
damage. Haz-Mat will provide the technical knowledge and skills to assist the Incident
Commander in determining the condition and contents of the involved tank car(s). This
will aid in controlling the incident safely.

54

HAZ MAT 3 – ASBESTOS RESPONSE POLICY
10. Units responded to a boiler fire in a commercial building. After the fire was extinguished,
the 1st Ladder determined that the insulated covering on the boiler appeared to contain asbestos.
Which action taken was incorrect? (4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.5, 4.1.4, 4.1.7)
(A) The IC transmitted radio signal 10-80, specifying asbestos release, due to the suspected
asbestos contamination.
(B) The 1st Ladder performed thorough and complete overhauling of the suspected asbestos
covering in order to limit exposure to other units.
(C) The 1st Engine wet down the Asbestos Containing Material using a fog stream to prevent
fibers from becoming airborne.
(D) Members suspected of being contaminated were isolated and not allowed to eat, drink or
smoke until decontamination was completed.

10. B

55

HAZ MAT 4 – CARBON MONOXIDE
11. Carbon monoxide exposure presents a great danger to Fire Department members. Choose
the incorrect point about Carbon Monoxide (CO). (2.1, 2.4, 2.5, 3.2)
(A) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-irritating, non-toxic gas.
(B) It is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees Fahrenheit, and a
Lower Explosive Level of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Limit of 74%.
(C) CO is slightly lighter than air (.968). CO will rise with warm air, and when this air cools to
room temperature, CO will disperse evenly through the room.
(D) It provides no early warning signs.

11. A

56

12. Engine 100 and Ladder 200 respond to a CO detector activation in a 6 story NFP Multiple
Dwelling. Which action taken by these units should be corrected? (4.1.3, 4.1.5, 4.2.5,
4.4.3, 4.4.4, 4.4.5, 4.4.6)
(A) Ladder 200, using a CO meter, took an initial reading at the front door of the premises, then
continued investigating to find the source of the CO in the premises.
(B) Upon obtaining CO Readings of 20 PPM, the Officers ordered all members to don their
SCBA facepieces and requested the response of the utility company.
(C) The Officer of Ladder 200, after determining that the CO readings were caused by a
defective stove in Apartment 6B, ordered the occupants of Apartment 6B to leave the building.
The Officer of Ladder 200 informed the occupants they could not reoccupy the apartment until
the Utility Company arrived.
(D) The defective stove was shut down and members attempted to reset the CO detector.

12. C

57

13. The IC shall request the Utility Company to respond in all of the following situations
except which one? (4.1.5)
(A) Any CO levels are recorded by the meter.
(B) Units on scene shut off a gas appliance.
(C) An individual(s) is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning.
(D) The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.

13. A

58

14. If units respond to an alarm in which there was a CO detector present that did not activate,
and CO readings of 50 PPM are obtained, what would be the most correct Radio Code Signal to
transmit? (5.1.1)
(A) 10-38 Code 1
(B) 10-38 Code 2
(C) 10-38 Code 3
(D) 10-38 Code 4

14. D

5.1.1 The Incident Commander shall transmit the following Radio Code Signal:
10-38 Carbon Monoxide Response
Any type of Carbon Monoxide Response
Code 1: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Investigation (low battery,
defective detector, unwarranted alarm, etc.)
Code 2: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident (CO Meter
Reading of 1-9ppm).
Code 3: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency ( CO Meter
Reading of greater than 9ppm).
Code 4: No Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency
(Specify) e.g.: No detector present in affected area, detector
present in affected area, but did not activate.

59

15. Which choice contains incorrect information about the Gas Alert Extreme Carbon
Monoxide Meter? (Add. 1 Sec. 1.2, 2.1, 2.3, 3.4)
(A) The green circular button on the left is the only button to be used by field units.
(B) If affixing CO monitor to the HT strap, affix it in the chest area. Having the CO monitor
near the HT antenna will cause false activation.
(C) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given when the concentration of
CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM.
(D) If the monitor does not operate for any reason, the Officer on Duty shall notify their
Battalion and arrange for an exchange (prepare RT-2). Do not send the CO monitor through the
Division Messenger or through the bag.

15. C

60

PART V – EVOLUTIONS #25, 26 & 27:
1. Which member was operating incorrectly performing a Lowering operation using the
Lifesaving Rope and the Atlas Life Belt? (Evolution 25 Sec. 3.5, 3.6, 3.7, 3.8, 3.9, 3.17)
(A) Member #1, the lowering member, after inverting the case and emptying the rope, placed
the snap hook from the top of the coil to the left of the coiled rope.
(B) Member #2, the member to be lowered, placed his foot on the snap hook while Member # 1
played out rope to the substantial object.
(C) Member # 1 tied a clove hitch and binder on the taut part of the rope.
(D) Member # 1 attached the snap hook of the LSR to the hook of the Life Belt and took 4
turns over and under the hook with the rope.

1. D

61

2. How far over the edge of the roof or parapet should the anti-chafing device be draped?
(4.2, 5.2)
(A) Approximately 5 inches
(B) 2 inches
(C) 1 foot
(D) Approximately 10 inches

2. A

62

3. Which one of the following would not be considered a suitable substantial object?
(Note 5)
(A) An exposed beam
(B) Chimney
(C) Newel post
(D) An aerial ladder

3. C

63

4. When members are being lowered to perform a rescue pick-up, there are several actions
they must take. Which one of the following is an incorrect action for this member to take?
(6.4, 6.5, Note 8.1, Note 8.4, Note 8.5)
(A) Give the command “STOP” to halt the lowering operation while out of reach of the victim.
(B) Give the commands “DOWN, STOP, DOWN, STOP”, as necessary, until the member
being lowered is shoulder to shoulder with the victim.
(C) The member shall pull themselves to the victim by using the window frame or using the
victim for help.
(D) Instruct the victim to place both arms around his neck, both legs around his waist, and
maintain a firm hold.
(E) The member should place both arms around the victim’s upper torso, under the armpits,
and lock hands behind the victim’s back.

4. C

64

5. When a rope rescue is performed, which choice correctly indicates where the member and
victim should be lowered to? (Note 11)
(A) Always the ground.
(B) A place of safety, which may require a descent of only one story.
(C) At least two floors below the fire

5. B

65

6. When a life saving evolution is performed with both the lowering member and member to
be lowered using their personal harnesses, there are several actions which must be taken. Which
one is not one of them? (Evolution 27 Sec. 1.1, 3.1, 3.9, 3.10)
(A) The pre-tied bowline-on-a-bight must be untied at the start of the operation.
(B) Member #1, the Lowering Member, shall release their hook from the support strap.
(C) Member #1, the Lowering Member, shall attach the snap hook of the LSR to the bottom
part of the hook of their harness.
(D) Member # 2, the Member to be Lowered, shall attach the snap hook of the LSR to their
personal harness hook.

6. D

6. When a life saving evolution is performed with both the lowering member and member to
be lowered using their personal harnesses, there are several actions which must be taken. Which
one is not one of them? (Evolution 27 Sec. 1.1, 3.1, 3.9, 3.10)
(A) The pre-tied bowline-on-a-bight must be untied at the start of the operation.
(B) Member #1, the Lowering Member, shall release their hook from the support strap.
(C) Member #1, the Lowering Member, shall attach the snap hook of the LSR to the bottom
part of the hook of their harness.
(D) Member # 2, the Member to be Lowered, shall attach the snap hook of the LSR to their
personal harness hook.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):