WEEK #17 WEEK OF 05/20/13 PART I – EVOLUTIONS #1A, 8 and 9 PART II – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART III – TB – SCBA Addendums #1 - 8 PART IV – EMERGENCIES VEHICLE DISENTANGLEMENT INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #17 WEEK OF 05/20/13 PART I – EVOLUTIONS #1A, 8 and 9 PART II – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART III – TB – SCBA Addendums #1 - 8 PART IV – EMERGENCIES VEHICLE DISENTANGLEMENT INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #17 WEEK OF 05/20/13 PART I – EVOLUTIONS #1A, 8 and 9 PART II – FFP – UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS PART III – TB – SCBA Addendums #1 - 8 PART IV – EMERGENCIES VEHICLE DISENTANGLEMENT INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA Deck (77):
1

1 For an In-line pumping stretch where the pumper reaches the hydrant before the fire, what is the position in a 4 Firefighter Engine that is responsible for keying the hydrant? (Evolution 1, 1-3.2)
a Nozzle FF
b Back-up FF
c Control FF
d Door FF

1. B

1. IN-LINE PUMPING STRETCH –
Pumper reaches the hydrant before the fire. Engine Company equipped with one
pumper.

Note: 4 FF Engine Co.
Hydrant FF = Control FF
Hose FF = Back-up FF

5 FF Engine Co.
Hydrant FF = Control FF
Hose FF = Door FF

2

2 In a 5 Firefighter Engine company, who has the duty of connecting the 3 ½-inch supply hose to the 4 ½-inch outlet of the hydrant during In-line pumping operations? (1-3.3)
a Nozzle FF
b Back-up FF
c Control FF
d Door FF

2. C

Note: 4 FF Engine Co.
Hydrant FF = Control FF
Hose FF = Back-up FF

5 FF Engine Co.
Hydrant FF = Control FF
Hose FF = Door FF

3.3 The Hydrant FF should:
1) Maintain the key as the pumper proceeds. (See Figure 2)
2) Connect the 3½” hose to the 4½” outlet of the hydrant. (See Figure 3)
3) If time permits, connect a 2½” gate to the hydrants 2½” outlet. (See Figure 3)
4) Waits for notification from the ECC before opening the hydrant. (See Figure 4)

3

3 Choose the accurate statement pertaining to In-line pumping procedures. (3.8)
a Hydrants selected for In-line pumping must be on a 8-inch or larger main
b Pumper shall use 3-inch hose as the initial supply line from the hydrant to the pumper
c Not more than 3 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line
d To prevent injuries the supply line shall not be pre-connected to an inlet on the pumper

3. D

2. Hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 6” or larger main. During Water Alert, ILP shall
not be used unless absolutely necessary.

3. Pumper shall use 3½” inch hose as the initial supply line from the hydrant to the pumper.

4. Not more than 6 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line.

7. In order to prevent injuries or damage to hose or equipment, the supply line shall not be
preconnected to an inlet of the pumper.

4

4 When should the ECC of an In-line pumping operation have his/her water supply augmented? (3.8)
a when intake pressure drops below 30 psi
b when intake pressure drops below 25 psi
c when intake pressure drops below 20 psi
d when intake pressure drops below 15 psi

4. D

5

5 Back step buzzer tones provide valuable non-verbal communication to the ECC. Which buzzer tone signal listed below is correct? (3.8)
a One buzzer tone-emergency stop
b One buzzer tone-Hose FF in position, pumper to proceed
c Two buzzer tones-area in the rear of pumper is clear for backing up
d Three buzzer tones-Hose FF is stepping off the back step

5. A

6

6 Water relays can complicate pumping operations for all but which one of the following reasons? (Evolution 8, 2)
a Require coordination between two or more pumpers
b Potential for generating high pressures
c More communication is required
d Decreased possibility of introducing into the operating pumper

6. D

2. COMMAND:
Relay water using two pumpers.
Note: Relay operations can complicate pumping operations because they require
coordination between two or more pumpers (potentially accruing higher pressures) and
two or more pump operators (necessitating more communication). In addition there is an
increased possibility of introducing air into an operating pumper and losing prime.
However, if a water relay is warranted, the following procedure shall be implemented.

7

7 What would be the pump status during a two pumper water relay at a standpipe operation where both apparatus are equipped with Pro-Pressure Governors? (3.4)
a Supply pumper in Volume and the Operating pumper in Volume
b Supply pumper in Volume and the Operating pumper in Pressure
c Supply pumper in Pressure and the Operating pumper in Pressure
d Supply pumper in Pressure and the Operating pumper in Volume

7. B

8

8 An Officer of the first arriving Engine transmits the signal 10-70 via Department radio. What pumper on the initial alarm is designated as the Water Resource Unit? (3.1-3.2)
a Engine giving the 10-70 signal
b Next arriving Engine upon hearing the signal
c Second due Engine as per the alarm assignment card
d Third arriving Engine

8. C

9

9 During a large warehouse fire on the waterfront a water relay operation is ordered by the Incident Commander. According to Evolution 8, if the Supply pumper’s intake pressure drops below 15 psi who should the ECC of this pumper notify that the hydrant’s supply limit has been reached? (3.13)
a Operating pumper ECC and Water Resource Unit Officer
b Supply pumper Officer and Incident Commander
c Operating pumper ECC and Incident Commander
d Operating pumper Officer and the Incident Commander

9. C

10

10 When readying a hose line from a standpipe floor outlet located inside a stairwell, how should the Engine Company position its folded lengths? (Evolution 9, 3.5)
a In hallway one floor below standpipe outlet
b On landing above standpipe outlet
c On landing below standpipe outlet
d In hallway on the floor where the fire is located

10. C

3.5 Remaining firefighters connect folded lengths as follows:
Place folded lengths on 4th floor landing below standpipe outlet, or in hallway adjacent to
stairway door containing standpipe, with straps facing up and male and female hose butts
adjacent to each other. Length with nozzle is placed most distant from standpipe with
nozzle facing in direction of stretch. If available and needed, place additional length(s) in
the sequence before nozzle

11

11 An Engine company Captain instructing members on standpipe hose operations was mistaken in which statement listed below? (3.9)
a All hose lines stretched from a standpipe shall be 2 ½-inch in diameter
b Controlling nozzle with 1 1/8-inch tip shall be used
c Generally, all hose lines stretched from standpipes are connected to outlets on a floor below the fire
d Variations from stretching initial hose lines from standpipe outlets on a floor below the fire due to building configuration shall be approved by the Borough Commander

11. D

12

12 If a pressure reducing valve (PRV) is found on a standpipe outlet, it should be removed. Select A if you agree with this statement or D if you disagree. (3.9)
a Agree or d. Disagree

12. D

Should say pressure reducing device

13

13 What does the siamese color marking of aluminum indicate? (3.9)
a Non-automatic sprinkler system
b Automatic sprinkler system
c Combination standpipe/sprinkler system
d Standpipe system

13. A

e. Observe the color of siamese or outlet caps and indicating signs or plates before
connecting hose lines. Color markings for the systems are:
♦ Standpipe……………………………………Red
♦ Automatic Sprinkler………………………..Green
♦ Non-Automatic Sprinkler…………………..Aluminum
♦ Combination Standpipe/Sprinkler………….Yellow

14

14 At a high-rise hotel fire, the first arriving Engine will be utilizing the standpipe system for its initial attack line. The Officer of this company should instruct the ECC to take what action? (3.9)
a Connect 1st supply line to standpipe siamese and 2nd supply line to sprinkler siamese
b Connect 1st supply line to sprinkler siamese and 2nd supply line to standpipe siamese
c Connect first two supply lines to the standpipe system
d Connect first two supply lines to the sprinkler system

14. A

15

1 Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. An accurate statement regarding these tubes can be found in which choice? (2.1-2.2)
a 12 sets throughout the NYCT system
b Rectangular in shape
c Constructed of brick, concrete or tubular cast-iron
d Most tubes are bored through composites of clay, sand, and silt

1. C

2.1 Tunnels
Tunnel is a general term which describes a below-grade passageway. There are numerous
underground tunnels between transit stations throughout the NYCT system. The Transit
Authority also refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river
tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes.
2.2 Under River Tubes
2.2.1 Construction
• Tubes are cylindrical in shape and are constructed of brick, concrete or tubular
cast iron (Figure 1). Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete. Tube walls
are between 2 and 2½ feet thick.
• Most tubes were bored into solid bedrock but a few tubes run through
composites of clay, sand, and silt.
• Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is only large enough to
contain 1 track.

16

2 The 3rd rail alternates sides as it goes through the tubes. Select A if you think this statement is True or B if you believe this statement is False. (2.2.1)
a True
b False

2. A

17

3 Which characteristic is correct concerning most under river tubes? (2.2.2, Table 1)
a Numerous crossovers between tracks
b Distances vary from 650 feet to 1 mile
c Adequate space between the train and the tube
d Exhaust fans can pull make-up air from many open areas

3. B

18

4 How is the Billy Bar utilized in conjunction with the Triangle Key to open up the Standard-type emergency exit door? (2.5.1)
a Acts as a fulcrum for the Triangle Key
b Helps to add more torque to the Triangle Key
c Acts as a lever to pry open the door
d Prevents movement of the ring around the lock

4. D

19

5 Where are crossovers associated with emergency exits usually located? (2.6.2)
a At track level
b Two levels below the tracks
c At platform level
d None of the above

5. A

20

6 Section valves for under river standpipes are located approximately how many feet apart? (2.7.1)
a 100 feet b 200 feet c 400 feet d 600 feet

6. D

21

7 With the flat side up, NYCT Emergency Evacuation Devices (EEDs) should be used by firefighters for what purpose? (Figure 9B)
A As a ladder to take passengers on/off trains
b To move passengers from the track to an emergency exit landing
c Facilitate passenger movement from one train to another
d As a guide rail when ropes or hooks are not readily available

7. C

22

8 Which selection is incorrect about the phone system within under river tubes? (2.9.4)
a Similar to the FDNY phone system
b Designated by blue lights
c Found near emergency power removal boxes
d Approximately 200 feet apart

8. D

600' apart

23

9 A blue light phone cannot be used to call outside the system, but can receive calls from outside the system. Select A if you deem this statement to be accurate or B if you think the statement is inaccurate. (2.9.7)
a True or b False

9. A

24

10 Operational Guides are two-sided documents that contain a wealth of valuable information regarding under river tubes. Which is a point of information you would find on the “A” side of a Guide? (2.11)
a Diagram of the tube
b Photo pictures
c Standpipe outlet diagram
d Crossover locations in relation to tracks

10. B

2.11 Operational Guides
Two-sided, Operational Guides have been developed to provide information regarding
each individual under river tube. An example of one appears below. Side “A” contains
maps, pictures and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the associated
emergency exits, and stations. Side “B” contains a diagram of the tube and information
about emergency exits, distances, and crossovers. The Operational Guides for all NYCT
under river tubes are contained in Addendum 1 (Figures 12 and 13).

25

11 A Company Officer should be able to recognize indicators of a major event within under river rail tubes or nearby stations. All but which of the following should lead an Officer to distinguish between routine and more serious incidents? (3.1)
a Unusual smoke or vapors in the station
b Train stuck in the tube
c Information from single source at one side of the tube
d Reports of numerous sick or overcome passengers

11. C

26

12 The acronym “LIVES” can be used by an Officer to help organize a preliminary size-up at under river tube incidents. What word does the letter “L” denote? (3.2)
a length of the tube
b liaison (NYCT)
c logistics
d location (of incident)

12. D

3.2 Size-Up
The acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up:

L Location of Incident

I Incident Information

V Ventilation

E Evacuation

S Safety

27

13 Generally, in what order should victims be removed at under river tube incidents? (7.1)
a Ambulatory, non-ambulatory, deceased, victims requiring extrication
b Ambulatory, non-ambulatory, victims requiring extrication, deceased
c Ambulatory, victims requiring extrication, non-ambulatory, deceased
d Deceased, ambulatory, victims requiring extrication, non-ambulatory

13. B

28

14 When removing ambulatory victims from a tube, the decision to move passengers along the tracks to the nearest station should be based upon all but which of the following factors (7.2.2)
a Travel distance
b Patient condition
c Status of the 3rd rail
d Location of the standpipe siamese

14. D

29

15 A Lieutenant discussing emergency exit stairways for under river rail systems during company drill was incorrect in what statement? (7.2.2B)
a Exit stairs are difficult to climb eliminating passenger evacuation as a viable option
b When two exits are present, designate them as “Evacuation” and “Attack” stairways
c Members attempting to descend a stairway must first allow passengers to evacuate
d Stairway configuration should be considered prior to evacuating passengers

15. A

B. Emergency Exit Stairways
Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice in
some instances, depending on depth of the shaft, stairway configuration, and
smoke condition. However, emergency exit stairs may be difficult to climb.
If a person stops climbing the stairs due to injury or fatigue, the evacuation
may be delayed or brought to a standstill. FD members attempting to descend
a stairway must first allow civilians to evacuate. When two staircases are
present, designate an Evacuation Stairway and an Attack Stairway.
In some cases, there is another set of emergency exits between the tube and
the nearest station. These exits should be evaluated as an alternate or
supplemental means of egress.

30

16 Victim Removal Relay Teams may be used to remove what type victims? (7.3.1)
a Passengers fleeing the scene
b Deceased
c Non-ambulatory
d Ambulatory

16. C

31

17 What is the primary method for moving patients and equipment at under river rail operations? (7.3.3)
a rail carts
b rescue trains
c SKED stretchers
d backboards

17. A

32

18 In addition to SCBA and spare cylinders, all units ordered to operate inside under river tubes shall utilize what type equipment to protect eyes and respiratory tracts from steel dust? (8)
a Goggles and nose clips
b APR adaptors and canisters
c Face shields and Rebreathers
d Sunglasses and mouth plugs

18. B

33

19 What type portable fire extinguishers are located at the blue lights in tubes? (8.1.3)
a Water
b Foam
c Carbon dioxide
d Dry chemical

19. D

34

20 In addition to the 3rd rail, where would firefighters find high voltage electrical lines which are not deactivated by routine requests for power removal within under river rail tubes? (9.1.1)
a At ceiling level
b Adjacent to the 3rd rail
c Along the benchwalk
d Inside emergency exit stairways

20. A

35

21 A Lieutenant operating with his unit on the tracks inside an under river tube notices a distant light reflecting on the running rails. The Officer should instruct members to perform what action? (9.1.3)
a Turn off their flashlights
b Leave the track area
c Turn on their carbon monoxide meters
d Shut off their handie-talkies

21. B

36

1 The Fast Pak is a portable air supply. What companies carry it? (Addendum 1, 1.1)
a All Engine, Ladder and Squad companies
b All Engine, Ladder and Rescue companies
c All Ladder, Rescue and Squad companies
d All Ladder, Squad and Marine companies

1. C

37

2 What is the only way to monitor the air pressure in the Fast Pak? (4.1)
a Heads up display indicator
b Cylinder gauge
d Vibra-alert
d PASS alarm activation

2. B

38

3 Approximately how long does it take for emergency replenishment of an SCBA from the 5 foot high pressure hose of the Fast Pak? (5.3)
a 30 seconds
b 1 minute
c 3 minutes
d 5 minutes

3. B

39

4 The use of the 20 foot low pressure hose is utilized where access to the Universal Air Connection (UAC) of the SCBA you want to supply is restricted. Which of the four modes below is NOT applicable for all members? (6.4)
a Replace member’s regulator with Fast Pak’s regulator
b Replace low pressure Hansen Fitting of member’s SCBA with the low pressure Hansen Fitting of the Fast Pak
c Replace member’s facepiece with Fast Pak facepiece with regulator attached
d Use of the Schrader Fitting

4. D

40

5 A Lieutenant drilling on the Fast Pak with members in the firehouse was incorrect in what statement spoken? (9.10-9.12.3)
a Fast Pak is inspected at the beginning and end of each tour
b Fast Pak is inspected after each use
c A Mask Record Card (Form SD-30) shall be maintained for each Fast Pak assigned to unit
d Notify Battalion when Fast Pak is OOS and request the Battalion Spare Fast Pak as a replacement

5. A

9.10 This equipment must be inspected at the beginning of each tour and after each use.
9.11 A Mask Record Card (Form SD-30) shall be filled out and maintained for each Fast Pak
assigned to a unit. Defects found must be included on the Mask Record Card.
9.12 If any malfunction is noted:
9.12.1 Remove the Fast Pak from service and attach an RT-2 listing the problem.
9.12.2 Notify the Battalion that the Company Fast Pak is OOS and request the Battalion
Spare Fast Pak as a replacement.
9.12.3 The Company shall forward the OOS Fast Pak to MSU via the Division messenger

41

6 All Filtered Air Respirators provide a lower level of protection as compared to an SCBA respirator. Which of the following incidents would it be appropriate to use a Filtered Air Respirator? (Addendum 2, 3-4)
a Air hazard concentrations are Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)
b Oxygen deficient air environment
c Oxygen enriched air environment
d Non-fire related asbestos incident

6. D

3. FULL FACEPIECE RESPIRATOR LIMITATIONS
All filtered air respirators provide a lower level of protection as compared to an SCBA
respirator. Filtered air respirators shall not be used in atmospheres where:

42

7 Firefighters must inspect facepiece, adapter and Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister before first use. When is the other time this equipment is required to be inspected? (5.1-5.2)
a At least quarterly
b At least weekly
c At least every 30 days
d On the last day of each month

7. C

43

8 Choose the wrong statement concerning cartridges, respirators, canisters and adaptors from the list below. (8.1-8.7)
a Previously issued particulate cartridges (P-100) shall be returned to MSU
b N-95 respirators shall be used as CFR equipment
c Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister has a five year shelf life when stored in its sealed container
d Air Purifying Respirators (APR) are not positive pressure devices

8. C

8.6 Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister has a seven year shelf life when stored in its vacuum sealed
container. Do not open the container until it is to be used.

44

9 Exposure to 1.3% of carbon monoxide (two or three breaths) will have what effect on trapped occupants inside a fire building? (Addendum 3, Reference 1)
a Disorientation
b Euphoria
c Death
d Unconsciousnes

9. D

1. Carbon monoxide is one of the most abundant of fire gases and poisons by asphyxiation.
It is colorless, odorless, and tasteless, making it impossible to detect. Since it combines
with hemoglobin (an oxygen carrying constituent of the blood) 210 times more readily
than oxygen does, carbon monoxide rapidly robs the blood of oxygen needed by the
body. At the same time, carbon monoxide prevents the blood from disposing of the waste
carbon dioxide it normally brings back to the lungs. This mode of action makes carbon
monoxide dangerous at relatively low concentrations. Exposure to 1.3% of carbon
monoxide will cause unconsciousness in two or three breaths and will cause death in a
few minutes. Exposure to small concentrations for only a few seconds inhibits one's
ability to think clearly, rapidly causes disorientation, and gives a feeling of euphoria
compounding the risk hazard

45

10 Select the highly toxic, gaseous product of combustion that is colorless but has a noticeable almond odor. (Addendum 3, Reference 2)
a Carbon monoxide
b Hydrogen cyanide
c Hydrogen chloride
d Phosgene

10. B

2. HYDROGEN CYANIDE
Materials that give off hydrogen cyanide when they are burned include rubber and paper, and
some frequently used in carpets, namely wool, nylon, and acrilan, and in upholstery, namely
polyurethane foam. Hydrogen cyanide is a gas that is colorless but has a noticeable almond
odor. It can be absorbed through the skin as well as inhaled. It causes one to gasp in breathing,
induces muscle spasms, and speeds up the heart rate. Collapse is often sudden. A concentration
as low as 270 ppm (parts per million) is fatal.

46

11 Why is nitrogen dioxide, a reddish brown gas, considered insidious?
a Because moisture in the air causes it to lose its buoyancy allowing it to accumulate in low lying areas like cellars
b Because it is tasteless and odorless
c Because exposure leads to severe irritation of the eyes
d Because you can stand the irritation in your nose/throat when breathing in a lethal dose

11. D

47

12 The Draeger BG-4 Extended Duration SCBA (EDSCBA) also known as a Rebreather Mask is designed to enhance our operational capability by providing the wearer with up to how many hours of breathable air? (Addendum 4, 1.3)
a 4 hours
b 3 hours
c 2 hours
d 1 hour

12. A

48

13 The air supply in a Rebreather Mask requires cooling over a block of ice before it is recirculated due to it being heated by the user’s breath and the scrubbing process used to filter it. When should the block of ice not be used? (2.3)
a If used in an explosive atmosphere
b When operational time will be less than 1 hour
c When ambient temperature is below freezing
d If used in an oxygen enriched environment

13. C

49

14 How are Battalion Chiefs trained in Rebreather operations identified on the Daily Chief Officers Schedule? (4.5)
a in bold
b in italics
c underlined
d + sign after their name

14. A

50

15 Regarding operating procedures involving the Rebreather; the Entry Team Leader should perform all but which of the following tasks? (5.1 - 5.3.3)
a Fill out Entry Team Control Sheet prior to entry
b Operate with the entry team, supervising operations
c Maintain communications with the Command Post, using the Post Radio carried by the Support Unit if needed
d Provide needed equipment to the Operational Units

15. D

5.1 Entry Team Leader - shall consist of an EDSCBA trained Battalion Chief and Battalion
Firefighter, preferably the Rescue Operations Battalion. The Entry Team Leader (ETL)
shall:
• Ensure that the Entry Team Control Sheet is completely filled out prior to entry with
copies distributed as follows: one to the FAST Units, one to the Safety Management
Team and the third copy is retained by the ETL.
• Operate with the entry team, supervising operations, monitoring the condition of
members, and accounting for all entry team members.
• Maintain communications with the Command Post, using the Post Radio carried by
the Support Unit if needed. Battalion Firefighter may be assigned to remain either
with the Support Unit or the Safety Management Team to enhance communications
between the Entry Team Leader and the Command Post.

51

16 A Safety Management Team shall be established prior to entry with Rebreathers. One (non-entry) member from each company operating with Rebreathers will be incorporated into this Team. What are non-entry members responsible for? (6.1.2)
a Accompany Operational units to the vicinity of the operation
b Providing Stokes stretchers where needed
c The masks used by members of their unit
d Setting up the Command Board

16. C

52

17 Rebreathers will emit a warning alarm from its mask when approximately how many minutes of operational time remains? (6.1.4)
a 30 minutes
b 60 minutes
c 90 minutes
d 120 minutes

17.B

53

18 What are the only two liquids allowed to be applied to the Rebreather regulator surface and exhalation port for cleaning and disinfecting purposes? (Addendum 5, 1.5)
a Pine oil and water
b Alcohol and water
c Soap and water
d Mild detergent and water

18. B

54

19 How current must a member’s corrective lens prescription be when it is submitted to the Mask Service Unit with a completed Spectacle Kit/Corrective Lens Request Form? (Addendum 7, 3.3)
a 24 months
b 18 months
c 12 months
d 6 months

19.

55

20 The Pak Tracker is a directional hand held receiver that is used to locate the signal sent out from any SCBA whose PASS device is in full alarm mode. What units carry this piece of equipment? (Addendum 8, 1.1)
a Rescue and Squad companies
b Rescue Battalion and Haz-Mat Battalion
c Engine and Squad companies
d Safety Battalion and SOC Support Ladder companies

20. A

56

21 What is the approximate maximum range (line of sight) of the Pak Tracker? (3.1)
a 2000 feet
b 1000 feet
c 500 feet
d 100 feet

21. B

2. SENSITIVITY DISTANCE
2.1 The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is
approximately 900 feet line of sight. The range is dependent on the environmental
conditions and anything that might cause interference or reflection of the personal
transmitter signal.

57

22 How many SCBA PASS alarm identities can a Pak Tracker store? (5.3)
a 1 dozen
b 2 dozen
c 3 dozen
d 4 dozen

22. C

58

23 When using a Pak Tracker during a search operation, why is it best to pause a few seconds at distinct directional points (to the left, in front, to the right)? (7.9)
a Places less drain on the battery
b To better hear the activated PASS alarm signal
c Sweeping too fast may average readings
d Allows the user to maintain a grip on the Pak Tracker handle

23. C

59

24 Choose the correct Search and Rescue Sequential Process when utilizing the Pak Tracker locator system (7.13)
a Interpret, Follow, Read
b Read, Follow, Interpret
c Follow, Interpret, Read
d Read, Interpret, Follow

24. D

60

25 A FAST unit Officer should be aware that approximately how much operational time remains when the “low battery” indicator light appears on the Pak Tracker? (8.1)
a 20 minutes
b 30 minutes
c 45 minutes
d 60 minutes

25. D

6. Turn on the Pak-Tracker by pressing both the “Enter” and “Scroll” buttons
simultaneously. Verify that the unit powers up and all lights and displays operate
properly.
7. Battery Life - When the battery in the Pak-Tracker has approximately 20 percent
of its life remaining, the “Low Batt” indicator light will glow yellow. If the “Low
Batt” indicator lights at any time during the regular operational inspection, replace
the battery pack with a fully charged battery pack before proceeding with the
inspection. See the battery charging and battery installation sections in this
bulletin. After the “Low Batt” indicator light appears, the Pak-Tracker will
operate for approximately one hour. If the battery is not changed in that time, the
Pak-Tracker will shut down and will not operate until a fully charged battery is
installed.

61

PART IV – TB - Emergencies Vehicle Disentanglement
1 What do medical authorities mean by referring to the first hour following a motor vehicle accident with critical injuries as the Golden Hour? (1.1)
a Victim extricated within the first hour has the best chance of survival
b Victim placed in an ambulance within first hour has best chance of survival
c Victim brought to a hospital emergency room within the first hour has best chance of survival
d Victim delivered to a surgical team within the first hour has the best chance of survival

1. D

62

2 The rule of 5-10-20 applies to what component of vehicular equipment? (2.6)
a Bumper
b Seatbelt
c Airbag
d Tires

2. C

63

3 Why is laminated glass replacing tempered glass on the side and rear windows of vehicles? (2.8-2.9)
a Enhanced clarity
b Highly resistant to breaking
c More easily tinted
d Better insulating quality

3. B

64

4 Automotive roll-over protection systems deploy as the vehicle begins to overturn. In convertibles, where are these systems typically stowed? (2.13)
a Behind the seats in the rear deck area
b Behind the bulkhead/fire wall
c Behind the “A” pillar post
d Along the doorsill/rocker channel

4. A

65

5 How should an Engine Officer arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle accident with people pinned inside divide his/her unit? (4.1)
a CFR team and Safety team
b Safety team and Handline team
c CFR team and Handline team
d CFR team and Vehicle Stabilization team

5. C

66

6 Select the proper procedure to perform when disconnecting a car battery. (4.2.4)
a Remove the negative terminal first
b Remove the positive terminal first
c Cut negative terminal first
d Cut positive terminal first

6. A

67

7 Vehicles on all four wheels are best stabilized using what type of equipment? (5.4)
a Step chocks and wedges
b Ropes and chains
c Hooks and halligans
d Airbags and Hurst tools

7. A

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8 Vehicles encountered on their side or roof, present a unique stabilization challenge. What tool is used to secure the vehicle to a substantial object? (5.6)
a Life saving rope
b Utility rope
c Chains
d 10 foot hook

8. B

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9 What part of a vehicle requires Firefighters to attack Nader pin/staple during extrication operations? (6.1)
a Hood
b Trunk
c Roof
d Door

9. D

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10 When would the Third Door Removal procedure be best suited as an extrication option? (7.1)
a Victim is pinned in the back seat of a two-door vehicle
b Victim is pinned in the front seat of a SUV
c Victim is pinned in the back seat of a four-door vehicle
d None of the above

10. A

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11 Select the Total Roof Removal procedure that is in accord with Department policy. (8.2.1-8.2.3)
a Cut High on the A Posts and Low on the B, C, and D Posts with cutters
b Cut Low on the A Posts and High on the B, C, and D Posts with cutters
c Cut High on the A and C Posts and Low on the B and D Posts with cutters
d Cut Low on the A and C Posts and High on the B and D Posts with cutters

11. B

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12 Vehicle extrication involving dashboard displacement commonly involves the utilization of cutters. Select an accurate procedure regarding this disentanglement tool. (9.1-9.2.2)
a Make two cuts in the upper portion of the A Post
b The lower of the two cuts is the second cut made
c Lower cut is made parallel to the rocker panel
d Second cut is made approximately one foot above the first cut

12. C

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13 What should be done in order for a dashboard displacement operation to be effective in a vehicle that has bucket seats with a center console? (9.4.1-9.4.4)
a Steering wheel is removed
b Front seats are removed
c Center console is uplifted and bent back toward the rear
d Metal straps on each side of console are cut

13. D

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14 A Rescue company Officer discussing seat displacement procedures at the Fire Academy was mistaken in what statement listed below? (10.1)
a Normal methods (manual lever, for example) should always be attempted
b Always try normal methods first before committing to hydraulics
c Hydraulics should only be used for long distances
d Always use caution when employing a Ram to displace a seat backwards

14. C

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15 Which of the following tools is not mentioned in the Bulletin regarding the removal of a windshield from a vehicle? (11.3)
a Windshield saw
b Sawzall
c Axe
d Halligan

15. D

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16 How is access to victims inside passenger compartments usually made for a vehicle lying on its side with its roof intact? (12.1-12.2)
a Laterally from the front and rear windows
b From above through the side windows
c By cutting the roof Posts and hinging the roof down
d By cutting an opening in the roof of the vehicle

16. A

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17 Select the correct safety procedure from the choices below. (14.1-14.14)
a Always treat airbags as if they are live; stay at least 5-inches from passenger airbags
b When disconnecting hose couplings point them up
c Never position any part of your body between the tool and the vehicle
d Eyes should be flushed with clean water for at least 10 minutes when getting hydraulic fluid in them

17. C

Decks in Firetech Class (61):