WEEK #14 WEEK OF 04/29/13 PART I – LOFTS PART II – AUC #351 {PHOTOVOLTAIC} PART III – EMERGENCIES – WATER RESCUE 1 PART IV – TB - ROPE #2, 3 & 4 PART IV – DUNN Ch. #3 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #14 WEEK OF 04/29/13 PART I – LOFTS PART II – AUC #351 {PHOTOVOLTAIC} PART III – EMERGENCIES – WATER RESCUE 1 PART IV – TB - ROPE #2, 3 & 4 PART IV – DUNN Ch. #3 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #14 WEEK OF 04/29/13 PART I – LOFTS PART II – AUC #351 {PHOTOVOLTAIC} PART III – EMERGENCIES – WATER RESCUE 1 PART IV – TB - ROPE #2, 3 & 4 PART IV – DUNN Ch. #3 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Deck (60):
1

1. The glossary of FFP-Loft Buildings contains many terms that are not found elsewhere in
FDNY publications. Which one of the following is incorrectly described? (Glossary)
(A) Ashlar masonry is stone cut into rectangular units (most often 18” to 24” high by 2 to 3 feet
long). Attached to the façade wall of a building using cement mortar or cement/lime mix. Iron
plating is sometimes used to imitate Ashlar masonry.
(B) Quoins are block masonry cornerstones usually covered with cast-iron plating located at
each end of the front façade of a cast –iron loft building.
(C) A sawtooth roof is a roof designed to disperse natural light uniformly throughout the
interior of a structure. Utilizes a number of parallel roof sections (one per bay) of triangular
shape and near vertical glazing (commonly facing due north).
(D) Terra cotta tile arch floors are segmented terra cotta tile arches sprung between wroughtiron
beams. These floors will not be found where heavy loads are supported.

1. D

Terra cotta tile arch
floor
Segmented terra cotta tile arch sprung between wrought-iron beams.
Used for warehouses where heavy loads would be supported.

2

2. Older cast-iron lofts were built from 1840 to the 1870s. Many of these buildings are 7 to 8
stories in height having front and rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron. Which construction
feature of older cast-iron lofts is incorrect? (4.1)
(A) Many of these structures have first floor extensions protruding up to 10 feet beyond the
upper floors of the building in the rear.
(B) Frontage is usually 25 feet (indicating no interior columns) with depths reaching 90 feet
and frontage on only one street.
(C) Interior support columns can be composed of cast-iron, wrought-iron, brick, or wood. The
height between the floor and ceiling is a minimum of 8 feet.
(D) These structures usually have 2 stairways. One stairway is a straight run stair, and the
second stairway often winds around the elevator shaft.

2. D

These structures have one unenclosed
wooden stair, often winding around the elevator shaft or one straight run stair.

3

3. Newer cast-iron lofts, which were constructed from the 1880s to 1901, may be built higher
(8-12 stories) and wider than Oder Cast-iron lofts. All exterior walls have a minimum ____ hour
fire resistive rating and generally there are two interior stairways located inside enclosed walls
having a _____ hour fire resistive rating. (4.2)
(A) 3, 3
(B) 3, 2
(C) 2, 2
(D) 2, 3

3. B

4

4. Fireproof lofts are the newest and most common type of loft building. These lofts have
exterior walls of brick, cement block, masonry, stone or metal (steel frame) and floors
constructed of steel-reinforced concrete sometimes covered over with wood or other finishes.
Which of the following choices incorrectly describes these buildings? (4.4)
(A) These buildings range from 10-15 stories in height. Rectangular dimensions are usually
between 50 to 100 feet or more in width and from 75 to 200 feet deep.
(B) Interior stairs may be open or enclosed. Windows are not operable in these buildings.
(C) High voltage demand may necessitate the installation of power lines and step-down
transformers located at roof level. Electrical service panels may be found on multiple floors
servicing several different tenants.
(D) Large area lofts often require one or more pressure tanks to ensure operability throughout
all sections of the building. Wall hydrant/manifold outlets located at sidewalk or top floor/roof
levels may also be available for engine company use.

4. B

5

5. Sidewalk vaults are often found in Older Cast-iron Lofts. These vaults are three-wall
enclosures located under the front sidewalk. The vault can extend downward to all sub-levels of
the building and may extend the full width of the sidewalk. Choose the correct indicator of a full
vault. (5.1.1)
(A) Small segmented fixed glass orbs (deadlights).
(B) A large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line.
(C) Diamond plate supported by a wrought-iron frame.
(D) Cubed glass supported by a cast-iron frame.

5. B

6

6. Older Cast-iron Lofts often contain both passenger and freight elevators, normally located
within the area of the front wall. Which one of the following choices is correct? (5.1.2)
(A) Freight elevators will be installed with Firemen Service capabilities.
(B) When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a
“SHAFTWAY” sign across the inner portion of the window that is clearly visible from the
interior of the building.
(C) Avoid placing aerial or portable ladders to these shaft windows or operating streams into
them under all circumstances due to the high potential for injury.
(D) Shaft windows may have boards across their lower portion, placed to serve as a warning of
an open shaft. These windows will look identical to the other windows in the front façade.
7.

6. D

When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is
required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the outer portion of the window
that is clearly visible from the street. Avoid placing aerial or portable ladders to
these shaft windows or operating streams into them unless visible fire is
extending up the shaft. Shaft windows may have boards across their lower
portion, placed to serve as a warning of an open shaft. These windows will look
identical to the other windows in the front façade.

7

7. Enclosed air and light shafts provide air and light to all floors and are normally found in the
center of deep loft buildings. Where would you normally be able to locate one of these shafts?
(5.1.3)
(A) In the cellar.
(B) At the top floor level.
(C) Inside the first floor bathroom.
(D) Standing in the street in front of the building

7. C

8

8. Although flat floor skylights are no longer found in cast iron lofts, the replacement flooring
may not be supported sufficiently resulting in floor collapse from either weight and/or fire. In
which of the following loft buildings would you be most likely to discover this dangerous
condition? (5.1.7)
(A) Small dimensional lofts built on a corner lot
(B) Large dimensional lofts built on interior lots without exterior shafts
(C) Large dimensional lofts built on corner lots with numerous exterior shafts
(D) Small dimensional lofts built on interior lots with numerous exterior shafts

8. B

9

9. Iron window shutters may still be found in loft buildings, although they may be
welded/bolted closed for security reasons. These shutters are generally installed on the rear and
side walls of lofts, and originally 6 inch round openings were cut into every _____ row of iron
shutters as well as shutters protecting _____. (5.1.9)
(A) Third horizontal, shaft windows
(B) Fourth vertical, windows on fire escapes
(C) Third vertical, windows on fire escapes
(D) Fourth horizontal, shaft windows

9. C

5.1.9 Iron Window Shutters - generally installed on the rear and side walls of lofts.
They were mandated by law on loft buildings with plain glass windows situated
less than 30 feet horizontally from another building or less than 50 feet vertically
from the roof of an adjoining building. Originally, 6 inch round openings were
cut into every third vertical row of iron shutters as well as shutters protecting
windows on fire escapes, to assist firefighters in accessing the steel hook and
catch to facilitate entry into the building. Today, these 6 inch openings are
commonly covered over with steel plating (Photo 13). Iron windows shutters may
have been completely removed during residential conversions or welded/bolted
closed for security reasons in other type occupancies.

10

10. When subjected to the heat from a fire for long periods of time, cast-iron columns can
fracture and fail. When cast-iron is heated to 1110 degrees Fahrenheit, what percentage of its
original strength remains? (5.1.10 F)
(A) 58%
(B) 42%
(C) 48%
(D) 52%

10. B

F. When subjected to the heat from a fire for long periods of time, cast-iron
columns can fracture and fail.
 At 1,100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses 58% of its original strength.
 The strength lost is cumulative and is never regained.
 Iron fibers (like steel) when heated elongate or extend the column. A
structural cast-iron column, however, unable to move will crack.

11

11. When cast-iron loses its’ strength, the strength lost is cumulative and is never regained.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning cast-iron columns? (5.1.10)
(A) Iron fibers (like steel) when heated elongate or extend the column. A structural cast-iron
column, however, unable to move will crack.
(B) Cast–iron columns cast improperly and/or not meeting the acceptable thickness
commensurate to the load they are required to support are inherently weak links in the overall
construction of the building. Often it can be determined if a column was cast properly by closely
examining it.
(C) When properly cast, cast iron columns will withstand a great deal of thermal stress. The
statement that all cast-iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline is a
myth.
(D) If an improperly cast column us cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately
leading to potential failure.

11. B

12

12. Depressed rear courtyards are often found in loft buildings 100 feet in depth. Which one of
the following correctly describes characteristics of these courtyards? (5.1.12)
(A) Sturdy sheds are built to enclose depressed courtyards.
(B) To provide natural light below grade, the roofs of these sheds were constructed using plain,
easily breakable glass.
(C) These glass roofs may be tarred or planked over for security reasons, creating what appears
to be and mistaken for a weight-bearing roof.
(D) These shed roofs, when removed, will not provide adequate ventilation for sub level and
first floor fires due to their construction.

12. C

13

13. Straight run stairs are often found in older Cast Iron loft buildings. These stairs are
constructed of wood having stairway walls covered with wainscoting. Of the following choices,
which one does not correctly describe an advantage or drawback of these stairs? (5.1.13)
(A) When the 1938 Building Code required the stairs to be fire protected, many owners covered
the wainscoting with tin. This area should not be overlooked during overhauling due to fire
spread.
(B) A fire located at the front top floor of the building will require enough hose to go from the
ground floor to the top floor and then travel to the front of the building. In some cases, straight
run stairs do not go all the way to the rear wall.
(C) Older Cast-iron loft construction utilized floor joists with mortise and tenon joints abutting
the framework for these stairs. This construction reduces the potential for stair collapse.
(D) The underside of the stair passes through the interior of each apartment and could be
exposed if the fire is in that area.

13. C

14

14. When there is a fire in a building that is attached to Exposure 2 and 4, it is often difficult to
determine the actual fire building and the width of this building. Which one of the following
features found in older Cast-iron lofts will assist firefighters in accurately discerning the width of
the fire building? (5.1.17, 5.1.19, 5.1.23, 5.1.24)
(A) Quoins
(B) Plate glass facades
(C) Ornamental roof cornices and pediments
(D) Exterior Insulation Finishing Systems

14. A

5.1.23 Quoins- are used by architects to give the impression of strength and firmness to
the outline of the building. They provide firefighters with a visual contrasting
feature to neighboring buildings on Exposures 2 and 4 allowing members to
accurately discern the width of the fire building (Photo 26).

15

15. There are several features that are found in Newer Cast-iron lofts, including segmental arch
floors, wrought-iron girders/beams/lintels, and double columns. Choose the incorrect description
from the following. (5.2.1, 5.2.2,)
(A) Segmental Arch floors were used to span the gap between cast-iron or wrought-iron beams.
All parts of the floor arch system are in compression. Segmental arch floors should not be
breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area.
(B) Wrought-iron, like cast-iron, is strong in compression but weak in tension. Wrought-iron
was often used for vertical as well as horizontal structural elements.
(C) Wrought-iron beams were sometimes manufactured with depths up to 15 inches making
them the only practical structural element for carrying segmental arch floors having spans greater
than 20 feet.
(D) Wrought-iron may delaminate as well rust at their connections, compromising its’ strength
and integrity. Like steel and cast-iron, wrought-iron when heated in a fire situation will elongate
and lose strength. Both of these characteristics can lead to a collapse

15. B

5.2.2 Wrought-Iron Girders/Beams/Lintels- unlike cast-iron, which is strong in
compression but weak in tension, wrought-iron is equally strong in compression
and tension making it a logical substitute in the mid-19th century for horizontal
structural elements.

16

16. Mill Lofts, also known as Heavy Timber lofts, range from 4 to 6 stories in height having all
4 exterior walls load-bearing and constructed of brick, concrete block or stone. All of the
following are characteristics of Mill Loft buildings with the exception of which choice?
(5.3.3, 5.3.4, 5.3.8, 5.3.10)
(A) Heavy timber floors are used. These consist of plank floors, 3 inches thick, laid directly
onto beams and girders which are a minimum of 6 inches in any direction. A general rule of
thumb for the run of the original hardwood finished flooring is from front to rear.
(B) Some roofs are supported by wooden truss components. Vertical ventilation of truss roofs
is generally restricted to opening up skylights and stair bulkhead doors.
(C) Mill sawtooth roofs are typically of wood truss design. A steel cable, however, may be
substituted for the top chord.
(D) Steel tension cables or rods with reinforcing plates, commonly in the shape of a star, can be
seen on exterior walls. They were installed during construction by design (indicated by a
uniform pattern) or put in post-construction (irregular pattern) when floor framing cannot be
relied upon to tie-in opposing walls due to age and deterioration.

16. C

5.3.10 Sawtooth Roofs - These roofs will impose unique obstacles to firefighters
regarding roof access, egress, extinguishment, and vertical ventilation.
Maneuvering up and over the peaks and valleys of sawtooth roofs will be difficult
at best, even under non-fire conditions. Mill sawtooths are typically of wood
truss design (Photo 33). A steel cable, however, may be substituted for the
bottom chord. Sawtooth roofs of steel and/or reinforced concrete construction can
also be found in fireproof lofts.

17

17. Wooden interior columns are often found in Mill lofts. Girder-column intersection
connections utilized a cast-iron pintle (cylindrical pin) to avoid wood shrinkage problems. An
alternate connection brought the column through the girder at its’ full width. Square columns
(____ % _____ than round ones of equal dimension) are used on the lower floors. (5.3.2)
(A) 15, stronger
(B) 20, weaker
(C) 15, weaker
(D) 20, stronger

17. D

Square columns (20% stronger than round ones
of equal dimension) are used on the lower floors while round columns are reserved
for the upper floors.

18

18. Fireproof loft buildings are used for both commercial and residential purposes. Which of
the following features of a fireproof loft is not correctly described? (5.4.1, 5.4.2, 5.4.3, 5.4.9)
(A) Flat slab “mushroom” floors are unique to Fireproof loft buildings. These type floors
provide a greater clear height from floor to floor than beam and girder construction.
(B) Casement windows are constructed of multiple glass panes placed in a wrought-iron or
light steel frame. These 8’x10’ windows do not provide ventilation since they tilt open
horizontally.
(C) Skywalks are bridges that may interconnect adjoining buildings at one or more floors above
ground level. Many of these skywalks are sealed closed at both ends or structurally unsound
negating their use for occupant egress and firefighting.
(D) High voltage service panels can be found on several different floors adjacent to each of the
main entrances in a multi-tenant loft. High voltage power lines and step-down electrical
transformers can be encountered on the roof.

18. B

5.4.3 Casement Windows - constructed of multiple glass panes placed in a wroughtiron
or light steel frame. Approximately 8’ x 10’ in dimension, they provide an
excellent point for horizontal ventilation. Access, egress, and the removal of
victims during rescue operations via bucket platform, aerial and portable ladders
will prove difficult, however, since they tilt open horizontally.

19

19. In all types of Loft buildings, the initial hoselines shall be 2 ½ inch. All of the following
are incorrect tactics to use at Loft buildings with the exception of which one? (6.1.5,
6.1.6, 6.1.7, 6.1.8)
(A) Large fires may require two lines on the fire floor. The officer supervising the second
hoseline should not advance to the floor above until assured the first hoseline has extinguished
the fire.
(B) For advanced fires a quick knock-down using the engine’s deck pipe will allow for a rapid
interior attack once a hoseline is in position. The use of large caliber streams (LCS) can only be
ordered by a chief.
(C) There is potential for a backdraft on interior floors where vertical ventilation is not
possible. Utilize the reach of the hose stream and begin the attack with firefighters as low as
possible. This may require starting from a few steps down the stairs from the entrance.
(D) Do not immediately discharge a hoseline into the fire area when it is accessed. This will
not prevent a backdraft.
(E) Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and possibly fail when struck by
water from a hoseline below. Operate the stream directly overhead when fire is rolling on the
underside of a segmental arch floor.

19. C

6.1.5 Large fires may require two lines on the fire floor. The second hoseline is usually
stretched by way of the interior stairs to the same floor as the first line for
augmentation. If not needed on the original fire floor it is then advanced to the
floor above. The officer supervising the second hoseline should not advance to
the floor above until assured the first hoseline is making progress and is capable
of handling the fire floor. All hoseline commitment and coordination must be
communicated to all officers in the Fire sector.
6.1.6 For advanced fires a quick knock-down using the engine’s deck pipe will allow
for a rapid interior attack once a hoseline is in position. Outside streams should
be used only as long as necessary to extinguish visible fire. Expect these
buildings to be deep.
Note: The use of large caliber streams (LCS) can only be ordered by the IC.
This includes the first arriving engine officer.
6.1.7 There is the potential for a backdraft on intermediate floors where vertical
ventilation is not possible. Position the hoseline with firefighters to the side of
the entrance to the fire area. Utilize the reach of the hose stream and begin the
attack with firefighters as low as possible. This may require starting from a few
steps down the stairs from the entrance. The hoseline should be immediately
discharged into the fire area when it is accessed. Taking this action before
firefighters and outside air enters a potentially explosive fire area, will allow the
water stream to break-up and cool the ambient air. This should be coordinated
with exterior ventilation.
6.1.8 Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and possibly fail when
struck by water from a hoseline below. Use the reach of the stream and do not
operate the stream directly overhead.

20

20 There are several specific engine company tactics discussed for cellar and sub-cellar fires
in Cast-iron and Mill Loft buildings. Which engine is not operating correctly? (6.2.1)
(A) The first engine company should stretch the initial hoseline via the interior to the fire area.
In a building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if staffing and conditions
permit, a supply line shall be stretched to feed this system.
(B) If conditions prevent initial hoseline from advancing down the interior stairs, the first
engine shall notify the IC and remain at this position to prevent upward extension.
(C) In a building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area or adjacent area, if the
first engine has not supplied it, the second engine shall stretch a supply line to feed this system.
The second engine company shall stretch a second hoseline if needed.
(D) The third engine company shall be assisted by the fourth engine company in stretching the
second hoseline. If the first hoseline is unable to advance into the fire area, the second hoseline
may need to gain an alternate access point into the fire area.

20. C

21

21. Which engine company must ensure that the sprinkler system servicing the fire area is
supplied at a lower floor fire? (6.2.2)
(A) First engine company
(B) Second engine company
(C) Third engine company
(D) Fourth engine company

21. C

22

22. Ladder company operations at Cast-iron and Mill Loft buildings are extensive and require
coordination. The first ladder company is responsible for VES of the fire floor, and the second
ladder company is responsible for VES of the floors above. Of the following, which general
tactic is stated incorrectly? (7.1.2, 7.1.7, 7.1.12, 7.1.16)
(A) Tower ladders should be positioned for the use of their LCS where needed. A position
which also permits the use of an aerial ladder would be ideal.
(B) Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies to carry thermal imaging cameras.
Search ropes are required only for larger lofts.
(C) The ladder company officer on the fire floor should transmit the fire conditions, layout and
all pertinent features to the Incident Commander. Request additional assistance if the
dimensions of the fire floor make it impractical for one ladder company to effectively and safely
operate alone.
(D) Fire-vented windows where wind is blowing the fire back into the fire occupancy may
require the deployment of KO curtain(s) and/or the fire window blanket.

22. B

7.1.7 Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies carry search ropes and
thermal imaging cameras.

23

23. Ladder 100 and Ladder 200 arrive at a fire in the cellar of a cast iron loft building. Which
action taken is incorrect? (7.2.1)
(A) The first ladder company attempted to gain access to the cellar via the interior stairs. After
determining that they would be unsuccessful, the officer communicated conditions to the IC and
2nd ladder company, and remained on the 1st floor with the first hoseline.
(B) The second ladder company gained access to the fire area via an adjoining building for the
second hoseline. This was communicated and coordinated with the IC.
(C) `The LCCs assisted in ventilation by opening up sidewalk access points prior to performing
other duties. The 2nd LCC then proceeded to the rear of the building to perform further cellar
ventilation.
(D) The Roof FFs accessed the roof via an adjoining building. Vertical ventilation of the
straight run stairs was coordinated with Inside team and Engine Company officers.

23. C

B. Chauffeurs
1. After completion of laddering duties, first arriving ladder company
chauffeurs should assist in ventilation by opening up sidewalk
access points. This should be accomplished while remaining in the
front of the building, immediately available to position or reposition
ladders as needed.

24

24. At a lower floor fire in a Cast-iron or Mill Loft building, who should notify the IC of the
presence of straight run stairs, and who may proceed to the rear to assist the OV FFs as
instructed by their officer? (7.2.2)
(A) First ladder company inside team, 2nd Roof FF
(B) Second ladder company inside team, 1st LCC
(C) First ladder company inside team, 2nd LCC
(D) Second ladder company inside team, 2nd LCC

24. D

25

25. Ladder company operations at Fireproof Loft buildings are predicated on whether the
building is used for residential or nonresidential purposes. Choose the incorrect statement from
below. ( 7.3.1, 7.3.2)
(A) Expansive and un-compartmented floor areas may require coordinated team searches using
search ropes in residential use fireproof lofts.
(B) Large building dimensions and floor areas together with high ceilings necessitate a team
approach when performing VES operations in non-residential use fireproof lofts.
(C) In non-residential use lofts, only one ladder company should be used on each floor to avoid
duplication of effort.
(D) In residential use fireproof lofts, the potential for a wind-driven event exists, even at lower
floor fires.

25. C

2. Large un-compartmented areas make searching for victims and fire
extremely difficult. Consideration must be given to using multiple
ladder companies on individual floors. Coordinated team searches
using search ropes will facilitate search and enhance safety.

26

26. The first to arrive BC shall establish the Incident Command Post in proximity to the front
of the fire building. All of the following must be considered by this BC with the exception of
which choice? (BC ONLY) (8.1.1, 8.1.2, 8.2.1, 8.2.2)
(A) Large area lofts may require the utilization of the Post radio.
(B) Rebreather Units may be used for pre and post fire control search operations, as well as
routine firefighting operations in Loft buildings.
(C) Forcible entry into sidewalk vaults can be labor intensive. Consider the use of SOC units
with specialized tools.
(D) Consider the necessity for ladder apparatus placement at each exterior building wall
fronting on a street at lower and upper floor fires.

26. B

27

1. Roof installations can be stand-mounted, flush-mounted, or integrated design. Choose the
incorrect description from the following. (5.1, 5.2, 5.3)
(A) Stand mounted equipment is also known as universal mounting because it can be installed
both on rooftops as well as on the ground. They are typically used with larger solar panel
systems.
(B) Flush mounted PV arrays are commonly used with small solar arrays and on peaked roofs
because the structural design cannot support large ones.
(C) Integrated PV arrays serve as a structural element (roof, wall, canopy or skylight). It
increases weight and the vulnerability of the equipment to high winds.
(D) Integrated, as well as flush-mounted arrays may be difficult or impossible to detect during
nighttime hours.

1. C

5.3 Integrated design (Figure 7)
Integrated PV arrays serve as a structural element (roof, wall, canopy or skylight). It
thereby reduces concentrations of added weight and avoids penetrations required for
mountings and wiring. It also reduces the vulnerability of the equipment to high winds.
The photovoltaic shingle, made to look like conventional asphalt shingles, is one such
technology. The development of “thin-film” photovoltaics has also led to the increased
use of integrated design. Integrated, as well as flush-mounted arrays, may be difficult or
impossible to detect during nighttime hours.

28

2. While discussing Photovoltaic systems during drill, the Lt. made several statements. The
Lt. should read AUC 351 again because only one statement was correct. Choose the correct
statement. (6.1, 6.2)
(A) Firefighters walking on modules will not be exposed to electric shock as long as power is
shut off at the main electrical panel.
(B) Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array, unless power has been
removed at the inverter.
(C) Inverters have capacitors which store energy. The energy within the capacitors, however,
will discharge soon after the power the inverter is disconnected.
(D) At fires, the opening/removal of skylights and scuttles as well as horizontal ventilation
should be the prime focus of ladder company operations. If further ventilation is needed, the PV
modules may be removed and the roof cut.

2. C

29

ANSWER QUESTIONS 3 - 5 BASED ON THE BELOW INFORMATION:
Engine 100, Engine 200, Ladder 300, Ladder 400 and Battalion 500 responded to a
reported fire in a 5 story NLT. While responding, the address of 100 Smith St. is given as
the reported fire building, and the dispatcher reads the following CIDS information:
MD-5 STY 50X85 CL3-PV ARRAY ON ROOF
LIMITED ROOF OPERATIONS-PV DISCONNECTS
LOCATED AT ROOF&CELLAR-INSTALLER
CONTACT # (000)000-0000
Upon arrival, Battalion 50 transmits a 10-75 for fire on the top floor of 100 Smith St.

3. Of the following actions taken, which one should be corrected?
(A) Ladder 300 and Ladder 400 opened ceilings to check the cockloft for fire, while taking care
to avoid compromising PV conduit and components.
(B) The roof firefighters, after determining that the roof must be cut, cut in areas that were
clear of PV arrays.
(C) The IC, after receiving HT transmissions that the main body of fire had been extinguished,
ordered the ladder companies to begin immediate overhaul of the top floor to ascertain if fire had
entered the cockloft.
(D) The IC requested a Ventilation Support Group response to facilitate smoke and heat
removal from the top floor once the fire has been extinguished.

3. D

30

ANSWER QUESTIONS 3 - 5 BASED ON THE BELOW INFORMATION:
Engine 100, Engine 200, Ladder 300, Ladder 400 and Battalion 500 responded to a
reported fire in a 5 story NLT. While responding, the address of 100 Smith St. is given as
the reported fire building, and the dispatcher reads the following CIDS information:
MD-5 STY 50X85 CL3-PV ARRAY ON ROOF
LIMITED ROOF OPERATIONS-PV DISCONNECTS
LOCATED AT ROOF&CELLAR-INSTALLER
CONTACT # (000)000-0000
Upon arrival, Battalion 50 transmits a 10-75 for fire on the top floor of 100 Smith St.

4. After cutting an examination hole in the roof, the Roof FF of Ladder 400 discovered an
advanced fire in the cockloft. The Roof FF also noticed PV conduit and components in the
cockloft. The BC in Battalion 500 transmitted a 2nd alarm upon being notified of the cockloft
fire, and issued several instructions. Which one should be corrected? (6.4, 6.6)
(A) Engine 600, the 3rd due engine, was instructed to stretch a handline with a fog nozzle to the
top floor to extinguish fire in the cockloft. The officer ensured the nozzle was set at a 30 degree
spray pattern.
(B) The officer of Engine 700, responding on the 2nd alarm, was instructed to prepare for a
foam operation in case the fire involved the PV components.
(C) The utility company and the licensed solar power installer were requested to respond
through the dispatcher.
(D) Engine 600 was instructed to use limited water and use the reach of the stream when
operating the fog stream near the energized PV components.

4. B

31

5. After the top floor and cockloft fires have been extinguished, and the PV system has been
shut down, a separate fire is discovered in the battery room in the cellar. Which of the following
concerning battery fires is incorrect? (6.7)
(A) Spilled electrolyte (sulfuric acid) from lead acid batteries will release toxic fumes during
evaporation. Sulfuric acid will dissolve many metals, releasing flammable hydrogen.
(B) Lithium ion batteries may burn rapidly and ignite nearby combustibles. Full PPE and
respiratory protection is mandatory.
(C) Dry chemical has proven to be effective on battery fires. Foam extinguishing agents are
ineffective on battery fires.
(D) The IC may have to suspend interior operations to test for hazardous conditions. Special
calling to the scene SOC companies with specific protective clothing and monitoring equipment
may be required.

5. C

The use of dry
chemical or foam extinguishing agents has proven to be effective on battery fires.

32

6. Which of the following safety and health concerns of PV electrical systems is the only
correct choice? (7)
(A) Combiner boxes may be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array.
(B) Utilizing disconnects ahead of the inverter will eliminate the electric current coming from
the PV array.
(C) PV systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at
night can energize the PV system.
(D) Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are powerful enough to generate
dangerous voltage from a PV array.

6. C

 PV systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at
night can energize the PV System.

 Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter still does not eliminate the electric
current coming from the PV array.

33

7. On buildings with sloped roofs, where will PV arrays generally be installed? (7)
(A) North and East facing sides
(B) South and West facing sides.
(C) South and East facing sides
(D) North and West facing sides

7. B

remember South West Airlines

34

8. Battalion Chiefs have many responsibilities at a fire or administrative assignment involving
PV systems. Which one of the following is incorrect? (BC only) (6.4, 7, 8.3)
(A) A Safety Officer should be assigned to the roof to oversee operations when firefighters are
working in close proximity to a PV system.
(B) When electrical shutdown is required, request the response of the appropriate utility
company for their expertise.
(C) If warranted, after an inspection of a hazardous condition relative to a PV system
installation that is imminently perilous to members or occupants, notify the dispatcher to have a
DOB representative respond.
(D) Restrict the use of water on energized PV system components until a Staff Chief has given
approval.

8. D

6.4 Using water on energized PV system components is a decision that should only be made
by the IC after careful size-up. If decided upon to use water as an extinguishing agent,
Engine company officers should position hoselines to cut off fire extension and push the
fire back toward the main fire area. Hose streams should not be applied directly onto
energized PV system components. A fog nozzle, utilized from a distance, and set at a 30
degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from travelling upstream
towards members operating hoselines. Straight steams or foam should not be used since
they are excellent conductors.

35

1. Ice, cold water and surf rescues although uncommon, can be among our most difficult and
dangerous responses. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect? (1.3, 2.1, 2.3, 2.4, 3.2)
(A) Some ladder and engine companies, as well as all special units have been equipped with
ice/cold water and surf rescue equipment.
(B) Any entry into the water or onto ice shall be considered as a last resort.
(C) The primary water rescuer position should be designated at roll call. It is good practice to
assign this duty to a specific riding position, in order to increase efficiency and reduce confusion
at one of these responses.
(D) The Cold Water Suit (CWS) and Personal Flotation Device (PFD) are not designed for
underwater operations. Any attempts at underwater operations with the CWS will cause the
rescuer to immediately surface, possibly trapping the rescuer under an ice shelf, under a pier, or
inside a submerged automobile.

1. C

36

2. The primary concern is the safety of the rescuers. There will be times when we should not
enter the water. This goes for drill as well as a rescue situation. Which one of the following
factors that would affect this decision is not stated correctly? (4.2)
(A) Water/weather conditions – factors such as wave height, presence of riptides or sweep tides
and lightning storms.
(B) Location of Victim- how far out the victim is and if they can be reached safely.
(C) Skill level of rescuer- can the rescuer reach the victim under the above circumstances or
will the rescuer eventually become a victim.
(D) Night operations- Members should not be allowed past verbal contact distance from the
shore. Portable lights should be brought to the scene.

2. D

4.2.1 Water/weather conditions – factors such as wave height, presence of riptides or
sweep tides and lightning storms.
4.2.2 Location of Victim- how far out the victim is and if they can be reached safely.
4.2.3 Skill level of rescuer - can the rescuer reach the victim under the above
circumstances or will the rescuer eventually become a victim.
4.2.4 Night operations - Members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the
shore. Portable lights should be brought to the scene.

37

3. Tests have shown that members wearing Bunker Gear with or without an SCBA became
totally submerged in under ______. The type of boot worn had no effect on the amount of time.
(4.3)
(A) 15 seconds
(B) 30 seconds
(C) 45 seconds
(D) 60 seconds

3. D

38

4. When victims have been removed from the water, there are many medical considerations.
Which one of the following choices is stated correctly? (5.1.2, 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.3.1, 5.3.3)
(A) Remove the victim to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling. Massage or rub the
victim to assist in regaining consciousness.
(B) The loss of body heat occurs 25 times faster in cold water than in air. Hypothermia
(subnormal body temperature) begins when the body’s core (brain, spinal cord, lungs and vital
organs) temperature falls below the level of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit.
(C) When the body’s core temperature begins to drop below 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit, the
victim transgresses from non-ambulatory into unconsciousness.
(D) Sudden face contact with cold water (below 70 degrees Fahrenheit) initiates a body reflex
known as the Mammalian Diving Reflex (MDR). This oxygen conserving mechanism is more
pronounced in older people, and therefore they are the best candidates for resuscitation. The
warmer the water and the older the victim, the better chance for survival.

4. B

5.2 Hypothermia
5.2.1 The loss of body heat occurs 25 times faster in cold water than in air.
Hypothermia (subnormal body temperature) begins when the body’s core (brain,
spinal chord, lungs and vital organs) temperature falls below the level of 98.6
degrees Fahrenheit. Cold water cools the body’s skin and outer tissues very
quickly. In approximately 7 to 15 minutes, core body temperature begins to drop
significantly, affecting utilization of the arms and legs. Blood pressure, pulse and
respiration rates all decrease. Muscles tense and shiver. Irrational behavior
(resisting help) is a good indicator of hypothermia.
5.2.2 When the body’s core temperature begins to drop below 90 degrees Fahrenheit,
the victim transgresses from non-ambulatory into unconsciousness. Low core
temperature, in conjunction with stress and shock, can cause cardiac and
respiratory failure.

39

5. There are 4 tides in 24 hours: 2 tides are coming in (High) and 2 are going out (Low).
Slack tide is 45 minutes between High and Low tides. Choose the incorrect choice from the
following. (6.2, 6.3)
(A) Rip tides or currents occur when the tide is going out. Rip currents are the primary source
of distress in drowning victims.
(B) To escape a rip current you should swim diagonal to the shore. Swimming back to the
shore will not help you.
(C) Sweep tides run parallel to the beach. They are more pronounced on out-going tides. The
waves are diagonal to the beach and can sweep swimmers into a rip current.
(D) Rescuers should enter the water upstream of the sweep. This will pull the rescuer towards
the victim.

5. B

6.2.1 To escape a rip current you should swim parallel to the shore line. Swimming
back to shore into the rip will not help and only make victim tired (Figure 1).

6.3.1 Sweep Tides can also be present in a rescue situation. This tide runs parallel to
the beach. It is more pronounced on out-going tides. The waves are diagonal to
the beach and can sweep swimmers into a rip current

40

6. Inflatable water rescue hose may be used during ice and water rescue
incidents/emergencies involving any number of conscious victims. Which of the following is the
only correct point about using this hose? (Add. 1 Sec 2.1)
(A) Lengths of 1 ¾”, 2 ½” or 3 ½” hose may be used.
(B) Air supply may be either from a SCBA, Fast Pak or apparatus air outlet.
(C) Straight line deployment can be used in incidents involving numerous victims who can be
reached from a boat or other watercraft.
(D) The loop deployment reduces buoyancy. Each length of 2 ½” hose filled with air can keep
afloat approximately 15 people.

6. D

4.1 Inflatable water rescue hose can be deployed in either a straight line or loop. Straight line
deployment can be used in incidents from a pier or shore involving only a few individuals
who are close to shore (Photo 6). The loop deployment increases buoyancy and can be
used for multiple victims. (Photo7)

4.2 More than two lengths of hose can be used for larger operations. Each length of 2 ½”
hose filled with air can keep afloat approximately 10 people.

41

1. A member free falling ______ or more is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant
placing the life belt out of service. (2.10)
(A) 1 foot
(B) 2 feet
(C) 3 feet
(D) 4 feet

1. C

42

2. While inspecting the life saving belt and life saving rope on Tuesday 9x6 tour, Lt. Smith
and the members of Engine 100 notice frayed edges and pulled stitches on the life belt. Lt.
Smith determines that the life belt should be placed out of service, and takes the following
actions. Which action is correct? (3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
(A) The administrative Battalion is notified by telephone and fax to have it immediately
replaced.
(B) A single RT-2 is prepared and entries made in the Company Journal only.
(C) An Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) is completed and forwarded
through the Chain of Command to the Chief of Safety.
(D) When a new life belt is received, an entry is made in the Office Record Journal only.

2. C

3.2 Whenever the life belt is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall notify the
administrative division by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced.
3.3 An RT-2 shall be prepared by the officer on duty and shall include the unit number, date,
reason and the three digit identification number. A copy of the RT-2 shall be retained for
unit records. The officer placing the life belt out of service shall make entries in the
Company Journal and the Office Record Journal. When a new life belt is issued, the
officer shall make an entry in the Company Journal and the Office Record Journal.
3.4 The officer must complete an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and
forward it through the Chain of Command to the Chief of Safety. Investigation of the
circumstances as stated in the report is required by the Battalion Chief on duty. A
statement to this effect is required as part of the chief's endorsement.

43

3. The Atlas Life Belt shall be worn by members performing all of the following with the
exception of which one? (Rope 2 DS 1 Sec. 2)
(A) It shall be worn by the member lowering a FF or another person from a roof or upper floor
to a place of safety. The bowline on a bight and the slippery hitch shall be tied on the individual
being lowered.
(B) It shall be worn by the member lowering another FF for a rescue pick-up.
(C) It shall be worn to make a rescue pick-up via a single slide.
(D) It shall be worn by FFs removing themselves from an untenable position by means of a
single slide.

3. C

44

4. How many turns of the LSR are made around the hook, and on what part of the hook are
the turns made? (DS1 3.6)
(A) 3, gate
(B) 4, gate
(C) 4, solid
(D) 3, solid

4. C

45

5. The personal harness will provide members with a quick and safe means for life saving
rope rescues and emergency escapes as well as a safety belt for attachment to a tower, aerial or
portable ladder. Choose the incorrect point about the Personal Harness. (Rope 3,
Sec. 1.1, 2.1, 3.2, 3.6.1)
(A) Members MUST attach the harness snap hook to the waistband “D” ring EVERYTIME
they don their bunker pants.
(B) The personal harness is made of nylon webbing and has a minimum breaking strength of
6000 pounds. The harness comes in three sizes, (Small, Medium, and Extra Large)
(C) It is imperative that the harness be properly adjusted to prevent a member from inverting
when using the Personal Safety System or rappel hook.
(D) The belly strap slide buckle is used to insure a snug fit. The rear waistband strap slide
buckle is used only to ensure the proper position of the harness handle and rappel hook.

5. D

3.1.3 The waist strap has two adjustable slide buckles (Figure 3):
 a belly strap slide buckle to center the rappel hook and,
 a waistband slide buckle for proper fit around the waist

46

6. The proper use of the Personal Harness requires several actions to take. Which one of the
following is the only correct choice? (3.8, 3.9, 3.10)
(A) The leg straps should remain tight while the harness is worn prior to rappelling or lowering
operations.
(B) Prior to sliding operations, the leg straps must be made snug by reaching back and pulling
down on the webbing of each leg strap until the tension of the straps are evenly distributed.
(C) If necessary, the leg straps can be over-tightened.
(D) When operations dictate the use of the rappel hook or the Personal Safety System, both the
rappel hook support strap and the handle support strap shall be released.

6. B

3.8 The leg straps should remain loose for a comfortable fit while the harness is worn prior to
rappelling or lowering operations.
3.9 Prior to sliding operations, the leg straps must be made snug by reaching back and pulling
down on the webbing of each leg strap until the tension of the straps are evenly
distributed. Don't over-tighten the leg straps! If the leg straps are over-tightened, the
waistband may be pulled down from its proper position.
3.10 When operations dictate the use of the rappel hook, the rappel hook support strap and the
handle support strap shall be released and the rappel hook will deploy to the center of the
harness handle. In a situation that dictates the use of the Personal Safety System,
only the handle support strap should be released. The Personal Safety System will
slide on the “D” ring to the center of the harness handle. The rappel hook support strap
will keep the rappel hook from interfering with the operations of the Personal Safety System.

47

7. All members below the rank of Deputy Chief shall be wearing a Personal Harness. Which
choice is incorrect concerning the replacement of a member’s personal harness? (6.2, 6.3, 6.6)
(A) Whenever the Personal Harness is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall have the
Personal Harness immediately replaced by making immediate phone notification to the
administrative Battalion and request a loaner Personal Harness.
(B) SOC units shall contact the administrative Division in which they are located to request a
loaner Personal Harness.
(C) The officer shall prepare an RT-2 and shall make entries in the Company Journal and the
Office Record Journal.
(D) Any time a Personal Harness has been placed out of service, the officer must complete an
Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the Chain of
Command to the Chief of Safety. Investigation of the circumstances as stated in the report is
required by the Battalion Chief on duty.

7. A

48

8. When one member’s Personal Harness has been placed out of service and he/she is on duty,
the member will continue to respond. Choose the incorrect point about this scenario.
(6.10, 6.11)
(A) When the member’s company is assigned to an incident requiring a structural response as
per AUC 287, a Ladder or Rescue company shall inform the dispatcher that the unit is
responding with four firefighters.
(B) A Squad or Engine company notifies the dispatcher that the unit is responding “Under
Staffed”.
(C) The unit shall only operate if the IC at the scene determines that the members will not be
endangered by the reduced manpower.
(D) At an incident where members will be operating in an IDLH area, the member(s) not
equipped with a Personal Harness shall not enter/operate in that area.
(E) When a BC or Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, the unit where
that member is working shall inform the borough dispatcher that the unit is OOS until a loaner
Personal Harness is obtained from the Division Depot

8. B

6.10 When a member’s Personal Harness has been placed out of service and he/she is on duty,
the member will continue to respond. When the member’s company is assigned to an
incident requiring a structural response as per AUC 287, a Group 1 Company shall
inform the dispatcher that the unit is responding with four firefighters, a Group 2 and 3
Company shall transmit 10-14, a Group 4 Company shall inform the dispatcher that the
unit is responding “Under Staffed”. When more than one member is responding without
a Personal Harness, the unit shall notify the dispatcher that the Company is responding
“Under Staffed”. Upon arrival, the Company Officer shall inform the Incident
Commander (IC) of the unit status, the IC shall adjust his/her strategy accordingly. The
unit shall only operate if the IC at the scene determines that the members will not be
endangered by the reduced manpower. At an incident where members will be operating
in an IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) area, the member(s) not
equipped with a Personal Harness shall not enter/operate in that area.
6.11 When a Battalion Chief or Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, the
unit where that member is working shall inform the borough dispatcher that the unit is
Out of Service until a loaner Personal Harness is obtained from the Division Depot.

49

9. All of the following are correct points about the Personal Safety System (PSS) with the
exception of which choice? (Rope 4, 1.8, 1.10, 2.1, 2.2)
(A) The length of the rope is 50 feet.
(B) It has a safety factor of 10:1 based on 300 pounds
(C) Used only by members to remove THEMSELVES from an untenable position above grade
to a place of safety.
(D) After use, the PSS will be thoroughly inspected before it is used again.

9. D

50

10. Which of the following would not require the PSS to be placed OOS? (5.3, 5.4.3)
(A) The bag (or any component of the PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration,
degradation, melting, charring, etc.).
(B) The discoloration of the rope due to the black dye from the inside liner of the bag.
(C) Fraying, cut fibers, abrasions or other signs that might indicate possible degradation are
noted on the rope, including the sewn eye.
(D) The anchor hook, EXO, and carabiner have deformities or sharp edges.

10. B

51

11. When a member requires a replacement PSS, if at all possible, replacement/loaner
equipment shall be issued from the Division. Of the following, who does not have the ability to
provide a spare PSS? (6.1, 6.2, 6.3)
(A) The Rope Unit at the Fire Academy
(B) SOC
(C) Battalions 23, 42, 47 and 53
(D) Research and Development

11. D

52

1. The major fire problem in a fire-resistive building is the central air-conditioning system. In
a low-rise building smoke spreads by heat, convection currents, fire pressure and wind. In a
high-rise building you also have smoke spread by the HVAC system. Which of the following
points about these fire-resistive buildings is incorrect? (p. 40-42)
(A) In a structure with a central air-conditioning system, every fire barrier is penetrated. The
central air-conditioning system has eliminated the concept of compartmentation, called passive
fire resistance.
(B) Fire resistive buildings used as apartment houses do not have a central air conditioning
system, and individual units are installed to serve each apartment.
(C) When an air supply duct penetrates a fire-resistive wall, an automatic closing shutter is
designed to close when the air inside the duct reaches a specific temperature. This heat activated
fire damper may stop flame spread but does not stem the spread of smoke throughout the
system’s air ducts.
(D) To fully protect a fire-resistive high-rise building, there should be an automatic sprinkler
system and fire walls and fire partitions to limit the size of a fire in case the sprinklers fail.
Experience has shown that firefighters operating hoselines cannot extinguish fires in floor areas
over 5000 sq. ft.

1. B

53

2. Which of the following is correct concerning fires in noncombustible/limited combustible
construction? (p. 42-43)
(A) The fire problem associated with a noncombustible/limited combustible building is the vast
quantity of combustible stock usually stored in these buildings.
(B) When a fire occurs in a noncombustible/limited combustible building, as soon as possible
after the fire is completely extinguished, the officer in command should have a FF check the roof
covering above the fluted metal deck for extension.
(C) After a fire is extinguished in a building of noncombustible construction, the officer in
command should order a fire company to the roof to check the combustible asphalt roof
covering.

2. C

54

3. Ordinary construction, also known as brick and wood joist construction, is found in every
borough of New York City. This type of construction is commonly referred to as Class 3
construction in the FDNY. Which one of the following is correct concerning this type of
construction? (p. 43-44)
(A) The major fire problem in an ordinary constructed building is the fire and smoke spread
throughout concealed spaces. The largest and most serious concealed space is the many voids
created in the walls by the use of 2x4 wood studding.
(B) The concealed space can be eliminated from construction consisting of wood joists and 2x4
studding by the use of passive fire protection such as sheetrock.
(C) As soon as possible after a fire is extinguished in a building of ordinary construction, a FF
must be directed to open the ceiling above the fire and nearby wall to examine for fire spread to
concealed spaces.
(D) If fire is discovered in a concealed space, the cockloft space above the top floor must be
checked for fire immediately.

3. C

55

4. Heavy timber construction was originally designed for textile mills during the last century.
These four-to-seven story brick-walled buildings, featuring large wooden timbers to support
heavy machinery, are very stable structures. Choose the incorrect statement about these
structures from the following choices. (p. 45-46)
(A) For a building to qualify as heavy timber construction a wood column cannot be less than 6
inches thick in any dimension and a wood girder cannot be less than 8 inches thick.
(B) The major fire problem of these brick-enclosed timber structures is the large wooden
interior timber framework.
(C) When large timber columns, girders, and wood ceilings are not covered with plaster and
become involved in a fire, flames shooting out the windows quickly spread fire to nearby
buildings by radiant heat waves. Some heat waves travel distances of 80 feet.
(D) Large timber structures will be ignited by a content fire if the blaze has burned for a long
period of time before firefighters arrive, or quickly if an arsonist has used an accelerant, and if,
over the years, the thick floors have become saturated with some combustible liquid used in an
industrial process.

4. A

56

5. While drilling on the hazards of fire in a wood frame Private Dwelling, Lt. Smith makes
several statements. Which statement made by Lt. Smith is not correct? (p. 47-48)
(A) Wood frame construction is the only one of the five types that has combustible exterior
walls. These wooden outside walls present a major firefighting problem.
(B) In fires in wood frame buildings, the officer must consider the possibility of fire extension
to a seventh side of the fire area, the combustible exterior walls.
(C) The combustible exterior of a wood frame building may be fire retarded by a
noncombustible siding, and fire spread may be reduced by providing distances of 10 to 20 feet
between frame buildings. This allows access for firefighters operating hoselines between
burning buildings, and will protect against radiant heat.
(D) Contrary to what some people believe, firefighters cannot use a fire-resistive rating to
estimate a burning buildings structural stability.

5. C

57

6. There are two basic types of fire-resistive construction: reinforced concrete buildings and
structural steel buildings. Of all five construction types, fire-resistive buildings are the most
stable and have the best collapse record, however, a fire resistive building does suffer structural
failure during serious fires. Which one of the following points concerning collapse hazards of
fire resistive buildings is incorrect? (p. 48-49)
(A) In reinforced concrete buildings, heated concrete ceilings collapse on top of firefighters.
This type of collapse occurs in a building without a suspended ceiling, where the concrete ceiling
above the fire is directly exposed to flames below.
(B) In steel skeleton construction, the bottom of the concrete cannot collapse downward
because of the supporting steel, so the expanding moisture explodes the concrete floor upward.
The floor cracks and suddenly erupts upward several inches.
(C) In steel skeleton construction, if the fire is severe, the steel beams supporting the fluted
metal deck start to expand, and if steel beams are restricted, they start to sag and bow downward,
causing the concrete above to also sag and bow downward.
(D) Fire experience has shown at a serious fire in a fire resistive building the composite,
concrete, and fluted metal deck floors will be damaged because the concrete expansion is greater
than the steel when heated by fire.

6. D

58

7. Noncombustible/limited combustible buildings are commonly used as commercial
occupancies. Choose the incorrect statement about these buildings. (p. 50-51)
(A) Protected lightweight open-web bar joist found in these buildings can fail 5 to 10 minutes
into the fire.
(B) The collapse danger to a FF from a noncombustible building is roof cave-in, the collapsing
material, and the unprotected steel open-web joist.
(C) The main advantage of the lightweight steel roof support is its’ noncombustiblity – the bar
joist does not add fuel to the fire.
(D) The open-web bar joist is the main structural hazard of noncombustible construction. The
NYC Building Code prohibits steel open bar joist construction in high-rise commercial buildings
since 9/11.

7. A

Un-protected

59

8. While discussing the structural hazards of ordinary construction and heavy timber
construction at drill, an officer made the following statements. Which is the only correct
statement? (p. 51-52)
(A) The structural hazard of both buildings is the parapet wall.
(B) Fallings masonry walls that crash to the ground and spray bouncing chunks of bricks and
mortar along the street or pavement are the structural hazards of ordinary construction. The
parapet wall is the structural hazard of heavy timber construction.
(C) Falling masonry walls that crash to the ground and spray bouncing chunks of bricks and
mortar along the street or pavement is the main structural hazard for both types of buildings.
(D) The structural hazard of ordinary construction is the parapet wall. Falling masonry walls
that crash to the ground and spray bouncing chunks of bricks and mortar along the street or
pavement are the structural hazards of heavy timber buildings.

8. D

60

9. Wood frame construction can be found in Rowframes and private dwellings. Which one of
the following points about wood frame construction is incorrect? (p. 52)
(A) The structural hazard of a wood frame building is the combustible bearing wall constructed
of 2x4 inch wood studs.
(B) Wood frame buildings use larger structural members to support smaller structural
members, and the weak link in this design is the larger structural members.
(C) Flames coming out of several window openings of a side bearing wall should be treated
with more caution than flames coming out of windows of the front or rear nonbearing wall.
(D) Fire burning through or against a side wall is more likely to collapse the building than fire
burning through several floors or the roof. Failure of a bearing wall will trigger simultaneous
failure of the floors and roof.

9. B

Decks in Firetech Class (61):