WEEK #12 WEEK OF 04/15/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #12 WEEK OF 04/15/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #12 WEEK OF 04/15/13 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – AUC’S #343, 344, 345 & 346 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #66, 76, 77 & 78 PART IV – TB - “PURPLE- K” PART V – DUNN - CHAP. #9, 10 & 11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Deck (73):
0


2. Regarding the communications link for members on a Light Train, it would be incorrect to
state that the Train Operator’s Radio? (Add 7—2.2, 2.2A)

A. Is the only reliable means of communication for the FD Unit
B. Is removable, and will operate from any Train Operators compartment
C. Is the primary means of communication for the FDNY members
D. Will be controlled by the Train Operator who will immediately relay messages as directed
by the FDNY unit on the train

2. D

The TA has agreed to relay all messages from the FD Unit on the "Light Train" to
the FD dispatcher for relay to the CIC and vice versa, as indicated in the diagram
above.

A. Agreement has been reached with the TA to allow the FD Unit direct use of the Train
Operator's radio.
It is essential that the FD Unit on the "Light Train" maintain control of this radio,
since it is the only reliable means of communications for the FD Unit on the train.

B. The Train Operator's radio is removable, similar to removable automobile stereo
players. This radio will operate from any Train Operator's compartment in any car.

C. Units should be aware that the train conductor is equipped with a hand held radio
with capabilities similar to the aforementioned train operators radio.

1

1. Units arriving at the scene of an alarm at a subway station should know a Light Train may
be used? (Add 7—1)

A. To investigate the source of a light to medium smoke condition
B. For a small fire readily extinguishable by one handline or less
C. When a Company or Chief Officer decides to utilize it
D. Only if a communications link can be established

1. D

2.2 The CIC must assure a communications link with the FD Unit on the "Light Train" before
authorizing its use. If a communications link cannot be established, the "Light Train" is not
to be used.

2

3. When establishing the communications link on board the Light Train, members may
initiate use of the train with which means of communication? (Add 7—2.2)

A. Only the Train Operator’s Radio
B. Only the Train Conductor’s Radio
C. Either the Train Operator’s Radio or the Train Conductor’s Hand Held Radio
D. Either the Train Operator’s Radio or a TA employees hand-held radio

3. A

3

4. Members using a Light Train find a small fire on the tracks readily extinguishable by one
can. The Lieutenant decides to stop the train so that members can enter the track area to
extinguish the fire. In this situation, it would be correct to state that members on the train will be
notified power is confirmed off by the? (Add 7—2.3)

A. Battalion Chief at the station, who obtains this info from the dispatcher, and then informs
members on the train via a relay, Post radio, or UHF 40 watt radio, depending upon their location
B. Transit Authority, who will notify the unit on the Light Train directly, while also notifying
the Battalion Chief through the dispatcher

4. B

2.3 FD Units should not enter the track area from the "Light Train" unless power has been
removed.
The Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the "Light Train" directly and the CIC
through the FD Dispatcher when the above has been accomplished.

4

5. Members should be aware that a Light Train? (Add 7—2.5—2.9)

A. Shall never travel past the next station
B. May be boarded by the Chief in charge of the scene, provided he / she special calls another
fire unit to coordinate operations
C. Requires “Progress Reports” to be transmitted at least once every 15 minutes

5. C

2.5 The possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports
from the "Light Train" shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15
minutes.

5

6. An officer conducting drill on Transit System Subway Ventilation Fans was correct when
he stated that Ventilation Fans? (Add 8—2.2, 2.6)

A. Are located at both ends of all under-river tubes
B. In most instances, operate in the supply mode
C. Are reversible when associated with under-river tubes
D. Will be affected by a request for power removal ordered by the FDNY

6. C

2.2 With the exception indicated in the note, fans are located at both ends of all other under-
river tubes.
Note: The Lenox-White Plains tube of the Broadway IRT line located between the
135th and 149th Street stations, has no fans at either end of the tube.

2.6 Most Transit System ventilation fans operate in the exhaust mode. A small number
operate in the supply mode. Ventilation fans associated with under-river tubes are
reversible, as are replacement fans. On some older type fans, the direction of the airflow
can be changed by moving dampers.

6

7. Control of the fans passes to the FDNY upon the arrival of the FDNY IC, who must
determine as quickly as possible if fans already activated by the TA should be shut down. The
term IC in this context and any use of the fans only applies to Chief Officers. (Add 8—
1.3, 4.3)

A. Agree or D. Disagree?

7. A

1.3 For the purpose of this Addendum reference to Incident Commander is presumed to mean
an officer above the rank of Captain.

4.3 Where fans have been activated by the TA prior to FDNY arrival, the IC must determine,
as quickly as possible, if fan operation should be shut down and convey that information
to TA via FDNY dispatcher.

7


Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a train stuck in the middle of an under-river tube
between Manhattan and the Bronx. Units find the train is on fire and numerous passengers
are evacuating towards Manhattan. There are reversible ventilation fans at both ends of
the tube that are not operating at this time.

8. In this type of situation, they would be correct to consider which point(s)? (Add 8—
4.7, 5.4, 5.5)

A. Fans operating in the supply mode that are remote from the actual fire area can draw the
products of combustion for long distances
B. Fans operating in close proximity to emergency exits may cause smoke and heat to be
drawn in the direction of members entering the track from those exits
C. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan
operating in the exhaust mode
D. Both the track bed and benchwall are acceptable avenues of evacuation,
E. In a smoke condition, the trackbed may be more comfortable for passengers than the
benchwall, depending on the level of the smoke

8. B, C, D, E

4.7 Units should be aware that, depending on the fire location and severity, fans operating in
close proximity to emergency exits may cause smoke and heat to be drawn in the
direction of members entering the track area from those exits. This is particularly
pertinent in the case of under-river tubes.

5.4 The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan
operated in the exhaust mode. In this way, the forced airflow will draw fresh air into the
faces of the evacuating passengers and remove smoke from the area to which they are
evacuating.

5.5 In a smoke condition, the track bed may be more comfortable for the passengers than the
benchwall (AKA catwalk), since the track bed may be below the smoke level. However,
both the track bed and benchwall are acceptable avenues of evacuation.

8


Answer questions 8 - 9 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a train stuck in the middle of an under-river tube
between Manhattan and the Bronx. Units find the train is on fire and numerous passengers
are evacuating towards Manhattan. There are reversible ventilation fans at both ends of
the tube that are not operating at this time.

9. Regarding the use of the Ventilation Fans in this under-river tube, the IC would be correct
to consider activating the fans at the? (Multiple-answers—BC question)

A. Bronx end only, in the exhaust mode
B. Manhattan end only, in the exhaust mode
C. Manhattan end only, in the supply mode
D. Manhattan end in supply, and the Bronx end in exhaust
E. Bronx end in supply, and the Manhattan end in exhaust

9. A, C, D

9

Answer questions 10 - 12 based on the following scenario
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on an Amtrak train. Amtrak officials have
confirmed that the power has been shutdown to the third rail, the 480 volt standby power,
and to the overhead electrical wires. Amtrak also has indicated that all train traffic has
been stopped but that there is still residual static electricity in the overhead catenary lines.

10. In this situation, it would be most correct to state that the application of water from a
platform shall? (Add 9—3.1, 3.2)

A. Not be considered, until grounding sticks have been placed on the catenary lines
B. Be considered, only with a fog nozzle, in the fog position, using short bursts only, from a
minimum approach distance of 4 feet
C. Be considered, only with a fog nozzle, in the fog position, using short bursts only, from a
minimum approach distance of 10 feet
D. Be considered, only with a fog nozzle, in the fog position, using short or long bursts, from a
minimum approach distance of 10 feet

10. C

3.2.3 Short bursts of a fog water stream shall be utilized to avoid accumulations of
water pooling. Run-off water presents an electrical hazard and officers shall
make certain that firefighters are not standing in the path of run-off water.

10

Answer questions 10 - 12 based on the following scenario
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on an Amtrak train. Amtrak officials have
confirmed that the power has been shutdown to the third rail, the 480 volt standby power,
and to the overhead electrical wires. Amtrak also has indicated that all train traffic has
been stopped but that there is still residual static electricity in the overhead catenary

11. In this situation, if operating a fog nozzle in a fog pattern, from a platform at a safe
distance, it may be operated? (Add 9—3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.7)

1. At the train’s undercarriage
2. Into the train
3. Over the top of the train

A. 1 B. 1, 2 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

11. B

3.2.1 A fog nozzle, in the fog pattern position shall be used from a platform into the
train avoiding any contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph
connection.

3.2.2 If conditions warrant, a handline using a fog stream can be operated from the
adjacent platform directing water at the train's undercarriage, thus controlling fire
and/or cooling the diesel fuel tank, maintaining its integrity.

3.2.7 Hose stream should not be directed over the top of a train where pantograph or
catenary wires are located.

11

12. A Battalion Chief would be correct to consider which tactic at this incident? (Add
9—4.3, 4.4, 5.1, 5.8) (BC Question)

A. When requesting power removal via the FDNY dispatcher, state “ALL POWER shutdown
at the incident location” to insure that each power source — 3rd rail, catenary, 480 standby
power, is shut down
B. The IC may choose not to use any fog stream or water when residual electric present, and
wait for the railroad to place grounds, if no railroad supervisor is present at the ICP
C. Any decision to move a train involved in the emergency into the station or evacuate
passengers shall ONLY be made by an IC who has consulted with the railroad supervisor
D. Under no circumstances shall an IC request power off on an additional set of tracks while
waiting for power removal on previously requested tracks

12. B

4.3 Railroad Transportation Supervisor/s will respond to the ICP, report in, and remain there
for the duration of the operation to assist the IC. If a railroad supervisor is not stationed
at the ICP to assist in coordinating all the activities in this addendum, then the IC may
choose not to implement the above procedures and wait for the railroad to place of the
grounds prior to the use of any fog stream or water.

4.4 Any decision to move the train involved in the emergency into the station, evacuate the
passengers, utilize a rescue train, or the dispatching of a diesel locomotive shall be made
by the IC after (if possible) consultation with railroad supervisors.

5.1 The IC must order via the FDNY dispatcher: the power-off on the third rail, catenary
lines and 480 volt stand-by power, and the stopping of all train movement. The power
source for the 480-volt stand-by power is independent of the catenary circuit and the third
rail. Terminology in communicating power-off request should specify each source so
that no one source is inadvertently overlooked.

12

13. Regarding the FDNY policy at these types of incidents, it would be correct to state that
before the FDNY begins emergency operations, to insure safety and that residual power is
eliminated, the FDNY relies on Amtrak’s use of? (Add 9B—6th and 7th bullets)

A. Grounding switches—which alone are sufficient to begin operations
B. Grounding switches in conjunction with the application of grounding sticks

13. B

• The FDNY does not rely solely on the use of grounding switches to provide the
necessary required safety guidelines when grounding the catenary wires during a tunnel
fire or emergency, and has required that Amtrak provide grounding sticks at specific
locations during a tunnel fire or emergency, in a two phase procedure that will expedite
emergency response.

• The application of grounding sticks in conjunction with the use of the grounding
switches provides a level of redundancy that will optimize an expedited response.

13

14. When operating at subway stations with sound powered telephones and dry standpipes,
units would be correct to think that at the? (Add 10—2.1—2.5)

A. Street level, there will be a 2 ½” siamese connection for the standpipe
B. Platform level, there will be a standpipe outlet inside a locked stainless steel cabinet,
opened by a 1620 key
C. Platform level and the street level, both will have a sound powered telephone outlet jack
that can be opened with a 1620 key
D. Sound powered phone outlet jack locations, there will be handsets that are locked up, ready
for FDNY use

14. C

14

15. The FDNY standard HT relay procedure for subways can be discontinued if sound powered
phone communications are established and functioning. (Add 10—3.6)

A. Agree or D. Disagree?

15. D

15

16. An Engine Company that has a subway station with both sound powered phone outlet jacks
and a dry standpipe system, would know that all of the following points are true except?
(Add 10-5.1--5.4)

A. CIDS must be generated for these locations
B. These locations shall be inspected during the semi-annual subway emergency exit
inspection period
C. When inspecting these locations, open all standpipe cabinets and sound-powered phone
outlet jack boxes, but do not charge the standpipe
D. Any defects noted during inspections, drills and operations, requires a Forthwith VO

16. D

5. INSPECTIONS

5.1 During the semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, administrative units shall
inspect the subway dry standpipe systems and test the sound-powered telephones. Units
shall not charge the standpipe system during inspection periods.

5.2 Each standpipe cabinet and sound-powered phone outlet jack box, shall be opened to
observe if the locking device shows any signs of vandalism.

5.3 The siamese swivels and clapper valves shall be checked as well as the legibility of the
sign.

5.4 If defects are noted during semi-annual inspections, multi-unit drills, or at operations, an
A-8 Referral Report shall be forwarded to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau
of Operations. For immediate notification to PTSU, telephone (718) 999-2066, or fax
(718) 999-2239.

16

17. NYCTA Emergency Evacuation Devices will be found located at the first blue light
location south of the southbound platform at which of the following location(s)? (Add
11—3.1—3.4)

A. Underground stations C. Elevated stations
B. Grade level stations D. Under-River tunnel entrance

17. A ,B


3. LOCATION

3.1 At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light
location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).

3.2 At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

3.3 An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river
tunnel.

3.4 Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.

17

18. Regarding the utilization of NYCTA Emergency Evacuation Devices, it would be incorrect
to state that? (Add 11—2.3, 5.1)

A. Keys to remove EED’s from mounting brackets are available at every token booth
B. EED’s can be used as an evacuation stair to access the platform level from the roadbed
C. EED’s provide a safe angle, approximately 60 degrees, for passengers to be evacuated from
a train to the roadbed. In these situations, assign personnel to both the top and bottom of the
ladder.
D. When a rescue train is used, EED’s can be used to form a bridge between two adjacent
cars. In these situations, assign personnel to be stationed in each car

18. C


2.3 When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the
roadbed at approximately a 70° angle (safe for ascent / descent) and the steps will provide
a horizontal stepping surface (Figure 3). A notch cut in the beams on one end of the
ladder helps to anchor the EED in position against the car and or platform.

18


19. Regarding power removal at Air Train operations, members would be incorrect to think?
(Add 12—Pg 1, 2)

A. Blue Light Station Power Removal boxes are located at each end of the Air Train Station
Platforms, and then located at least every 600 feet along the guideway
B. The Red Power Removal button near an Air Train station, de-energizes both the inbound
and outbound tracks on the guideway for the entire length of the station platform
C. When a Blue Light Station Power Removal button has been activated, at least one HT
equipped member must remain at the Power Removal Box to insure power remains off
D. After activating a Power Removal Button, the IC must still request power removal through
the Borough C.O. via Department radio

19. A

19

20. Regarding the 3rd Rail and walkways found on the guideway, which point(s) would be
accurate? (Add 12—Sect 4, 7)

A. The 3rd Rail can be found on either side of the tracks and its location changes frequently
B. Side walkways, 2 ½ feet wide, are located outside the tracks and are provided with a three
foot high handrail.
C. Center walkways are located between the tracks and are 5 ½ feet wide
D. The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall usually indicates that there is a side
walkway and that the 3rd rail is located between the tracks
E. If there is no guard rail visible above the parapet wall, it usually indicates that the 3rd rail is
outside the tracks, with the walkway located in between the tracks
F. The walkway and the 3rd rail will never both be co-located on the inside of the tracks

20-A, B, C, D, E,

20

21. Air Train grounding straps must be in place on each side of an operation before members
are committed to the guideway, even after confirmation of power off from the FDNY dispatcher,
unless there is an imminent life hazard that exists and time does not allow for the placement of
these grounding straps. (Add 12—Sect 8)

A. Agree or D. Disagree?

21. A

• The Incident Commander shall insure that grounding straps are in place on each side
of the operation before members are committed to the guideway. This procedure
shall be adhered to even after the Fire Department Borough Communications Office
has received confirmation that the power is off. The only exception to this procedure
should be when the Incident Commander has determined that an imminent life hazard
exists and time does not allow for the placement of these grounding straps.

21

Answer questions 22 - 24 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units are assigned to an alarm for a derailed Air Train in the vicinity of JFK
Airport. While responding, they are informed that numerous passengers are injured
aboard the train and that the train is located in between stations along the Van Wyck
Expressway.

22. The primary method for the evacuation and removal of passengers in between stations
would be via a? (Add 12—Sect 10)

A. Rescue train from either the front or the rear, or from an adjoining track
B. Walkway, preferably a wide center walkway, to a nearby station
C. Tower Ladder to the street below
D. Nolan ATS-1 Emergency Rail Cart

22. A

22

Answer questions 22 - 24 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units are assigned to an alarm for a derailed Air Train in the vicinity of JFK
Airport. While responding, they are informed that numerous passengers are injured
aboard the train and that the train is located in between stations along the Van Wyck
Expressway.

23. C

23

24. Regarding the duties of a Battalion Chief who is responding as the NYC Transit Liasion
Officer, it would be incorrect to state that? (Add 13) (BC Question)

A. A TLO will respond to any 10-75 or greater signal for a fire or emergency in any section of
the NYC Transit System
B. The TLO should only communicate with the Desk Superintendent, Acting General
Superintendent, or the General Superintendent
C. The TLO should not leave the Rail Control Center until FD operations are completed and
units are in the process of taking up
D. Confirmation that power has been removed may be given to the IC through the TLO

24. D

24

25. A Captain conducting drill on communications at incidents involving the NYC Transit
Subway System was correct to make which point(s)? (Add 16—1, 4.3, 4.4)

A. The Subway Repeater Channels—Channel 14 & 15, are 5 watt channels that will carry the
HT internal ID #’s and support the emergency alert feature
B. The NYC Transit Duplex repeater is always ON
C. Post radios may prove unreliable when communicating to below grade locations
D. A HT relay on Channel 1 is not necessary if clear and effective communications on the
Repeater Channel are established
E. At minor operations, such as rubbish on the platform, the Company Officer will decide
which members should switch to the repeater channel
F. At major operations, the IC can use the Repeater channel as a secondary command or
tactical channel. The IC will decide which Chiefs, Officers or Firefighters should use the channel

25. A, B, C, D, E, F

25

27. Members are operating at a 10-75 for a fire in a subway station, where the IC has ordered
all units to have one member on Channel 14. As the operation proceeds, Channel 14 is initially
working fine. The first Ladder Company, while conducting a search deep into the station, then
notices radio silence and an inability to make radio contact on Channel 14. In this situation, the
ladder officer should? (Add 16—5.2)

A. Immediately discontinue all use of Channel 14 and notify the IC on Channel 1
B. Return to a location where previous communications were successful on Channel 14 and
attempt to use Channel 14

27. B

26


28. The channels “Reverse Subway 1” and “Reverse Subway 2” are useful if Channel 14 and /
or Channel 15 fails. These channels have been added to what means of communications?
(Add 16—5.3) (BC Question)

A. Only Post Radios and Chief Officer Handie-Talkies
B. Only UHF Mobile radios
C. Only Post Radios and UHF Mobile radios
D. Only Post Radios, UHF Mobile radio, and Chief Officer Handie-Talkies

28. C

5.3 Post Radios and UHF Mobile Radios in BC/DC vehicles have been equipped with a
reverse frequency feature (AKA - a Talk Around feature). This feature allows these
specific radios to broadcast emergency messages to members on the receive frequency
and receive messages on the transmit frequency of the H/T repeater channel being used at
the time of the failure. The signal strength of the UHF Mobile radio and the Post Radio
(up to 45 watts) may penetrate into “dead spot” areas, but due to the limited wattage of
the XTS 3500 H/T (5 watts), members may not be able to respond.
A sample emergency message may be – “The repeater system has failed. All members
switch your H/Ts to Channel 1.” On the Post Radio and the UHF Mobile radio, Channel
“Rev Subway 1” has been added for use if Channel 14 fails, and Channel “Rev Subway
2” has been added for use if Channel 15 fails

27

29. An Engine Company responds to a CFR-D response in a subway where they attempt to
utilize Channel 14 and experience problems with the repeater system. In this situation, after
providing patient care, they would be correct to notify the. (Add 16—6 Point #1)

A. Borough Communications Office via Department Radio
B. Borough Command, via telephone, through the Chain of Command
C. Bureau of Communications, via letterhead report, through the Chain of Command
D. Public Transportation Unit, via letterhead report, through the Chain of Command

29. A

28

30. A unit seeing the following sticker on an entrance to a subway station would know that it
indicates? (Add 17)

A. Egress from the subway platform is restricted to only one end of the platform
B. Egress from the subway platform is restricted to staircases only, there are no elevators
C. Egress from the station is restricted to only one stair that leads to the street
D. If you look like this person, immediately see a chiropractor

30. A

29

31. An officer conducting drill on the Nolan ATS-1 Emergency Rail Cart was incorrect when
she stated? (Add 19—2.1, 2.2, 2.5, 3.3)

A. Company Commanders must ensure it is stored in a visible location on the apparatus floor
B. When transported to an incident, it must be placed on the apparatus back step and secured
with two yellow ratchet straps
C. Any engine or ladder company may be special called to transport a rail cart
D. When assembling, each rail cart part shall be raised to a 45 degree angle so that each
connection point joins to one another

31. C

30

32. The officer was incorrect again when she stated? (Add 19—3.6, 3.8, 4.5, 4.6, 7.2)

A. A red square is painted on the surface corner of the rail cart to denote the location of the
wheel lock
B. The rail cart is useful for moving tools, equipment or non-ambulatory victims
C. Avoid allowing equipment, tools, stretchers and stokes baskets to extend over the front,
rear or sides. If necessary, only allow these items to extend over the sides
D. If there is a heavy load or when used on a steep grade, the cart should be pushed or pulled
by two or more members. Utility ropes and / or straps may be used to increase control
E. The wheel lock must be engaged when the cart is left unattended

32. C

31

1. It would be incorrect to state drill requests that will place a unit out of service and
unavailable to respond to alarms shall be? (AUC 347)

A. Requested by the unit or individual initiating, through the chain of command
B. Requested via Training Form TR-1, available from the Intranet
C. Received by the Planning Unit at least 30 days in advance of the proposed drill
D. Posted on the Daily Training Schedule on the Intranet, and emailed to all Borough
Commands, Divisions, and Battalions at 1600 hours the day before and at 0700 hours on the
actual training date

1. C

2.3 To ensure a timely response, drill requests shall be received by the Planning Unit at least
fourteen days in advance of the date of the proposed drill. The Planning Unit can be
contacted via e-mail at Planning@fdny.nyc.gov.

32

2. Regarding the use of Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans at Hi-Rise Fires, it would be correct to state that? (AUC 349—2.1, 2.2, 4.1, 5.1)
A. They are used to mechanically create areas of slightly higher pressure
B. A Ladder Company designated as a Ventilation Support Group Unit, is dispatched on every 10-76 or 10-77 signal
C. The fans may be used to augment fixed positive pressure systems found operating in the stairwells of Hi-Rise buildings
D. Upon arrival, the Vent Support Group shall report with their equipment directly to the Operations Section Chief or System Control Unit Leader

2. A

These PPF equipped units shall be dispatched on a signal 10-77 or these units can
be special called as needed by an IC.

33

3. Which designation(s) are correctly indicated for the Ladder Company designated as the Ventilation Support Group? (6.1)
A. “Vent Group Leader”—for the Officer
B. “Vent Group Fan Unit”—for the members operating the fan in the lobby
C. “Vent Group Fire Unit”—for the members operating the fan 3 floors below the fire
D. “Vent Group Bulkhead”—for the FF operating at the roof level

3. C

6.1 The unit assigned to respond with the PPFs to the incident location shall be designated
the Ventilation Support Group. The officer shall be designated as the “Vent Group
Supervisor”. The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group
Lobby Unit” and the “Vent Group Fire Unit.” The member assigned the roof shall be
“Vent Group Roof”.

34

4. Which point about the use of PPF’s is incorrectly stated? (AUC 349—6.3, 6.4, 6.5)
A. The priority order for use of PPF’s is: pressurization of the attack stair, then pressurization of the evacuation stair, then venting the public hallways for smoke control
B. Stairwell pressurization will not be initiated until authorized by the IC
C. Positive pressure fans shall never be left unattended
D. If negative results are encountered when pressurizing stairs, the fans shall be shut down completely and the stairwell doors secured closed

4. D

6.4 PPFs in operation should never be left unattended; a radio-equipped member must
continually monitor each operating fan. If negative results are encountered, discontinue
pressurization by throttling down fans to idle, and closing the door to the stairwell that
the fan is pressurizing. The IC must be notified when the fans have been deactivated and
the stairwell doors are secured. Due to the noise created by the PPFs, handie-talkie
headsets (Dave Clarke system) shall be utilized by members operating the fans to
maintain communications.

35

5. Ladder 99 responds as the Vent Support Group for a 10-77 fire on the 6th floor of a 10-story Project type of Fireproof MD. The IC has setup the ICP outside and informs the Officer that an attack on the fire is taking place via the 6th floor public hallway, and that all that is needed right now is the attack stair pressurized. The Officer then ordered the:
1. Placement of a PPF 4-6 feet from the attack stair door
2. PPF placed blowing into the stairwell, using the lobby entrance to the stairwell
3. PPF placed facing the doorway at an 80 degree angle
4. Door on the fire floor closed as much as possible, and requested from the IC that a member remain in position at the stairwell door at all times
5. Members from Ladder 99 to survey the attack stair and verify and close all doors above and below the fire floor
The Officer was correct in how many actions? (AUC 349—7.2, 7.3, 7.7)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

5-C (#1, 2, 3, 4)

The
ventilation support group supervisor shall request that the IC instruct the 3rd and 4th
ladder companies operating above the fire floor, to verify that doors in the stair
enclosure are maintained closed.

36

6. Regarding the ability of the PPF’s to provide effective pressurization, it would be correct to state that? (AUC 349—7.3)
A. The pressure delivered to an attack stair by a PPF will be great enough to allow up to four stairway doors to be open in a stairwell and still be effective
B. One PPF can provide the proper pressure in a stairwell up to 10 stories and two properly positioned PPF’s will pressurize a 40-story building
C. When using two fans in taller buildings, place the second fan approximately halfway between the lobby and the roof level
D. In buildings over 40 stories, PPF’s will not work

6. B

 The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for
up to three stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective.
However, all members should understand that keeping as many doors closed as
possible is the goal. Members are permitted to move from one area to another as long
as they remember to close the stairwell door behind them.

 Research and field experience has proved that one fan can provide the proper
pressure in the stairwell up to 10 stories depending on conditions, and two fans will
pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned. If the fire floor is above the
10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke,
a second fan must be brought to three floors below the fire floor and set up, following
the proper positioning (4 to 6 feet back, 80 degree angle). This will maintain proper
pressure throughout the stairwell, up to a 40 story building. This same concept, of
placing a fan on the ground floor and a second fan three floors below the fire, can
also be applied to buildings greater than 40 stories.

Note: In buildings over 40 stories in height, the IC should consider special calling an
additional ventilation support group. The extra fans can be used to augment pressures
in the stairwell.

37

7. If there is an extreme smoke condition in a stairwell, the IC may begin pressurizing a
stairwell, with the fire floor stairwell door closed, if units are not committed on the fire floor, (or
closed as much as possible if units are committed) and then order the stair bulkhead door opened
____________ until the smoke clears? (AUC 349—7.5, 7.6)

A. As long as it takes C. Approximately 45 seconds
B. No longer than 30 seconds D. Approximately 60 seconds

7. C

 Vent group roof or another designated member shall open the stair bulkhead door
(burp the bulkhead), until smoke clears (approx. 60 seconds) then shut the bulkhead
door. During this time the pressurization will be maintained in the stairwell with the
bulkhead door open or closed.

38

8. After fire has been extinguished on the 28th floor of a 35 story High Rise MD, the IC orders the Ventilation Support Group to sequentially ventilate the 28th and 29th floors due to high levels of CO. In this situation, it would be incorrect for the Ladder Officer to consider which point? (AUC 349—8.1, 8.2)
A. Placement of the fan(s) shall be on the exterior of the building
B. The evacuation stair will be pressurized; its bulkhead door remains closed
C. Close doors in the attack stair; its bulkhead door should be opened
D. Stairwell doors in both the attack and evacuation stair on the floor to be ventilated are now opened to cross ventilate that floor, starting with the 29th floo

8. D

39

9. Units are operating at a fire in a 1-story 70’ x 100’ supermarket that has been extinguished by sprinklers and produced a heavy smoke condition throughout the building. The IC decides to use PPF’s to mechanically ventilate the large area. In this situation, it would be most correct for the units to? (AUC 349—9.2, 9.4)
A. Look for an exhaust opening that is both close to and as low as possible in relation to the seat of the fire
B. Place PPF’s exactly 4’-6’ back from the inlet that will be used at an 80 degree angle
C. Use the rule of thumb—that the exhaust opening should be double the size of the inlet opening where the PPF’s will be placed
D. Use only one PPF—the less fans the better
E. If possible, place an electric box fan at the midway point between the inlet and outlet blowing outward to increase efficiency

9. C

 An inlet should be found opposite this exhaust opening that would allow the fans to
push fresh air into the structure. The fans have to make a seal at the inlet. The fan
will be set farther back then the 4 to 6 feet used when pressurizing stairwells. The
angle of the fan shroud will remain at 80 degrees. A rule of thumb is that the exhaust
opening should be double the size of the opening where the PPF is placed. This will
allow minimal pressure to build while permitting a large movement of air.

 Contrary to stairwell pressurization (creating pressure), the objective of mechanical
ventilation is to move as much fresh air as possible into the structure or area. The more
fans the better. One 27” gasoline powered fan moves approximately five times more air
(24,000 CFM) than our 16” electric box fan (3,400 CFM).

40

10. One 27” gasoline powered fan (24,000 CFM) moves approximately _____ times more air than our 16” electric box fan (3400 CFM)? (AUC 349—9.2)
A. 1 ½ B. 2 C. 5 D. 7

10. C

41

11. A Ladder Company operating at a fire that was extinguished in the cellar of a commercial building is ordered place its box fan in the cellar to exhaust the contaminants out of the fire area. Since there is no place to hang the box fans and no tarps are available to create a seal around the fan, the officer would be correct to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening? (AUC 349—10.2)
A. 4 - 6 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees
B. 6 - 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees
C. 4 - 6 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 80 degrees
D. 6 - 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 80 degrees

11. B

Note: An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung,
is to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet
back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees. This positioning will form a
seal of air around the exhaust opening preventing churning of the air and increasing
efficiency

42

12. Safety concerns regarding the use of fans include all of the following points except?
(AUC 349—11.1—11.8)
A. PPF’s shall never be transported while in operation
B. PPF’s shall never be refueled inside a structure
C. PPF’s shall be lifted by two members whenever fans need to come off the ground
D. When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses should be attached when deemed necessary

12. D

43

1. A company officer is justified to delegate certain tasks when they are trying to train subordinates who will be getting promoted, to motivate skilled subordinates by sharing some of the supervisory work, or when the supervisor is unable to handle all of the tasks alone. Which of the following are examples of task(s) that a company officer should delegate in these types of situations? (Indicate all correct answers) (TB Mgt Pg 3)
A. Handling complaints from the public E. Making a schedule for inspections
B. Getting data for reports F. Giving a firehouse tour
C. Certain training of firefighters G. Checking and signing reports
D. Checking on work being done H. Determining assignments (OV, FE, LCC)

1. B, C, E, F

44

2. In public agencies like the FDNY, when a supervisor has multiple situations to handle, it is generally agreed that the highest priorities are safety of people, then—property protection. People issues come before paper issues (reports). It is also agreed that outsiders (service to the public) should come before insiders in most situations. Regarding people issues, prioritize the following in order of whom should be given first response given multiple situations?
1. Superiors
2. Threats to safety of people
3. Routine contacts with insiders
4. Outsiders: from another agency or unit, or civilians
5. People who are upset—insiders or outsiders
A. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 B. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 C. 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 D. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

2. B

45

3. The hierarchy of needs in terms of what motivates individuals is generally described in five levels:
1. Social
2. Biological
3. Self-Esteem
4. Self-Fulfillment
5. Security
What is considered the order of these needs starting with the lowest level? (Pg 18)
A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 B. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 C. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 D. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

3. B


1. Biological needs, survival needs (salary)
2. Security needs (pension)
3. Social needs (good coworkers)
4. Ego or self esteem needs (status, responsibility)
5. Self fulfillment needs (self direction)

46

4. You are a regularly assigned Company Officer who has determined that two firefighters (a
senior member and a junior member) have a serious conflict when they work together which has
now escalated and requires your intervention. In handling this situation, which tactic below
would be most effective? (Pg 27-28—4.8)

A. Discuss the issue in the kitchen with everyone around the table
B. Speak with both members at the same time
C. Appeal to reason, however if reason fails, appeal to the members self-pride, team loyalty
and self respect
D. Make whatever promises you can make, even if you cannot keep all of them

4. C

47

5. You are a Lieutenant who was called to the housewatch to handle a complaint of an upset
civilian who claims the members did excessive damage to her house yesterday during overhaul
operations. When handling this complaint, it would be correct for you to? (Pg 28—4.9)

1. Provide the civilian with your name
2. Get the civilians name and use their name repeatedly
3. Take notes while they are speaking if they are very excited

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

5. D

48

1. Regarding the wearing of bunker gear at waterfront operations, testing by the FDNY
indicates that members will become totally submerged in under one minute. In that regard, all of
the following points are correct at waterfront operations except? (SB 81)

A. Personal flotation devices should be used, if available. If no flotation devices are available,
safety lines should be used
B. If you fall into water, slowly tread or swim to increase your time afloat
C. If you fall into water, remain calm, don’t panic, call for help
D. Moving about and attempting to remove the bunker gear reduces the time afloat

1. B

49

2. The first ladder arrives at the scene of a fire reported on the 12th floor in the A stairwell of a
High Rise MD. They note there are two stairways in the building, labeled “A” and “B” and take
elevators to the 10th floor. On the 10th floor they find a light smoke condition at the stairwell door
to stair “A.” In this situation, they would be correct to take which action(s)? (SB 82)

A. Immediately close the “A” stairwell door and proceed via the “B” stairwell to search for the
source of the smoke—one floor at a time
B. Have the second ladder begin searching the “A” stairwell from the first floor upward
C. Have the Roof FF proceed to the roof via the “B” stair and vent the “A” stair bulkhead
from the roof—in order to prevent horizontal extension to any upper floors
D. Approach and extinguish the fire with a can or line from the floor level where the source of
the smoke is located
E. Under no circumstances shall members operate above the smoke area in the “A” stairwell,
until the fire is knocked down

2. A, B, C

50


3. Which point below regarding “Protective Hoods” is inaccurate? (SB 83)

A. Wearing the hood somewhat reduces your ability to note changing fire conditions in the
immediate area.
B. Upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, you must leave the area
immediately unless the area can be immediately cooled by an extinguisher or hose line
C. The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture
D. Never wring water out of the hood, instead squeeze the water out
E. The hood shall be inspected at the start of each tour and after each use

3. B

Extinguisher not mentioned

2. It must be understood that wearing the hood in a hostile environment somewhat reduces
your ability to note changing fire conditions in the immediate area. Therefore, you must
leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless
the area can be immediately cooled by a hose line. Remember, always stay alert to
deteriorating conditions.

51

1. Every handie-talkie has an assigned 7-digit numeric Identification Code that identifies the
company and assigned riding position of the radio. Regarding the appearance of this 7-digit
number on the Model III LCD screen, it would be correct to state? (2.2)

1. The 7-digit number will appear on the LCD screen for all transmissions
2. The 7-digit ID number will be preceded by the letters EM when the Emergency Alert
Button is activated and the EM and ID Code will appear each time the member
subsequently depresses their push-to talk button, until the EAB is deactivated
3. If a second Emergency Alert Tone is sent from the same HT due to an EAB activation, the
EM and the members ID Code will appear again

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

1. Every handie-talkie has an assigned 7-digit numeric Identification Code that identifies the
company and assigned riding position of the radio. Regarding the appearance of this 7-digit
number on the Model III LCD screen, it would be correct to state? (2.2)

1. The 7-digit number will appear on the LCD screen for all transmissions
2. The 7-digit ID number will be preceded by the letters EM when the Emergency Alert
Button is activated and the EM and ID Code will appear each time the member
subsequently depresses their push-to talk button, until the EAB is deactivated
3. If a second Emergency Alert Tone is sent from the same HT due to an EAB activation, the
EM and the members ID Code will appear again

A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

52


2. When a member activates their Emergency Alert Button, which feature(s) will occur?
(2.7.1, 2.7.2, 2.7.3, 2.7.5)

A. The wattage of their transmission will be increased from 2 watts to 5 watts
B. Emergency alert tones will be sent at maximum power and be heard on receiving radios at
the volume setting of those receiving radios
C. An emergency alert tone will be immediately heard on the selected channel and a second
emergency alert tone will always be transmitted 10 seconds later
D. Beacon tones will be heard at maximum volume on the transmitting member’s radio and
these tones will take priority over received audio—interrupting any incoming audio in order to
sound the beacon at regular intervals
E. If a member switches channels on their HT, the beacon will continue to sound until reset,
and the member’s “EM” will be transmitted on the new channel

2. A, D, E

Notes:
 If an Emergency Alert and subsequent voice communication are not
acknowledged, the "Emergency Alert Tone" can be resent by briefly
depressing the emergency button again.
 If a member is directed to switch channels while in the Emergency Alert
Mode its "Beacon" will continue to sound until reset. In addition, the
member's "EM" signal will be transmitted on the new channel.
 As with the previous handie-talkie models, unforeseen and isolated incidents
of radio frequency peculiarities continue to be experienced which interfere
with communications procedures. These have been found due to proximity of
radios, radios out of range or poor radio discipline.
 Can be activated from the HT base by holding for approximately ½ a second.
 Can be deactivated using the HT base by holding down for 2 seconds.

53

3. If a member accidentally activates their Emergency Alert Button, the member must
immediately? (2.7.5 #2)

A. Notify the IC to cancel the emergency, then reset the EAB.
B. Reset the EAB, then notify the IC to cancel the emergency

3. B

54

4. Which point about the specifications for the HT is inaccurate? (2.7.5, 3.4, 5.2)

A. The EAB can be activated from the HT base by holding it down for about ½ a second
B. The EAB can be deactivated using the HT base by holding it down for about 2 seconds
C. The Time Out Timer feature on the radio will emit a short audible warning tone at about 23
seconds, followed by a cut-off of the transmitter at 30 seconds
D. When depressing the PTT button, members should take a slight pause (1/4 second) to allow
the HT to transmit its electronic ID signal prior to speaking

4. C

3.4 30 Second Time-Out-Timer
This feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is
especially useful to correct the "stuck-button" problem. At the remote microphone
speaker, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a
continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds. This indicates that the transmitter has been
shut off. The operator can re-key the transmitter again if a longer transmission is
required. This resets the Time-Out-Timer.

55

5. Which point below concerning Handie-Talkies is incorrect? (7.1, Chart—Pg 12-13)

A. Channel 16 is reserved for use at the discretion of the IC as an emergency channel
B. Transmission wattage decreases on HT channels as the battery drains
C. HT Channel 9 is a digital channel that supports the emergency alert function
D. All channels on the HT on all Zones A, B, and C are 5 watt channels with the exception of
Tactical Channel 1 and Tactical Channel 3

5. C

Digital channels do not support the EAB feature

56

6. Which one of the Ladder Company positional numbers marked on their BF-4 for their HT
radios is correct? (4.3)

A. Officer—02 B. Irons—03 C. OV—04 D. Can—05

6. C

57

7. In an Engine Company with 4 FF’s, the Spare Radio would be marked on the BF-4 as the
number _____ radio? (4.3)

A. 03 B. 04 C. 05 D. 06

7. D

58

8. Battalion 10 responds to a report of a fire on the corner of 125th Street and 3rd Avenue. On
his arrival, the Chief hears on the Department radio, Battalion 12 transmit a 10-75 for another
box on 125th Street and Lexington Avenue, one block away. Battalion 10 then also transmits a
10-75 for a different fire on 3rd Avenue. Regarding the use of the secondary tactical channel in
this situation, it would be incorrect to state that? (7.2.2 BC QUESTION)

A. The first incident in a borough where a 10-75 is transmitted will have priority use of
Channel 1 (Primary tactical)
B. The IC will notify the Dispatcher if a Secondary Tactical Channel will be placed into use
C. The FF assigned to the IC where the Secondary Tactical Channel will be used shall contact
all units already on scene to inform them of the necessary channel change
D. When contacting units on scene to advise them to switch to a secondary tactical channel—
advise units by either personal contact or a brief message on Channel 1

8. A

1st unit that escalates to a signal 7-5

59


9. Implementation of a Command Channel is mandated in which of the following
situation(s)? (7.3.2 BC QUESTION)

A. 2nd Alarm B. 10-60 C. 10-66 D. 10-76 E. 10-77

9. B, C, D

60

10. BC’(s) operating at a fourth alarm with a Command Channel in place should know that
which BC’s will operate on Tactical Channel 1 with their aides monitoring Command Channel
2? (7.3.5 B, C, F BC QUESTION)

A. Safety Officer D. Sector / Group Supervisor
B. Resource Unit Leader E. Staging Area Manager
C. Air Recon F. Planning Chie

10. A, B, D


B. Sector/Group supervisors operating in tactical positions will continue to
operate on the designated Tactical Channel to maintain control of on-
going operations being conducted by units under their supervision. Their
assigned firefighter will monitor and maintain communications on the
designated Command Channel.
Tactical Supervisors operating on the tactical channel are:
 Sector Supervisor and/or Branch Director (Fire Floor, Floor Above,
Roof, Exposure, etc.)
 Group Supervisors operating in a tactical position, (Search and Rescue
Group Supervisor, Collapse Group Supervisor, etc.)
C. Other Chief Officers operating on the Tactical Channel are:
 Safety Officers, assigned firefighter to monitor command.
 Resources Unit Leader, assigned firefighter to monitor command.

61


11. You are a company officer operating at a 3rd alarm in a taxpayer where operations are in the
overhaul stage and will require another 15-20 minutes of work. You then notice that your HT
radio has just begun to chirp. In this situation, you would be correct to think that?
(Ch 11—Add 1—1)

A. Your battery has about 15% of its full charge capacity remaining (factoring a usage of
10% receive-10% transmit-80% standby)
B. The battery will power the radio enough to still receive and transmit at 2 watts
C. The battery has just under the power threshold for transmitting a 5 watt channel
D. This battery should be replaced 15-20 minutes later when operations are conclude

11. B

SAFETY NOTES:
 Radios that chirp have approximately 5-10% of its full charge battery capacity
remaining (factoring 10% TX-10% RX-80% Standby usage). While these
batteries will power the radios enough to still receive transmissions and transmit
at 2 watts, testing has shown that the battery power is just above the power
threshold for transmitting a 5 watt emergency alert. Such batteries shall be
replaced immediately, or as soon as possible.
 To extend battery life, HTs should be turned OFF upon return to quarters.
 Units are issued ONLY 2 batteries per assigned HT.
 Batteries need to be used and charged on a regular basis. If this cycle is
disrupted for more than 2 weeks, the batteries’ charging capacity will become
greatly diminished. Therefore, storing batteries for extended times without
usage is considered an UNSAFE ACT.
 The FDNY Radio Repair Shop will make exchanges of batteries on a rotating basis.

62

12. Regarding the storage, maintenance and use of HT batteries, it would be incorrect to state
that? (CH 11—Add 1—1, 1.2)

A. If a battery is not used and charged for over 1 week, its charging capacity will become
greatly diminished
B. Storing batteries for extended times without usage is an unsafe act
C. Members shall not use screwdrivers or other tools to detach a battery from a radio
D. If battery removal from a radio is too difficult, the entire HT with battery shall be placed
OOS

12. A

63


13. All members should be aware that if a green light flashes while they are attempting to
transmit, it indicates the battery is? (CH 11—Add 1—2.1)

A. Too low to transmit, but reception may be possible
B. Too low to receive, but transmitting may be possible
C. Too low to transmit or receive
D. Able to both transmit and receive

13. A

64

14. Which point is incorrect regarding HT batteries and chargers? (CH 11—ADD 1—
3.7, 4.1, 5.2)

A. An on-vehicle battery charger may take up to 3 hours to charge a fully drained battery
B. On the first date of every month, the company officer working the 9 x 6 tour shall insure all
HT batteries assigned to their unit have their reconditioning due date checked
C. Each time a battery is placed on a HT, its reconditioning due date shall be checked
D. A battery received from an exchange at a depot, before being used, must be left on the
charger until the charger light turns green
E. A battery need not be removed from a charger when turning green. It can remain in the
charger as it will receive a trickle charge

14. D


3.7 Exchanged batteries received from the depot must be left on the charger for a minimum
of 14 hours before using.

65


15. The FAST Unit member monitoring the Battalion FAST RADIO sees an emergency
transmission that has the following display “EM 8001004” In this situation, this would indicate a
transmission from the radio of the? (CH 11—Add 2—2.1, 2.2)

A. Rescue One Hook C. Rescue One OV
B. Squad One Backup D. Squad One Hook

15. B

66


16. The FAST Unit member monitoring the Battalion FAST RADIO now sees another
emergency transmission that has the following display “EM 6020227” In this situation, this
would indicate a transmission from the radio of a? (CH 11—Add 2—2.1, 2.2)

A. Division Chief B. Battalion Chief C. Division Spare D. Special Unit

16. C

2.1 First digit designation:
1 Rescue 6Spares (Depots, BFC and Miscellaneous)
2 Staff, Division and Battalion 7Ladder
3 EMS (All Units) 8Squad
4 (Future Use) 9Special Units
5 Engine 0Not Used (not programmable)

Example: The first digit 2 000 000 Designates Staff, Division and Battalion

67

BC Questions---Use this scenario to answer Questions 17 - 18
A Battalion Chief arrives at the scene of a major emergency incident in Brooklyn where the
first arriving units have transmitted a 10-75 and the BC needs to communicate with the
Police Department via the I/ O radio

17. In this situation, the BC would know that to communicate with the PD via the I/O channel,
he should contact the Borough Fire Communications Dispatcher and the City-wide I/O
Channel Dispatcher on the BC’s HT via ___________? (Add 3—2.1)

A. Zone B—Channel 5 C. Zone C—Channel 5
B. Zone B—Channel 10 D. Zone C—Channel 10

17. C

2.1 When an FDNY Incident Commander and/or EMS Chief Officer needs to communicate
with a counterpart from the Police Department via I/O frequencies, they will contact the
city wide I/O channel dispatcher (Zone C channel 5 for FDNY or Zone PD channel 3 for
EMS Chief Officer) and the Borough Fire Communications Dispatcher. The city wide
I/O frequency is always active and continuously staffed by personnel from the NYPD.

68




BC Questions---Use this scenario to answer Questions 17 - 18
A Battalion Chief arrives at the scene of a major emergency incident in Brooklyn where the
first arriving units have transmitted a 10-75 and the BC needs to communicate with the
Police Department via the I/ O radio

18. C

69


19. Regarding the use of the TAC “U” Channel, it would be incorrect to state that?
(Add 4—2.1, 2.2, 3.1)

A. Zone A—Channel 13 is the TAC “U” Channel
B. The emergency alert tone will sound on both FDNY HT’s and NYPD HT’s—on each
respective TAC “U” Channel
C. All FDNY HT’s have the capability to operate on TAC “U”
D. The TAC “U” Channel is a 5 watt Channe

19. B

The emergency alert tone is
audible only on Fire Department handie-talkies and only on the activated frequency. The
ranking FDNY member must ensure that the ranking on-scene police official is aware
when an emergency alert tone is activated.

70

20. When a Battalion Chief is operating at an incident where he is the IC and activates the TAC
“U” Channel, it would be correct to state that? (BC QUESTION) (Add 4 3.3)

1. The IC will operate on the TAC “U” Channel and their aide will monitor the Primary
Tactical Channel
2. If a Command Channel is activated, the IC will operate on the Command Channel, and
their aide will monitor the Primary Tactical Channel, and another member at the Command
Post at the ICP will be designated to monitor the TAC “U” Channel

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2

20. B


3.3.2 The ranking FDNY member will operate on the Primary Tactical Channel; their
aide shall operate on the TAC “U” Channel.
Should a Command Channel be activated, the ranking FDNY member will
operate on the Command Channel and direct all Chiefs not operating on the
TAC “U” Channel to switch to the Command Channel.
The ranking FDNY member with their aide must remain together, the aide shall
monitor the Primary Tactical Channel.
Another member at the command post, designated by the ranking FDNY member,
shall monitor the TAC “U” Channel.
Both the Primary and TAC “U” Channels must be monitored during Command
Channel activation

71

21. An Engine responds to a CFR-D call where there is a report of a patient having difficulty
breathing. Regarding the use of the EMS/Fire Interoperability frequency on this response, it
would be incorrect to state that? (Add 5—3.1--3.6)

A. The EMS / Fire I/O frequency is Channel 10
B. Members shall refrain from using 10 codes or terminology and use plain english instead on
this channel.
C. The Backup FF in the Engine shall switch to Channel 10 as the apparatus leaves quarters
and remain on this channel until the CFR-D company leaves the scene
D. If an ambulance is on-scene first, the Backup FF will initiate contact using the company’s
designation (Engine 79 to EMS)

21. C

3.4 Upon arrival at a CFR-D assignment, the Back-up FF and the EMS Technician shall
switch to the EMS/Fire IO frequency.
3.5 The Back-up FF and the EMS Technician shall remain on the EMS/Fire IO frequency until
the CFR-D Company leaves the scene. After leaving the assignment, the Back-up FF and
the EMS Technician shall ensure their radios are switched back to the primary
tactical/appropriate Borough Dispatch frequency.

72


22. Use of the extra HT (Door position HT) in a 4 FF Engine as a spare is prohibited unless the
Engine is awaiting delivery of a spare HT from their depot or the supply at the depot is depleted.
(Add 6—2.2)

A. Agree or D. Disagree

22. A

2.2 Use of the extra HT (door position) assigned to 4 firefighter engines as a spare is
prohibited except for the following:
• awaiting delivery of a spare HT from a depot
• supply at a HT depot is depleted

Decks in Firetech Class (61):