WEEK #3 WEEK OF 9/30/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #9 PART II – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 1 – 5.6.7} PART III – TB – TOOLS #1, 2, 3, 4 & 7 PART IV – AUC #180, 200 & 202 INSTRUCTOR: DAC JIM DALY Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #3 WEEK OF 9/30/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #9 PART II – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 1 – 5.6.7} PART III – TB – TOOLS #1, 2, 3, 4 & 7 PART IV – AUC #180, 200 & 202 INSTRUCTOR: DAC JIM DALY > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #3 WEEK OF 9/30/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #9 PART II – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 1 – 5.6.7} PART III – TB – TOOLS #1, 2, 3, 4 & 7 PART IV – AUC #180, 200 & 202 INSTRUCTOR: DAC JIM DALY Deck (69):
1

1. Company officers must maintain communications with members not operating under their
immediate supervision. Which of the following firefighters is not under “immediate
supervision”? (Sec. 9.2.1)

A. Can FF in an adjoining room that the officer can see through the smoke, but can not hear
due to the noise of the operating hoseline nearby.
B. FE FF of the FAST truck monitoring the EFAS in the battalion car, which is parked out of
sight of the Command Post.
C. Control FF on a hoseline positioned on the half-landing below the fire floor, and out of
sight and hearing of the officer.
D. Ladder Chauffeur, who is at the deployment point of the company search rope, while the
officer is at the 100’ indicator knot on the rope, out of sight and hearing of the LCC.

1. B

2


2. Members under “functional supervision” of an officer who cannot contact such officer shall
contact any of the following in which priority order? (Sec. 9.2.2.B)

A. Company chauffeur, sector supervisor, incident commander
B. Branch Director, company chauffeur, incident commander
C. Company chauffeur, incident commander, an available Engine chauffeur
D. Incident commander, company chauffeur, member of FAST Unit

2. C

3

3. A lieutenant arriving first at the fire area must transmit all of the following points of
information to the IC, except? (Sec. 9.3.1)

A. Access to the fire area
B. Location of the fire
C. If an MD, the number of apartments on the fire floor
D. Configuration of the building

3. D

4

4. Which of the following handie-talkie transmissions is in conflict with FDNY guidelines?
(Sec. 9.4, 9.4.1)
1. A Battalion Chief instructs a member who activated his Emergency Alert Button to switch
to channel 16 and to re-depress the EA button in order for the Beacon tone to continue to
operate on the new channel.
2. A distressed firefighter neglects to press the Emergency Alert button and proceeds to
immediately start his emergency message with “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday…
3. A lieutenant, upon completion of a Mayday emergency message between a distressed
member and the IC, and hearing no further orders, knows that he must wait until the IC
gives the “All Clear” order before resuming any transmissions with FF’s under his
functional supervision.
4. A Battalion Chief announces that an interior attack is to be discontinued and states,
“Urgent-Urgent-Urgent, Command to all units Urgent, All units-Urgent, Back Out, Back
Out”
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

4. A

Note: The IC may instruct the member transmitting the emergency message to switch to
channel 16, the dedicated 5-watt emergency channel. The IC may do this to free up
the primary tactical channel and have communications continue with the member at
5 watts. When a member switches to Channel 16, their "Beacon" continues unless
the "Emergency Alert Tone" is deactivated. The IC may instruct the member to
deactivate the tones if they are hampering communications.

If possible, the member shall press the Emergency Alert Button ensuring that the
message gets transmitted at maximum wattage before giving their MAYDAY
message.

Upon conclusion of the IC transmission, he/she may notify units to, "Resume
Normal Handie Talkie Transmissions."

5

5. Assuming that in all of the following instances the member initiated his/her transmission
with “Mayday-Mayday-Mayday” and was acknowledged by the IC, which of the transmissions
was given correctly? (Sec. 9.4.1)
A. A lieutenant fears that a collapse is imminent and transmits, “E-91 to Command, Mayday-
Collapse Imminent, Get Out of Building, Get Out of Building”.
B. A lieutenant becomes aware of an unconscious firefighter, and transmits, “E-82 to
Command, Mayday-Unconscious Member”.
C. A lieutenant becomes aware of a firefighter suffering a life-threatening injury who has
collapsed, and transmits, “L-149 to Command, Mayday-Member Collapsed”.
D. A lieutenant cannot find his way out of a mazelike floor layout and transmits, “L-43 to
Command, Mayday-Member Missing”.

5. B

The term "COLLAPSE" is to be used to indicate STRUCTURAL
FAILURE only.

6

6. How many of the following situations are not considered one of the seven that requires an
“Urgent” transmission? (Sec. 9.4.2)
1. A member suffers a broken leg on the fire floor, and is bleeding profusely.
2. A member discovers a running crack in a cinder block wall which is puffing smoke.
3. A unit discovers fire entering an exposure, and items in that exposure are starting to ignite.
4. An ECC loses water in the handline he is feeding to the fire floor.
5. A Battalion Chief initiates an exterior attack on a vacant building from the moment first
due units arrive.
6. A 1st due engine chauffeur is unable to secure a positive water source and needs to transmit
a 10-70.
7. A member sees flames impinging on LPG tanks stored in a room adjoining the main fire
area.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

6. A (1,2) I think

7

7. A battalion chief who seeks to gain control of the handie-talkie network due to excess
transmissions can use the Emergency Alert Button to do so. After depressing the EA button,
which would be a correct action? (Sec. 9.4.3)
A. Transmit, “Mayday-Mayday-Mayday- Command to all units-Mayday, All HT
transmissions are to cease”.
B. After transmitting message to units, no further action is required by the IC unless units
continue to transmit.
C. Once control has been gained, the IC can transmit, “Resume normal handie-talkie
transmissions”.

7. C

9.4.3 Incident Commander Use of the Handie Talkie Network
The IC may want to gain control of the HT network in order to alert all units to a
"MAYDAY" or "URGENT" message.
The IC can gain control of the HT network by utilizing the Emergency Alert tone
created when the Emergency Alert Button is activated. This Emergency Alert tone
shall be followed by the message "URGENT-URGENT-URGENT COMMAND to
ALL UNITS - URGENT, ALL HANDIE TALKIE TRANSMISSIONS ARE TO
CEASE”. All units upon hearing a “MAYDAY” or “URGENT” transmission
and/or the Emergency Alert Tone shall cease radio transmissions until advised
otherwise.
Note: If the IC uses the emergency alert tone to gain control of the HT network, after
transmission to units, the emergency alert tone must be deactivated either by
depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button for approximately 2 seconds
until a reset tone is heard or turn the HT off and then back on. Failure to deactivate
will cause transmissions by the IC to be preceded by the letters EM which may
cause confusion.
Upon conclusion of the IC transmission, he/she may notify units to, "Resume
Normal Handie Talkie Transmissions."

8

8. Feedback-Assisted Rescue may be used to locate a missing member during a Mayday
situation. Which action was correctly taken during this procedure? (Sec. 9.5)
A. The IC designated a new primary tactical channel, other than the one that the missing
member was operating on, and ordered all members other than the missing member to switch to
this new channel.
B. The member designated to create feedback was assigned two HT’s and was located in
proximity to the rescue activity to produce a strong feedback signal.
C. Feedback was created by depressing the transmit button on only one of the HT’s and
holding speakers one to two inches apart.
D. The member designated to create feedback continuously held the Push To Talk button, in
order to provide a continuous feedback signal with no lapse.

8. C

9

9. A similar procedure to Feedback Assisted Rescue may be performed utilizing the
Emergency Alert Tone. Which is correctly stated about this procedure?
A. This procedure also requires two HT’s to perform, similar to FAR.
B. The Emergency Alert Tone will be transmitted from the missing members HT at maximum
volume output, unless the missing member has the volume setting on his/her HT reduced.
C. The Emergency Alert Button must be depressed every few seconds to transmit the EA tone,
followed by a pause.
D. The Emergency Alert Tone must be transmitted on Channel 16 for maximum effectiveness.

9. C

10

10. How many of the following areas listed allow good HT operations? (Sec. 9.6, 9.7 Note)
1. Elevator cars
2. Subway from level to level
3. Outer area in a high rise building
4. Core areas in high rise buildings
5. Subway in a straight line
6. Unobstructed shafts
7. Window areas
8. Stairs
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

10. A

9.6.2 Certain areas in a building are conducive to good HT operations e.g., outer area of
the structure, windows or unobstructed shafts. It may be necessary to move
around until best location is found.

Note: 1. HT communications are poor from level to level. Communications in
straight line are from fair to poor. Some subway stations have multiple
levels underground, which will require additional handie talkies.
The objective is to be able to communicate to grade level.

11

11. After an IC has an underground subway repeater system tested by members, and
determines it is functioning properly, he may release members from the 1st due Ladder Company
from the responsibility of establishing a HT relay. (Sec. 9.7)
A Agree or D. Disagree

11. D

12

12. Officers should be familiar with the rules governing the use of cell phones during nonemergency
use or to augment HT’s at an operation. Which example shows proper usage of the
cell phones? (Sec. 9.10)
A. Two battalion chiefs discussing vacate procedures during supervisory AFID duties,
utilizing the direct voice radio capability.
B. At a multiple alarm fire scene, a BC notified the IC that he was activating the cell phone
due to excess HT traffic.
C. A battalion chief at a subway operation found that HT Relays and the Post Radios were
ineffective, and decided to next use the cell phone to communicate critical information to the IC.
D. After notifying the IC that he was activating his cell phone, a Rescue Officer contacted the
Rescue Battalion prior to hearing back from the IC.

12. A

9.10.4 Administrative Use
Cell phones are intended to provide an additional means of communication at
other than emergency situations e.g., contacting the BISP Hotline, coordinating
drills, and for other administrative duties.

Note: Excess traffic on HT is not a sufficient reason to activate cell phone use.
In this case, the IC shall activate a command channel or additional tactical
channel(s) as per established guidelines

The IC must be notified and approve. The IC shall ensure that both a
Nextel cell phone and a Verizon Blackberry cell phone are at the Incident
Command Post at all times.

13


PART II – FFP – TAXPAYER FIRES:

1. Regarding the older type of taxpayer built from 1900 until the 1920’s, which of the
following statements is correct? (2.3.1)
1. They are always one story in height.
2. Of the three broad categories of taxpayers, this type is considered the most prevalent.
3. Some of the older structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may
be considered wood frame buildings.
4. If found, the metal cornice in this type of taxpayer can be removed to provide access to the
cockloft area.
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

1. B

14


PART II – FFP – TAXPAYER FIRES:

1. Regarding the older type of taxpayer built from 1900 until the 1920’s, which of the
following statements is correct? (2.3.1)
1. They are always one story in height.
2. Of the three broad categories of taxpayers, this type is considered the most prevalent.
3. Some of the older structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may
be considered wood frame buildings.
4. If found, the metal cornice in this type of taxpayer can be removed to provide access to the
cockloft area.
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

2. A

15


2. Which choice would be correct when discussing the type of taxpayer built from the 1920’s
into the 1960’s? (2.3.2)

A. They are usually larger in area than the older type, with many having one tenant, such as a
supermarket or restaurant.
B. If the area is large, fire walls may subdivide the building, with the termination point of the
fire wall usually extending through the roof boards forming a parapet.
C. Many are two stories in height, with second floor egress only via one interior stairway.
D. Removing front cornices or signs in most cases will provide access to the cockloft area

2. A

16

3. The type of taxpayer built since the 1960’s is correctly described in which answer?
(2.3.3, 5.5.26)

A. They contain the same type occupancies and the structural features will be similar to the
previous types of taxpayers, except that they have seen a reduction in the use of combustible
materials.
B. In many of these buildings the difference is the use of steel bar joists, which are typically
spaced the same distance apart as standard wood joists.
C. The most common roof decking used with lightweight open web steel joists is gypsum
planks.
D. Steel bar joists are used more often because of the ability to withstand temperatures for a
longer duration than a comparable size wood joist

3. A

17

4. A lieutenant asked a firefighter to describe the features of a mezzanine area found in a
taxpayer. The firefighter should have been corrected in which choices? (2.4)
1. A majority of these areas will be enclosed by solid walls.
2. The height of ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be below average.
3. Most mezzanines have probably been added after the original construction date and the
load bearing components can be light weight.
4. Access to this area usually is by way of two means, a small wooden stairs and a ladder.
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

4. C

18

5. A sharp captain would know that automatic sprinklers are required in how many of the
following one-story taxpayer buildings? (2.5.1)

1. 200 X 50 building built under the 1938 Code
2. 40 X 200 building built under the 1968 Code
3. 100 X 100 building built under the 2008 Code
4. 80 X 100 individual occupancy within a building built under the 2008 Code

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

5. B (2&4)

Rules for sprinkler protection:
1938 Code Area exceeding 10,000 square feet.
1968 Code Area exceeding 7,500 square feet.
2008 Code-Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING-Area exceeding 12,000
square feet OR the combined area on all
floors including mezzanines exceeds 24,000
square feet. (BC 903.2.6)
Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racks
or rack storage arrays (BC 903.2.6.1)

OCCUPANCY WITHIN BUILDING-Area
exceeding 7,500 square feet OR area of any
size is located 3 stories above grade OR area
of any size is located in a High Rise building
OR area of any size contains an unenclosed
stair or escalator connecting two or more
floors. (BC 903.2.6.2)

19

6. Regarding truss construction features which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3.3.3)

A. Truss members form a combination of interdependent components used to span large
distances through the use of smaller pieces fastened together.
B. The truss is composed of two major members- the top and bottom web which are connected
by chords placed vertically and diagonally.
C. Failure of one truss element can cause a failure of the entire truss in the early stages of a
fire.
D. Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning, and do not sag or get spongy.

6. B

20

8. A firefighter operating on the roof of a taxpayer should know which point to be correct?
(3.3.3)
A. Wooden bowstring trusses have a characteristic hump-like roof, and the shorter the roof
spans, the higher the bow will be.
B. Other types of truss construction are not as easily discerned from the exterior of the
building.
C. In older type wooden truss roof buildings, the trusses are spaced 4-6 feet apart.
D. A wooden bowstring truss roof is not an easily recognizable feature and members must rely
on CIDS for this information.

8. B

21

9. When subjected to a fire, unprotected open web steel joists may collapse after? (3.3.3)
A. 5 or 10 minutes
B. 15 or 20 minutes
C. 30 or 40 minutes
D. 45 to 60 minutes

9. A

D. Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated
temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

22

10. Which of the following points concerning walls in taxpayer structures is correctly stated?
(3.4)
A. When brick walls fall, they usually hinge at ground level with an entire side or rear wall
remaining intact and falling out flat. Concrete block walls usually crumble or break as they fall.
B. A collapse or disintegration of the roof may impart a shear load, either pushing out or
pulling in on the wall as stresses are formed.
C. Stability of masonry walls depends on the load being concentrated in a vertical direction
through the wall. Any degree of tilting which causes this load to be applied axially to the vertical
may cause collapse.
D. Interior partition walls between stores are usually of wood stud construction, with plaster or
sheetrock covering, and are usually firestopped at the floor and the ceiling by wood sills and
plates.

10. D

3.4.2 The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on the integrity of the
roof. The roof acts as a monolithic brace which ties the walls together. In effect
the roof is holding up the walls by providing lateral support. A collapse or
disintegration of the roof removes this support and may impart a lateral load,
either pushing out, or pulling in, on the wall as stresses are formed. Concrete
block walls sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may
remain intact and fall out flat. Brick walls usually crumble or break as they fall,
but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall
hits the ground.

3.4.4 Interior partition walls between stores are usually of wood stud construction, with
plaster or sheetrock covering, and are usually firestopped at the floor and the
ceiling by wood sills and plates. The plaster or sheetrock provides longitudinal
rigidity for these partition walls between the front and rear walls and roof.
Removal of large sections of plaster will weaken this bracing.

23

11. Exposed steel "I" beams are commonly used in taxpayer construction to support roof and
floor joists. Which point about these steel “I” beams is correctly stated? (3.6)
A. A large, heavy "I" beam will be able to absorb less heat and its temperature will rise more
rapidly than a lightweight beam.
B. An average 50-foot long steel beam heated uniformly over its length to 970 degrees will
extend in length approximately four inches. At 1000 degrees a 100-foot long beam will also have
extended in length four inches.
C. The temperature at which steel can soften and fail can be reached in five to ten minutes at a
fire.
D. Cooling a steel member will cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability, but it
will not contract to its original length.

11. C

A large, heavy "I" beam will be able to
absorb more heat and its temperature will rise more slowly than a lightweight
beam. Because of the conductivity of the steel, this temperature will diffuse into
the beam causing its expansion. An average 50 foot long steel beam, heated
uniformly over its length to 970 F will extend in length approximately four
inches. A longer "I" beam will expand a proportionately greater distance, and as
the temperature increases, the rate of expansion increases. At 1000 F a 100-foot
long beam will have extended in length nine-and-a-half inches.

3.6.3 When these steel beams are heated from 1000 F to 1500 F, their yield strength
drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can be
reached in five to ten minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an
uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the smaller beam sections), until these beams
can be heated beyond their strength limitations.

3.6.4 There is a false impression that hot steel beams or columns cooled by hose
streams will crack or fail. Tests have shown that cooling a steel member will
cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability, and under normal
circumstances, there should be no hesitation in cooling these members. If the
beam has already sagged under the weight of floors or roof, firefighters should
not be allowed in the possible collapse zone, whether these beams are cooled or
not. The steel will contract to its original length as it is cooled and if the beam has
sagged, this shortening may pull the end of the beams off their supports or twist
the beam allowing the joists to drop

24

12. Which of the following taxpayer construction feature points is accurate? (3.5,
3.9.2, 3.9.3, 3.10.2)
A. Paneling under display windows at street fronts can sometimes be removed for cellar
access, as the flooring is sometimes omitted under the raised display platform.
B. Marquees and canopies usually are connected directly to a front load bearing wall, and a
cockloft fire should generally not affect their stability.
C. Indications of a cellar fire below a heavy terrazzo floor placed over wood joists will usually
be evident on arrival.
D. Cellar ceilings are not required to be fire retarded.

12. A

12. Which of the following taxpayer construction feature points is accurate? (3.5,
3.9.2, 3.9.3, 3.10.2)
A. Paneling under display windows at street fronts can sometimes be removed for cellar
access, as the flooring is sometimes omitted under the raised display platform.
B. Marquees and canopies usually are connected directly to a front load bearing wall, and a
cockloft fire should generally not affect their stability.
C. Indications of a cellar fire below a heavy terrazzo floor placed over wood joists will usually
be evident on arrival.
D. Cellar ceilings are not required to be fire retarded.

3.10.2 Cellar ceilings are required to be fire retarded but the plaster covering may be
deficient. Partition walls between cellars are usually of combustible or flimsy
construction and joist channels at cellar ceilings are often not firestopped
allowing fire, combustible gas and smoke extension from cellar to cellar.

25

13. What is the most common type flooring in a taxpayer? (3.9.1)
A. Heavy terrazzo.
B. Concrete on Q-decking.
C. Tongue and groove boards or plywood.
D. Poured gypsum over formboard.

13. C

26

14. In assessing the possibility of a structural collapse, the Incident Commander must take into
account certain considerations. Which one of the following points is not mentioned in FFP
Taxpayers as one of these considerations? (4.2.1)
A. Type of construction involved in the fire
B. Intensity of the fire
C. Time that the structural members have been burning
D. Heavy body of fire burning out of control for 10 minutes or more

14. D

A. Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes
or more, particularly in a large open floor area.

27

15. Upon arrival at an occupied taxpayer fire during business hours, an engine company
lieutenant notices the sign above the entrance door denoting a smoke shop occupancy. There is a
medium fire condition that involves the store. The lieutenant would be correct in choosing
which tactic for his unit at this fire? (4.3.3.F)
A. Stretch a 2 ½” handline and if possible knock down the fire from just inside the store
entrance before advancing the line.
B. Order members to break the storefront windows for ventilation.
C. Stretch a 2 ½” handline and if possible knock down the fire from the sidewalk area before
advancing the line.
D. Stretch a 2 ½” handline and knock down only visible fire after entry into the store.

15.C

28

16. All horizontal and initial vertical ventilation must be controlled by and coordinated with
who? (5.1.5)
A. The Incident Commander
B. The first engine officer
C. The ladder officer in the area to be vented
D. The Rescue officer

16. C

29

17. Which of the following points pertaining to lightweight open web steel joists is correct?
(5.5.26)
A. The spacing of the joists will vary depending on the strength of the supporting columns.
B. When using the most common decking, which is corrugated steel, the joists are spaced
from one to three feet apart.
C. Roofs of fire buildings with this type roof support system must not be cut.
D. When a gypsum concrete roof deck is found with open web steel joists as the supporting
system, vertical ventilation should be limited to the removal of skylights and scuttle covers.

17. C

B. The spacing of the joists will vary depending on the strength of the joists
and the type of roof decking used.
C. The most common decking is corrugated steel. With this type decking, the
joists are spaced from four to six feet.

E. Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be cut.

H. Gypsum concrete decking is of lightweight construction, spans wide
spaces and is vulnerable to moisture. These characteristics are conducive
to early collapse under fire conditions. Therefore, members shall not be
committed to roof operations. Interior operations shall be conducted from
areas of safety due to the weight of such decking materials (17.5 lbs. per
sq. ft.). The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a white
powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, members
should immediately notify the Roof Sector Supervisor and IC and
evacuate the roof.

30

18. A lieutenant encountering a previously undocumented wooden bowstring truss roof on a
building not in his administrative district would be correct to take which action? (3.3.3.K)
A. It must be entered into eCIDS with the abbreviation BWSG in the building description
section by the administrative unit.
B. It must be entered into eCIDS with the abbreviation BWSTRG as the FD Designation by
the administrative unit.
C. It must be entered into eCIDS with the abbreviation BWSTRG immediately following the
building description section by him upon return to quarters.
D. It must be entered into eCIDS with the abbreviation BOWST as the FD Designation by him
upon return to quarters.

18. B

31

19. Which of the following is a true statement about loads placed on a structure? (Glossary)
A. An axial load is a force parallel to the supporting member and is straight and true and
evenly applied to the supporting member.
B. An eccentric load is a force perpendicular to the supporting member but does not pass
through the center of the mass and is not evenly applied to the supporting member.
C. An impact load is delivered over an extended period of time and produces stresses on
structural members that it may not have been designed for.
D. A lateral load is a load that exerts a twisting force on the supporting member.

19. B

32

20. Which of the taxpayer construction features and their relation to possible building collapse
is incorrectly stated? (3.5, 3.6.3, 3.6.4, 3.11.1)
A. Marquees are required to have drainage facilities, but may fill up with run-off water and
collapse, pulling down the parapet wall.
B. Steel beams heated from 1000 degrees F to 1500 degrees F start to soften and fail, and hose
streams should not be applied to them as they may crack or fail.
C. Cast iron columns are unpredictable and fail on average in about 30 minutes in fire
endurance tests.
D. Metal overhead security doors can cause the lintel over the store front to fail, especially
when they are in the open position.

20. B

33

21. The failure of which structural member generally results in the more serious consequences
in a collapse? (3.7)
A. Floor or roof deck
B. Column
C. Beam
D. Girder

21. B

34

22. Security doors can challenge members during a fire. How many choices accurately
describe scenarios members may face, and tactics they can employ to deal with doors that have
been affected by fire? (3.11.4)
1. Heat causes springs to lose their tension, however motors and hoists will generally prevent
doors from rolling down with tremendous force.
2. Steel overhead tracks should be checked for integrity, as warped tracks will generally jam
the door in the open position, negating a collapse potential.
3. If a door can be operated electrically it should be done so immediately, prior to loss of
spring tension.
4. Doors can be secured from rolling down by clamping a vise grip pliers in the track under a
roller or placing a ladder as a stop.
A. All B. One C. Two D. Three

22. C (3&4)

A. When the spring tension is gone, motor or hoist devices usually will not
prevent the door from coming down hard once it starts down. In addition,
at more advanced fires the steel track on either side can warp pulling, out
the rollers and allowing the door to drop flat.

35

23. Which one of the following is accurately described as either a cause or sign of a potential
structural collapse? (4.2.4, 4.2.5)
A. An impact load, such as a firefighter jumping onto a roof, which has the same effect as a
static load of the same weight.
B. Heavy body of fire burning out of control for 15 minutes or more.
C. Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 10 minutes into
an operation.
D. A spongy or soft feeling as a member walks on a standard roof.

23. D

F. Impact load: An object such as a gas heater falling from the ceiling, or a
firefighter jumping onto a roof or floor which has been weakened by fire
may be enough to cause collapse. An impact load has a much greater
effect than the same weight carried as a static (stationary) load.

4.2.5 Some of the warning signs that will signal a potential structural collapse during
firefighting operations are:
A. Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes
or more, particularly in a large open floor area.

J. Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within
20 minutes into the operation at the fire.

36

24. Which of the following factors is missing during a fire in the decay stage and is necessary
to create a backdraft? (4.4.1.F)
A. Combustibles
B. heat
C. oxygen

24. C

37

25. When members are faced with backdraft conditions, which is the proper sequence for fire
attack? (4.4.1.K, M)
A. force entry at lower level, vent roof or area over fire, pull ceilings, operate hose lines
B. vent roof or area over fire, pull ceilings, operate hose lines, force entry at lower level
C. vent roof or area over fire, force entry at lower levels, operate hose lines
D. operate hose lines, force entry at lower level, vent roof or area over fire

25. C

38

26. A room or fire area requires 50% of its space to contain a mixture of high heat, combustible
gases and highly heated contents in order for a backdraft to occur. (4.4.1.F)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

26. D

F. It must be remembered that in a high heat condition, combustible gases
and highly heated contents are now present in the structure. All that is
missing is a source of air or oxygen to create an explosive fire. A room or
fire area requires only 25 percent of its space to contain the explosive
mixture for the entire area to possibly explode. The entire area could
explode when firefighters enter to search and allow fresh air to enter with
them.

39

27. The most effective method in protecting firefighters from a potential backdraft is vertical
ventilation, and no other method should be employed prior to firefighter entry into a suspected
explosive atmosphere. (4.4.1.N)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

27. D

N. An alternative to roof venting although not as effective, is the use of a
hose stream. Before entering a room or area that exhibits signs of an
explosive atmosphere, a charged hoseline should be positioned near the
entrance. Initially, firefighters should be protected by taking a flanking
position or by the reach of the hose stream. The hoseline should be
immediately discharged into the fire area when the fire area is opened-up.
Taking this action before firefighters and outside air enter a burning,
confined, potentially explosive fire area, may allow the water stream to
break up the explosive atmosphere. The water can cool a potentially
explosive atmosphere.

40

28. Ventilation can be accomplished in various ways at a taxpayer fire. Which choice is
correct concerning ventilation? (5.4.6, 5.4.16, 5.4.22, 5.5.9)
A. A roof cut for vertical vent must be large enough to permit rapid exit of heat and gases, and
where possible should be 4 feet by 8 feet.
B. Engine companies can use the FT-2 tip and must adjust the fog pattern to the width of the
opening and stand back four to five feet.
C. At cellar fires cutting the first floor is often necessary, and the cut should be made as near
as possible to an outside opening such as a doorway or window.
D. Roof cuts should be lifted off in multiple, smaller, more manageable pieces.

28. B

A hole
eight feet by eight feet, where possible, is recommended.

5.5.9 Roof cuts should be made in one operation. They should be lifted off in one piece
if possible. If this is not possible, then the roof covering should be removed first,
followed by removal of the roof boards. All obstructions below the cut should be
removed or opened by pushing down from the roof through such openings.

41

29. A newly promoted lieutenant arrived first due ladder at a commercial building fire. The
eCIDS indicated a bowstring truss roof. After conferring with the engine lieutenant, it was
decided that an interior attack would be commenced. He was correct in which of the ensuing
orders? (5.5.25)
A. Ordered all of his members to accompany the engine into the structure to facilitate
advancement of the line.
B. Ordered the roof FF to proceed to the roof to assess conditions, but instructed the FF not to
cut the roof.
C. Once he recognized that there were ceilings in place, obscuring the trusses, he requested
the OV FF to raise the TL bucket and make inspection cuts in the sloping hip section on the front
of the roof.
D. Once he recognized that fire involved the underside of the roof boards, he directed the line
to sweep the highest portion of the roof arch, and had members waiting outside the structure
move up on the line.

29. C

42

30. Collapse potential of a bowstring roof is great. Particular attention must be paid to which
walls? (5.5.25.E)
A. Both sidewalls
B. Front walls only
C. Rear walls only
D. Front and rear walls

30. D

43

31. Members on the roof of a taxpayer who are prepared to make a trench cut should know
that? (5.6)
A. Trenching does not take the place of a primary ventilation hole, but may serve as an
additional ventilation source.
B. The width of the trench should be at least two feet wide.
C. The trench must be made perpendicular to the roof joists in order to vent as many bays as
possible.
D. When fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft in a large taxpayer
multiple saws must be used to assist in trenching.
E. Avoid trenching that will incorporate a shaft, chimney or bulkhead, as fire can pass at this
point.

31. A

44

32. Which statement about roof supervision is accurate? (5.5.20, 5.4.12)
A. The IC must assign an officer to supervise roof operations when one saw is working on the
roof.
B. The IC must assign a chief officer as a Roof Sector Supervisor to supervise roof operations
when two saws are working on the roof.
C. The IC should assign a chief officer as a Roof Sector Supervisor to supervise roof
operations when roof cutting is critical.
D. The IC should assign an officer to supervise roof operations when roof cutting is critical.

32. C

45

PART III – TB – TOOLS #1, 2, 3, 4 & 7:
TOOLS 1 – PRESSURIZED WATER EXTINGUISHER
1. A new lieutenant was conducting a drill on the “can”. The firefighters asked questions
about his lecture. The lieutenant was correct in which response?
A. If a can is found in the field with no Schrader connection, it must be put out of service with
an RT-2 and sent to Technical Services.
B. The can shall be inspected after each use and at the beginning of each tour.
C. If the hydrostatic test date stamped on the can is greater than 5 years old, the can must be
placed out of service.
D. A can left inside of a fire area can’t BLEVE, as it does not contain a flammable liquid.

1. C

4. INSPECTION
The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use.
Inspection shall include:

46

2. The regulated device used to pressurize a can shall never be set higher than how many psi?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 150
D. 175

2. B

47

TOOLS 2- KO CURTAIN
1. Routine maintenance and servicing of the KO Curtain must be understood by a covering
lieutenant aspiring to work in a ladder company. Which choice below is listed correctly?
A. It shall be inspected daily and after each use.
B. After deployment at an operation, and having it secured by the IC afterwards, the officer
will prepare a report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use and any damage sustained.
C. Contact R & D for a replacement device after use at an operation.
D. Limit drilling with the device to weekly MUD to avoid unnecessary damage.

1. B

3. MAINTENANCE
3.1 The KO Curtain shall be inspected weekly during MUD and after each use. The
inspection will include removing the curtain from the carrying sleeve and unfurling it.
Inspect the deployment ropes, the 5 aluminum bars embedded in the curtain and all
stitching.

6.3 Contact the administrative Division for a replacement KO Curtain.

6.5 Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes.
Each Division has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill. Repeated use of the KO
Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.

48

2. Deployments of the KO Curtain have shown significant flame reduction and ?
A. An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition
produced by the fire.
B. An eventual 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition
produced by the fire.
C. An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition
produced by the fire.
D. An immediate 25% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition
produced by the fire.

2. A

49

3. The KO Training Curtain is for training purposes only. When being transported on the
apparatus for any reason, the company officer shall make sure it is in a secure location and not
used at any fire operations. How can a company officer differentiate a KO Training Curtain
from the actual KO Curtain?
A. The Training Curtain is black nylon with the top 2 feet painted white with the words
“TRAINING” stenciled in fluorescent paint.
B. The Training Curtain is black vinyl with yellow stripes forming an X.
C. The Training Curtain is red vinyl with silver stripes forming an X.
D. The Training Curtain is red Hot-Stop 1500 L with yellow stripes forming an X.

3. B

50

TOOLS 3 – FIRE WINDOW BLANKET
1. When discussing the Fire Window Blanket with members while supervising a drill, in
which statement was a Battalion Chief correct? (Tools 3)
A. The blanket is kept in a red vinyl carrying bag.
B. It is brought to the floor above the fire, two floors above, or to the roof if fire is on the top
floor. If deployed from two floors above utility ropes must be secured to the top straps to gain
the necessary length.
C. The Incident Commander must make a handi-talkie announcement to all units just after the
blanket is put in place, and units should report back any adverse conditions caused by the
blanket.
D. The top of the blanket is identified by the word “Top” stenciled on the top straps and the
blanket

1. D

3.1 The blanket is kept in a white vinyl carrying bag, along with an instruction sheet for its use.

3.5 Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from two floors
above, if the IC deems this necessary.

3.6 Just before the blanket is put in place, the IC must make a handi-talkie announcement to
all units. All units must be instructed to report any adverse conditions caused by the
blanket being put in place.

51

2. You are a new Captain assigned to an engine company for a very windy day tour. On
arrival at a 10-77 fire, with fire being blown back into two adjoining windows, you report in to
the command post. The Deputy orders you to deploy the Fire Window Blanket, which was
brought to the floor above by a Squad company. You would be correct to answer him how?
(Tools 3)
A. “This is not my blanket and I don’t know how to do it.”
B. “I’ll try but I don’t think I can have my member’s cover both windows as the blanket is not
large enough.”
C. “No can do, Chief! I know we can cover both windows but the blanket will probably blow
around due to this high wind.”
D. “Can do, Chief! I’ll have one of my members be a spotter from the exterior with your
binoculars, and I’ll send two members to the floor below to secure the lower straps.”

2. D

52

TOOLS 4 - PORTABLE LIGHTING AND GENERATING EQUIPMENT
1. A probationary firefighter asked the new lieutenant some questions regarding the use of
portable power generators. The lieutenant was correct in which response? (Tools 4 -
Sec. 3.2, 3.5, 3.8.2, 3.8.5)
A. All portable lights shall be operated for 5 minutes weekly during generator test to test lights
and generator under load.
B. When using a portable generator to power exhaust fans, small tools or lights, the electric
cord should be 50 feet or less.
C. Portable generators shall be operated for 10 minutes weekly.
D. Oil in the crankcase should be changed after 50 hours of use by firefighters at the
completion of the weekly test.

1. A

3.2 All portable generators have 4 cycle engines, which require no mixing of gasoline

3.5 If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical
cord should be 50 feet or less. Electrical cords of longer lengths reduce the efficiency of
the fan and may result in damage to the equipment being used. Distance is not a problem
when powering small tools and lights.

3.8.2 Operate portable generators for 15 minutes weekly. During this time, operate all
lights for 5 minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under
load. If lamps do not light while testing or using, check bulbs for tight connection.

53

2. Which is a correct statement concerning apparatus mounted generators? (Tools 4
- sec. 4.1, 4.3, 4.4)
A. Most ladder company apparatus are equipped with onboard generators.
B. A ladder company with a 2000 or older apparatus may encounter problems powering
exhaust fans when the onboard electric cord reel is greater than 50 feet.
C. All repairs to onboard and portable generators shall be performed by Fleet Services.
D. Onboard generators shall be checked at the start of each tour.

2. B

4.1 All ladder company apparatus are equipped with onboard generators.

4.3 Apparatus (2001 & newer) are equipped with electrical cords that are 10-gauge wire.
Older apparatus have electric cords that are 12-gauge wire. Apparatus with 12-gauge
wire may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the length of the electric cord
is greater than 50 feet.

4.4 All repairs to onboard generators shall be performed by Fleet Services. Maintenance will
be done with apparatus Preventive Maintenance Program.

4.6 Onboard generators shall be checked weekly during Multi Unit Drill.

54

3. General safety precautions regarding the operation of generators and their related
equipment are incorrectly stated in which choice? (Tools 4 – Sec. 5.3, 6.1, 6.2, 6.6, 6.9)
A. Do not operate generators in a confined space where insufficient oxygen, or carbon
monoxide may exist.
B. Do not use electrical equipment in explosive atmospheres.
C. Do not overload generators beyond their rated capacity so as not to damage the tools being
used.
D. Do not use electrical equipment in the presence of water.

3. D

5.3 Waterproof connections are good for use in up to 3 feet of water when properly mated.
Care must be used when using all other connections near water.

6.1 Do not operate generators in a confined space where insufficient oxygen or carbon
monoxide may exist. This may result in persons being overcome. Additionally, faulty
operation of the internal combustion engine may result.

6.2 Exercise care when working with electrical equipment, especially in the presence of water.

6.6 Do not overload generators or power outlets.

6.9 Do not use electrical equipment in explosive atmospheres.

55

4. When operations using a Honda portable generator require maximum power output, its use
should be limited to? (Tools 4 – Data Sheet 1 – Sec. 4.4)
A. 20 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. one hour

4. B

4.4 Operations requiring maximum power output should be limited to 30 minutes.
For continuous operation, do not exceed rated power output. In either instance, the total
power requirements of all tools connected must be considered. Manufacturers usually
list this rating information near the model or serial number.

56

TOOLS 7 - HOSE NOZZLES (HAND HELD)
1. Which choice describes incorrectly when controlling nozzles are tested in the FDNY?
A. Annually in spring with Hose Test
B. Newly issued to a unit
C. Repaired and returned to a unit
D. When deemed necessary by Division Commander

1. A

3.15 Controlling nozzles will be tested annually in August and whenever deemed necessary in
accordance with schedules established by Division Commanders as follows:

57

2. You are a lieutenant assigned 4th due engine company on the transmission of a 10-77. You
should know which of the following statements is correct? (Data Sheet 17)
1. If your company has been assigned a hi-rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to bring that
nozzle to the Command Post.
2. If your company has not been assigned a hi-rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to inform
the dispatcher to special call a unit that has a hi-rise nozzle.
3. If you are supervising a hi-rise nozzle operation, you must initiate contact via handie-talkie
with the assigned spotter on the outside of the building to insure effective use of the stream.
4. If you are supervising a hi-rise nozzle operation, you shall insure the supply line is attached
to the nozzle before the nozzle is slid out on the window sill, and that a shut-off is placed in
line two lengths back from the nozzle.
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4

2. A

58

3. You are a lieutenant at a multiple alarm cockloft fire in a large H-type building. The
Deputy Chief orders your company to retrieve the cockloft nozzle and put it into operation on the
top floor. What do you need to know about this tool to effectively utilize it? (Data Sheet 18)
A. It can be found stored on one Engine Company in each battalion.
B. It has a very large discharge rate of nearly 300 gpm due to the two nozzle tips.
C. It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
D. A hole approximately 3’x3’ in the ceiling will provide space for the nozzle to fit, and the
preferred location for this is underneath the main body of fire.

3. C

1.2 The two ½" OSTs are NOT to be removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in
excess of 60 feet. They also facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid
extinguishment of fire in the confined spaces of a cockloft.

1.3 The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 125 gpm. (Figure 1)

2.2 The cockloft nozzle shall be carried in all Division vehicles.

3.4 A hole approximately 3' x 3' is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit.
The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must
be a minimum of 4" to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle.

59

PART IV – AUC's #180, 200 & 202:
1. A lieutenant arriving first due at a 75 foot high office building and seeing fire issuing from
a room with a sign that reads “Caution-Transformer-High Voltage” should transmit which of the
following signals? (AUC 180 – Sec. 1.1)
A. 10-84, 10-75, 10-25 Code 1
B. 10-84, 10-76, 10-25 Code 2
C. 10-84, 10-76, 10-25 Code 4
D. 10-84, 10-77, 10-25 Code 4

1. C

60

2. General operational guidelines at manhole emergencies are accurately stated in which
choices? (AUC 180 – Sec. 2.1, 2.3, 2.4, Note 2, 5, 6)
1. Cordon and tape off the immediate danger area for both FD and civilians, while stretching
precautionary hose lines in the street beyond the predictable limits of fire or explosion.
2. Endangered vehicles shall be removed from the danger area, and traffic control boxes must
be considered when deciding the area of danger.
3. After members pull a manhole cover, units may operate hose lines into them when fire
conditions dictate and only when using a fog nozzle.
4. The hose stream should be operated directly into the manhole until a Con Ed employee
requests you to stop.
A. 1 only B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 2

2. A

61

3. The Incident Commander has ordered an engine company to await the arrival of the Con
Ed emergency crew. You as the engine officer would be correct if you? (AUC 180 –
Sec. 2.6)
A. Knew that if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 30 minutes, the IC could order
the manhole be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units go 10-8.
B. Knew that if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 20 minutes, the IC could also
order you to return to quarters while leaving two members at the scene.
C. Knew that if one member was left at the scene, and the unit returned to quarters, the
battalion would provide relief for that member.
D. Knew that if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 15 minutes, the IC could order
you to leave one member at the scene while you respond to assigned alarms.

3. A

2.6 When operations are within the capability of a single unit, the Officer in Command may
leave one unit (preferably an Engine Company) to await the arrival of the emergency crew.
If the expected time of arrival is more than 30 minutes, the Officer in Charge, based on
evaluation of existing conditions, may order one of the following:
A. The unit remaining on the scene may respond to assigned alarms received via
department radio; one member shall be left at the scene.
B. One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters.
Company officers shall provide relief for members.
C. When a member is left at the scene, the company officer shall at frequent intervals
contact the dispatcher for re-notification of the utility company.
D. The manhole shall be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units placed in
service.

62

4. When discussing transformer vault features with a probie, the lieutenant was correct in
which point? (AUC 180 – Sec. 3.1.A, 3.1.C, 3.1.D, 3.2.D)
A. The greatest hazard is the amount of electricity, but asbestos and PCB’s may also be
present.
B. All transformers in vaults contain dielectric oil with PCB’s in the 10-49 PPM range. This
makes this a Non-PCB transformer and units may operate as if no PCB’s are present.
C. Transformers convert primary voltage (27,000 Volts) to secondary voltage (120 Volts), and
members should be concerned with only the higher voltage as being potentially fatal.
D. Transformer vaults are located underground and are easily noticed by members.

4. A

D. All transformers that are in the vaults contain dielectric oil, which acts as a
coolant, in amounts ranging from 200 gallons to 600 gallons. The trade name for
the newer oil that CON EDISON is presently using is SUN-OIL or MOBIL-X.
This oil contains PCBs in the range of 10- 49 PPM and therefore is considered a
Non-PCB Transformer. However, CON EDISON still has in use vault
transformers that are considered PCB-CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS
that contain 50-499 PPM of PCBs.

63

5. When operating at a transformer vault incident members shall use full PPE and SCBA even
in light smoke conditions, and shall also take how many of the following actions?
(AUC 180 – Sec. 3.3.B, Ref.#1 sec. 2.3)
1. Due to the amount of flammable liquid, stretch a precautionary hose line and be prepared to
initiate a foam operation.
2. Teams of two members shall examine exposures taking CO readings in the meter room,
surrounding rooms, and on the first floor.
3. Make entry into the vault prior to Con Ed arrival if a known life hazard exists in the vault.
4. Be prepared to re-examine exposures on a periodic basis as conditions can change rapidly.
A. One B. Two C. Three D. All

5. C [1, 2, 4]

 Stretch a precautionary handline. Due to the amount of flammable liquid
contained in these transformers, Engine Companies shall also be prepared
to initiate a foam operation if the need arises.

1) Teams of two members shall be used to examine an exposure.
Each member shall be fully equipped with PPC, SCBA and Handi-
Talkie. In addition, they shall carry a Carbon Monoxide Monitor.
Readings shall be taken in the Meter Room, surrounding rooms,
and on first floor, if necessary. High levels of CO have been found
in exposures at these incidents.
2) Due to nature of these incidents and possible duration, it will be
necessary to re-examine these exposures on a periodic basis.

2.3 Members are not to enter these vaults until Con Edison has made their examination.
2.4 Con Edison will make the determination that the vault is safe for entry, if necessary, by
F.D. personnel.
2.5 F.D. personnel receiving this authorization will conduct a cursory search of the vault for
victims.

64

6. When a snow or ice emergency is imminent, or Phase A or B of AUC 200 has been
established, units shall insure how many of the following items are placed on the apparatus?
(AUC 200 - 3.3.3.C)
1. At least 3 extra lengths of 2 ½” rolled or folded hose on each engine and ladder
2. Specialized hydrant connection set-up
3. Containers of salt and/or sand
4. Tire chains, spare links and a link tool
5. 1 shovel
6. Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. All

6. C [2, 3, 4, 6]

D. The following equipment shall be assembled in readiness and placed on
company apparatus when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A
or B established.
1. At least 6 extra lengths of 2 ½" hose, rolled or folded, on each
Engine and Ladder apparatus.
2. 2 shovels.
3. Containers of salt and/or sand.
4. Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
5. Tire chains, spare links and link tool.
6. Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual
commanding officers.
The above equipment shall also be assembled and ready for use on reserve
apparatus.

65

7. During cold weather operations a lieutenant should know that which of the following
guidelines should not be followed? (AUC 200 - Sec 4.2.1, 4.4.1, 4.4.5, 4.4.9)
A. Tower Ladders, deck pipes, multi-versals, manifolds and pumps shall be drained after use
and daily.
B. Officers shall extend the search after arrival at box locations, as tightly closed buildings
could hide evidence of fire.
C. During intermittent line operations, the nozzle shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing.
D. Aerial ladders shall not be raised unless absolutely necessary, and retracted at the earliest
opportunity.

7. A

4.2.1 Drain tower ladders, deck pipes, multiversals, manifolds and pumps after use and
following roll calls.

66

8. Units arrive at the scene of a building fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story OLT. Poor street
conditions exist due to a heavy snowfall. Which would be considered a proper tactic for units to
take? (AUC 200 - 5.3.10 C & D)
A. The first arriving engine and the first and second arriving ladder company shall enter the
block.
B. Preference shall be given to the engine company to enter the block prior to the ladder, with
the ladder company carrying portable ladders.
C. The engine apparatus should slowly proceed forward into the block for greater traction, and
position the hosebed just past the building in anticipation of a backstretch.
D. If hydrants are inaccessible or frozen, units should consider the use of standpipes in nearby
buildings.

8. D

4. Where building involved is higher than 3 stories, preference shall
be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the
engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest
hydrant, if necessary. Where building involved is 3 stories or less,
preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering
block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable
ladders.

67

9. A lieutenant who is off duty in the parking lot of the firehouse witnesses some of the onduty
firefighters moving beer taps and an empty keg between cars of off-duty members after a
softball game. How many of the following actions are the lieutenant mandated to take? (202
- 5.5)
1. Report this as a violation of AUC 202 to the on-duty officer and the administrative
Battalion, or the next superior officer.
2. Take no action as this is not a violation of AUC 202.
3. Prohibit only on-duty members from leaving the premises without permission of the
investigating officer.
4. Prohibit on and off-duty members from leaving the premises without permission of the
investigating officer.
5. Immediately relieve the on-duty members from emergency response duty only if they
exhibit signs of being intoxicated.
6. Immediately have the unit placed out of service if the number of members relieved from
duty puts the unit below minimum manning levels, otherwise leave the unit in service.
7. Notify BITS immediately.
8. Take a company journal entry.
9. Notify the IG immediately.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 1 D. 7

9. A [1, 4, 7, 8]

68

10. If you are deemed to be the investigating officer at an incident in quarters, which actions
would be correct to take? (202 - 5.7)
1. If you permit anyone who was present at the time of the violation to leave quarters you
must document the reason for the release in a report to the Chief of Department.
2. Conduct a roll call of all on-duty and off-duty members present.
3. Advise all officers and firefighters whom you reasonably believe may be subject to charges
of their right to representation before questioning them.
4. If you believe that any member has violated AUC 202, order that member to be tested for
alcohol and illegal drugs.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. All

10. D

5.7 The officer charged with investigating a suspected or known violation of this policy shall
immediately:
1. Conduct a roll call. All on-duty and off-duty members present in premises shall be
part of the roll call.
2. Advise all officers and firefighters whom the investigating officer reasonably
believes may be subject to charges of their right to representation before being
questioned.
3. Following notification, conduct an investigation to ascertain which member(s) may
have engaged in any conduct prohibited under this policy.
4. If the officer has reason to believe that any member(s) has violated this policy, the
officer shall immediately order that such member(s) be tested for alcohol and illegal
drugs. If the officer orders testing, he or she shall document the reasons for the
determination in a report to the Chief of Department via the Chain of Command.
If the officer determines that there is no reason to believe that this policy has been
violated, he or she shall not order testing and shall document the reasons for his or her
determination in a report to the Chief of Department via the Chain of Command.

69

11. Which of the following conducts by members would a lieutenant know are strictly
prohibited? (AUC 202 sec. 4)
1. Members off duty carrying a bag of unopened beer back to Penn Station for the train ride
home after St. Patrick’s Day Parade, while still in uniform.
2. Off-duty members becoming intoxicated while at a bar.
3. Off-duty members after a softball game having a beer in the firehouse parking lot.
4. An off-duty member is present at the time of discovery of alcohol in quarters, and leaves
quarters after receiving permission from the investigating officer.
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. 1 and 3

11. D

4. PROHIBITED CONDUCT
The following conduct by members is strictly prohibited:
4.1 Use, positive presence, possession, attempted possession, sale, transport or delivery of
any illegal drug as defined in Section 3.2 while on-duty or off-duty; or while in uniform;
or while in any Department premises, property or vehicle(s).
4.2 Use, possession, sale, transport or delivery of any drug paraphernalia (e.g. hypodermic
needles used to inject illegal substances) while on-duty; or while in uniform; or while in
any Department premises, property or vehicle(s).

4.3 Use, positive presence, possession, sale, transport or delivery of alcohol or related
paraphernalia (e.g. beer taps, beer kegs) while on-duty; or while in uniform; or while in
any Department premises, property or vehicle(s).
4.4 Any use of alcohol that may elicit a positive test result while on-duty.
4.5 Refusal to cooperate in any substance test ordered by the Fire Department, including the
completion and signing of any required forms.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):