WEEK #4 WEEK OF 10/7/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MAN. CH. #9 {ALL Add’s} PART II – FFP TAXPAYERS {SEC. 5.7 – END} PART III – TB – TOOLS #17, 20 & 21 PART IV – ERP {PGS 1 – 23} INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #4 WEEK OF 10/7/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MAN. CH. #9 {ALL Add’s} PART II – FFP TAXPAYERS {SEC. 5.7 – END} PART III – TB – TOOLS #17, 20 & 21 PART IV – ERP {PGS 1 – 23} INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #4 WEEK OF 10/7/13 PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MAN. CH. #9 {ALL Add’s} PART II – FFP TAXPAYERS {SEC. 5.7 – END} PART III – TB – TOOLS #17, 20 & 21 PART IV – ERP {PGS 1 – 23} INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO Deck (65):
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PART I – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #9 (ALL ADDENDUMS):
1. The recorder in the battalion vehicle becomes operational shortly after the vehicle is
started. It is necessary to observe the LCD display located in the center console to ensure the
unit is operational. BC Duffelli should know that he must notify AAT Communications if which
message(s) listed below appear on the LCD display? CH 9 Add 1 3.1
A. Startup Complete
B. High Buffer
C. Memory Full
D. Overwriting

1. C, D

3.1 The recorder in the battalion vehicle becomes operational shortly after the vehicle is started. It is necessary to observe the LCD display located in the center console to ensure the unit is operational. If one of the following messages appears on the LCD screen, notify AAT Communications at (718) 605-2700 upon return to quarters:
• START UP FAILURE
• LOW BUFFER
• MEMORY FULL
• OVERWRITING

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2. Whenever a battalion vehicle is placed out of service for any reason, the Battalion Chief
shall notify AAT Communications by phone or email. Which choice below is the preferred
method of contact? CH 9 Add 1 5.1
A. Telephone B. E-Mail

2. A

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3. BC Kaskone and his aide, FF. Reagan, were discussing some features of the battalion
recorder system among other things. Which point made by BC Kaskone should FF Reagan
politely correct? CH 9 Add 1 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6
A. The H/T recorder system will simultaneously record H/T transmissions on all channels
except channel 9 in zone A on both models I and III of the XTS3500R.
B. Battalion vehicles fitted with a shore power connection must be plugged in upon return to
quarters to avoid battery failure. The recorders do not record transmissions to or from the
borough dispatcher.
C. The battalion vehicle should have the motor off but the ignition key in the “run” position.
This is to help reduce the emissions (carbon) from the diesel engine.
D. Upon return to quarters the ignition shall be turned off; however the H/T recorder system
will remain on to wirelessly transfer data to the computer workstation in the battalion office for a
maximum of 25 minutes.

3. C

3.4 All battalion vehicles must remain on with the motor running at the scene of fire and emergency operations, regardless of their order of arrival or level of alarm. This procedure is necessary to ensure all handie-talkie communications are preserved. If the vehicle is to be left unattended, it shall be secured as outline in section 7 of this bulletin.

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4. Which procedure below is not entirely correct should a system malfunction of the battalion
recorder system be detected? CH9 Add1 6.1, 6.2, 6.3
A. An AAT technician may request the battalion vehicle return to quarters to service the
system. The Battalion chief must accommodate this request at all times.
B. The Battalion Chief shall call AAT Communications and state that this is an FDNY
emergency service request and give the nature of the service outage.
C. If AAT fails to correct the problem using remote diagnostics, ATT will respond to the site
within 2 hours if it is a severe failure.
D. Recorder problems have occurred when battalion vehicle batteries have failed. Anytime
vehicle batteries fail, a functional test of the system should be performed.

4. A

• An AAT technician may request the battalion vehicle return to quarters to service the system. The Battalion shall accommodate the technician’s request whenever possible, but the decision to return to quarters rests with the Battalion Chief in consultation with the borough dispatcher. An AAT technician will supply a call back phone number that the Battalion can use to notify the technician of their availability to return to quarters.
Note: Recorder problems have occurred when battalion vehicle batteries have failed. Anytime vehicle batteries fail, a functional test of the system should be performed.

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5. Request for recordings from the handie talkie recording unit must follow certain guidelines.
Which is the only correct guideline listed below? CH9 Add 1 Section 8
A. Officers requesting H/T recordings shall complete the request form and fax it directly to the
H/T recording unit. The original form should be sent through the chain of command to the Chief
of Operations.
B. Officer can request recordings for an incident at which that officers unit did not operate.
Any such request will be considered by the Bureau of Operations, but will only be granted if
there are valid reasons justifying the request.
C. H/T recording must be kept in a secure location in the company office. Requests for
recording of incidents involving serious injuries, fatalities, and high profile incident will not be
made available.
D. Company and Chief Officers can request handie talkie recordings on any of the available
channels.

5. B

8.1 Officers requesting handie-talkie recording shall complete the Handie-Talkie Recording Request Form and fax it directly to the Handie-Talkie Recording Unit at (212) 360-4519. The original Request Form shall then be forwarded through the chain of command to the Borough Commander. The Handie-Talkie Recording Unit will review the request and contact Safety Command if there are special circumstances surrounding the request.
8.2 Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical channels. Chief Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on any of the available channels.

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6. Which points listed below are correct concerning emergency roll call procedures?
Ch. 9 Add 2 1.2, 1.3 Ch. 11-7.3.3
1. There have been situations where the emergency roll call has been delegated to and
conducted by a company officer, division firefighter, or an experienced firefighter.
2. If conditions require the emergency roll call to be conducted by a company officer, the IC
must consider special calling a replacement unit for the company conducting the roll call.
3. The Bureau of Operations mandates training roll calls to be conducted quarterly in January,
April, July, and October. These training roll calls will be conducted after operations are
completed.
4. The Bureau of Operations mandates command channel training drills to be conducted
semiannually in May and November. These drills will be conducted at all 2nd alarms.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 3, 4

6. C

There have been situations where the emergency roll call has been delegated to
and conducted by a company officer, experienced Battalion firefighter, or Division
firefighter pending the arrival of a special called Roll Call Chief Officer.

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7. Since the number of firefighters riding in any company can change during the tour due to
medical leave, emergency leave, and details all officers of all companies will answer when called
by the roll call officer stating the number of firefighters they responded with and accounting for
only the members: Ch. 9 Add 2, 1.4
A. Within sight or hearing without using the handie talkie.
B. Within sight or hearing using the handie talkie.
C. Within sight or hearing without using the handie talkie or working on a hose or search line
that the officer is supervising.
D. Within sight or hearing using the handie talkie or working on a hose or search line that the
officer is supervising.

7. A

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8. Which situation(s) listed below would require an emergency roll call to be conducted?
Ch. 9 Add 2, 2.1
A. Collapse imminent.
B. Collapse occurred.
C. Collapse feared.
D. A building is evacuated.
E. An area is evacuated.
F. Water Loss endangering members.
G. Transmission of a 10-70.
H. Anytime the IC determines an emergency roll call is necessary to account for members.
I. Interior attack discontinued and exterior attack instituted.

8. A, B, D, E, F, H, I

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9. One of the initial actions to be taken by the incident commander is to take control of the
handie talkie frequency. It is imperative that the IC be forceful when transmitting and taking
control of the HT network. Which option listed below for taking control of the HT network is
not entirely correct? Ch. 9 Add 2, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5
A. Utilize the emergency alert tone on the handie talkie.
B. Utilize the POST radio on the tactical channel (45 Watts).
C. Use the UHF radio in a battalion or division vehicle on the tactical channel (40 Watts).
D. Use the cross band repeater radio installed in some battalion or division vehicles on the
tactical channel (40 Watts).

9. D

3.3 Utilize the POST radio on the tactical channel (45 watt transmissions).
3.4 Use the UHF radio in a Battalion or Division vehicle on the tactical channel
(40 watt transmissions).
3.5 Use the Cross Band Repeater radio installed in some Battalion Vehicles on the tactical
channel (40 watt transmission).

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10. True or false: When utilizing the Emergency Alert Tone on the H/T you must deactivate
the emergency alert button after gaining control of the HT. Failure to do so will cause the letters
“EM” to be displayed every time a transmission is made from your H/T. Your beacon tone will
also continue to sound every 7 seconds. Ch. 9 Add 2, 3.2
A. True or D. False

10. D

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11. Units are operating at an all hands fire in the month of July where a full 1st alarm
assignment is on the scene. E-1, E-2, E-3, E-4, E-5 which is a HMTU Engine, L-4, L-5, Squad
6, and Rescue 7 all participate in an emergency roll call after the fire is under control at the
direction of the Deputy Chief who is the IC. E-5 was special called because there was a spill of
diesel fuel which had to be removed and HAZ MAT 1 was O.O.S. Which unit(s) listed below
answered correctly. Ch. 9 Add 2, 1.5
A. E-1, E-2, E-3, and E-4 answered according to their engine company positions.
B. L-4 and L-5 answered according to their ladder company positions.
C. E-5 answered according to their haz mat positions.
D. Squad 6 answered according to ladder company positions.
E. Rescue 7 answered according to ladder company positions.

11. A, B, E

1.5 Engine companies will have either 4 or 5 firefighters and these members must answer the
roll call according to their engine position assignments. Haz-Mat Technician
Engine personnel will answer a roll call according to engine position assignments,
regardless of the type of fire or emergency. The majority of the time, rescues, squads and
ladder companies begin each tour with 5 firefighters and an officer. Ladder company and
rescue company firefighters will answer a roll call as per ladder company position
assignment e.g., OV, Roof. Squad company firefighters will answer a roll call as per
engine company position assignment e.g., Nozzle, Back-up. Haz-Mat 1 will have
7 firefighters riding at the beginning of each tour. Firefighters working in Haz-Mat 1 will
answer according to their position assignment e.g., Entry 1 and 2, Back-up 1 and 2,
Decon 1 and 2 and Resource. Company officers will make sure that each firefighter is
aware of these requirements and responds accordingly during an emergency roll call.
Roll Call Officers must remember to account for Chief officers and their aides.

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12. While discussing emergency roll call procedures at drill Lt. Drebin made the following
statements. In which statement(s) was Lt. Drebin incorrect? Ch. 9 Add 2, Section 4
A. The member conducting the roll call must have an updated list of all companies on the
scene. An updated printout can be accessed only from any battalion or division vehicle on the
scene.
B. To obtain the updated list on an apparatus 1st press the “incident history” button, 2nd press
the “send”, 3rd press the “next” button, and 4th press the “print” button.
C. The RCO and member assisting him/her should be in an area away from the command post
to reduce radio feedback. If weather is an issue the RCO will have to take a position in a dry
area such as an apparatus cab or a battalion vehicle.
D. Units should be called in the order of their assignment on the response ticket. For example
if E-1 and L-2 were the 1st due engine and ladder then these units will be called first regardless of
the type of emergency.
E. If a company officer does not answer when called, the RCO will call either a firefighter
operating with that officer or another company operating in the immediate area of that officer, in
an attempt to locate them.

12. A, B, D

4.1 The member conducting the emergency roll call must have an updated list of all
companies on the scene. An updated printout can be accessed from any apparatus MDT
on the scene, as follows:
 Press the “Incident Summary” button - A blank form will appear requesting several
pieces of information e.g., date, box. This information does not need to be entered.
 Press “Send” - This will automatically default the report to the box the unit is
currently assigned to. The MDT will indicate a message is waiting.
 Press “Next” to retrieve the rundown of units.
 Press “Print” for the MDT to print the rundown.

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13. Which unit(s) listed below answered incorrectly when called by the RCO during an
emergency roll call? Ch. 9 Add 2, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4
A. L-101 to Roll Call Officer, L-101 has 5 firefighters, my can and irons firefighters are
accounted for.
B. E-101 to Roll Call Officer, E-101 has 4 firefighters; my nozzle team is accounted for.
C. L-102 to Roll Call Officer, L-102 has 4 firefighters; my irons and can firefighters are
accounted for.
D. E-102 to Roll Call Officer, E-102 has 4 firefighters; my nozzle and backup firefighters are
accounted for.
E. Rescue 100 to Roll Call Officer, Rescue 100 has 5 firefighters; my can, irons, and hook are
accounted for.
F. Squad 200 to Roll Call Officer, Squad 200 has 5 firefighters; my irons and hook are
accounted for.

13. B, F

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14. When an emergency roll call is conducted firefighters should follow the directions in the
mayday/urgent transmission and maintain radio discipline. Firefighters should transmit in all but
which condition listed below? Ch. 9, Add 2, 6.1
A. If you are called by the RCO.
B. If you have any information regarding the mayday/urgent.
C. If you have a mayday/urgent of your own.
D. If you have a critical message affecting the ongoing operation.

14. B

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15. The electronic fireground accountability system (EFAS) is designed to improve the
accountability of members at all operations. EFAS is installed on the MDT of all battalion and
division vehicles. Which point about EFAS is incorrect? Ch.9, Add 3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4
A. It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving battalion firefighter to immediately monitor
EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST unit.
B. Upon arrival of the FAST unit, the EFAS trained member designated at roll call to monitor
EFAS shall report to the battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This member will
monitor both EFAS and the battalion’s FAST radio.
C. If the responding battalion is not equipped with EFAS, and its use is anticipated, the
dispatcher shall be notified by department radio. Incoming units and the FAST unit will be
notified by the dispatcher.
D. When the division is on the scene, it shall be the responsibility of the division back-up
firefighter, if available, to report to the battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either
assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the battalion firefighter.

15. D

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16. When a member pushes his emergency alert button and transmits a MAYDAY all of the
following will occur regarding EFAS except? Ch. 9, Add 3, 4.1.1,
A. The member’s company, position, and name will be listed in red in the “radio status” and
“MAYDAYS” area on EFAS.
B. The member’s identity line in EFAS will automatically be highlighted.
C. A hard copy will automatically print showing the members name, company, and position.

16. C


5.1.2 In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position and
time of Mayday. (Figure 7)

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17. EMS officers who activate their emergency alert using the fire ground radio will show up
with their company and position only on EFAS. If this occurs, the member monitoring EFAS
shall inform the IC who shall contact ____ to ascertain which EMS member activated the
emergency alert. Ch. 9, Add 3, 4.1.5
A. The Resources Unit Leader
B. The Situation Unit Leader
C. The Operation Branch Director
D. The Medical Group Supervisor
18.

17. D

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18. Officers arriving at an incident, after they have transmitted their 10-84, must key their
handie talkie remote microphone how many times in order to check in? Keying the microphone
will have all the members of the unit recognized by EFAS. Members of a unit that is called by
the RCO during an electronic roll call shall key their remote microphones how many times?
Ch. 9, Add 3, 6.1.4, 3.1.5
A. 3/1
B. 1/1
C. 3/3
D. 1/3

18. D

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19. The portable EFAS functions in the same manner and has the same capabilities as the
EFAS currently found in battalion and division vehicles. Which is the only correct point about
the portable EFAS? Ch. 9, Add 3, 10
A. The portable EFAS is carried in battalion and division vehicles.
B. The decision to deploy the portable EFAS shall be made by the EFAS trained member who
is monitoring the EFAS.
C. The portable EFAS can be used at large scale or complex incidents.
D. The portable EFAS is charged daily and after each use.

19. C

9. PORTABLE EFAS

9.1 Each Division has been issued a portable EFAS. The portable EFAS receives unit
identification in a different manner than the EFAS currently found in Battalion and
Division vehicles as follows:
 EFAS in Battalion and Division vehicles is connected to and receives assigned unit
identification directly from Starfire.
 Portable EFAS receives assigned unit identification from handie-talkie frequency,
therefore, prior to pressing Begin Roll Call, the IC must request the Officer of each
unit on-scene to individually key their handie-talkie remote microphone once in
order to “check in” as per section 3.1.4. Keying the handie-talkie remote
microphone will have all members of the unit recognized by EFAS.
The portable EFAS shall be kept in the Division vehicle and available for immediate use
when necessary.
Note: The decision to deploy the portable EFAS shall be made only by the IC.


9.5 The portable EFAS should be charged weekly and after each use.

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PART II – FFP – TAXPAYER FIRES (Sec. 5.7 to the end):
1. While responding as the 1st due battalion chief to a fire in a taxpayer, BC Gooden
considered all of the following points. Which point should BC Gooden consider as wrong?
Taxpayers 5.7.2, 5.7.5, 5.7.6, 5.8.2, 5.8.3
A. The 1st due BC must establish the ICP in proximity to the front of the building, but outside
of the collapse zone.
B. If a tower ladder is not assigned on the initial response and its use is anticipated, special
call one. A properly positioned tower ladder can cover a building with a frontage of 100 feet.
C. When heavy caliber streams are to be used, units already committed should be withdrawn
to safe positions, before commencing their operation. The withdrawal should be carefully
controlled and monitored via handie talkie.
D. If the building is another type of commercial building, such as a department store and it has
a fire command station, the BC should establish the ICP in proximity to the front of the building.

1. D

5.8.2 If the building has a Fire Command Station, the first to arrive Battalion Chief
shall establish the Incident Command Post at this location.

5.8.3 If the building doesn’t have a Fire Command Station or the location of the Station
makes it unsuitable for use, the ICP should be established outside the building
close enough to maintain radio communications with operating units but far
enough away to be able to properly size-up the situation

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2. BC Chanstra has just arrived at a fire in a taxpayer. The building is 1 story in height,
exposure 1 is the street, exposures 2 and 4 are vacant lots, and exposure 3 is a rear yard. There is
an advanced fire in the store with two lines operating, no extension to the cockloft, and no fire in
the cellar. At this fire BC Chanstra should? Taxpayers 5.7.4, 5.7.7, 5.7.8
A. Transmit a 2nd alarm; have 4 portable ladders raised and all sides covered.
B. Call for an extra engine and truck and have 4 portable ladders raised and ensure at least 2
are placed on the front of the building.
C. Operate with a full 1st alarm assignment; and have 5 portable ladders raised, all sides
covered.
D. Call for an extra engine and truck; ensure 5 portable ladders are raised and all sides are
covered with a least two on the front of the building.

2. D


5.7.8 A minimum of two portable ladders shall be placed on the front of the buildings.
Their purpose is to provide alternate means of egress from the roof. They shall
also be placed to indicate the boundaries of the fire building or the location of
division walls within the boundaries of the fire

22

3. Which Engine company(s) stretched the appropriate sized hoseline at a taxpayer fire?
(More than 1 correct). Taxpayers 7.1
• E-1 stretched a 1 ¾” hose line as the initial hose line for a light fire condition in a taxpayer.
• E-2 stretched a 2 ½” hose line as the initial hose line for a medium fire condition in a
taxpayer.
• E-3 stretched a 1 ¾” hose line into an exposure with medium fire extension in a large
uncompartmented area.
• E-4 stretched a 2 ½” hose line as the initial hose line for a heavy fire condition in a taxpayer
and then reduced it to 1 ¾” after the initial attack.
A. E-1, E-2, E-3
B. E-2, E-3, E-4
C. E-1, E-2, E-4
D. E-1, E-3, E-4

3. C

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4. Which tactic listed below is incorrect when operating at a cellar fire in a taxpayer?
Taxpayers 7.2.2 A, B, D, H, K, P, Q,
A. When there is an interior stair to the cellar, especially if it is an open stair and conditions
permit, the first line must be stretched to this point to prevent the spread of fire and to permit
operations on the first floor.
B. When stretching hand lines to the cellar enough hose should be flaked out, charged, and the
kinks removed before advancing down the stairs. Supply a line to the cellar sprinkler siamese if
the building has one.
C. Stretch lines into adjoining cellars and operate through holes made in partitions. As a last
resort flood the first floor cellar pipes and distributors.
D. Officers of advancing lines should monitor heat conditions. When stock cannot be
removed, and attempt to hit the fire by deflecting the stream off the ceiling over the stock may be
made.

4. C


5.7.8 A minimum of two portable ladders shall be placed on the front of the buildings.
Their purpose is to provide alternate means of egress from the roof. They shall
also be placed to indicate the boundaries of the fire building or the location of
division walls within the boundaries of the fire

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5. When operating at a cellar fire in a taxpayer which engine company must ensure the
sprinkler system is supplied? When operating at a store fire in a taxpayer which engine company
must ensure the sprinkler system is supplied? When operating at a cockloft fire in a taxpayer
which engine company must ensure the sprinkler system is supplied? Taxpayers 7.2.3
C, 7.3.5 A, B3
A. 3, 2, 3
B. 3, 3, 3
C. 2, 3, 2
D. 2, 2, 2

5. C

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6. Units arrive at a fire in the middle store of a row of 5 taxpayers. Upon arrival there is fire
in the cockloft of middle store which has control of the cockloft. All the stores are unoccupied
except the store that is to the immediate left of the middle store, this store is a bodega which is
open at the time of the fire with workers in the store. There are 3 Engines, 2 Trucks, and a BC
on the scene. Which point listed below is correct concerning operations at this fire?
Taxpayers 7.3.1 B, 7.3.5, 7.3.3 G
A. The first two handlines should be stretched to the store involved. A line may also be
required on the roof to protect exposures and personnel once the roof is opened.
B. The 1st due Engine Company positioned the engine for use of the deck pipe and should not
use in line pumping because of the anticipated use of the deck pipe.
C. The 1st line was stretched into the bodega and the second line was stretched by the second
due Engine Company to the second store to the right of the middle store.
D. While operating the officer of the first due engine thought to himself that if the IC orders a
roof line operated into the roof all interior operations must be discontinued at all times.

6. C

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7. L-100 was discussing operations at taxpayers during afternoon drill. Which
operation/tactic concerning ladder company operations is incorrect? Taxpayers 8.2.1,
H N, 8.1.17,
A. The practice of opening up directly over the main area of involvement may not always be
practical for cellar fires. Conditions may require cutting holes in the floor near windows and
exterior doorways.
B. When sending members into cellars to shut down utilities, two mask equipped members
shall be dispatched as a team.
C. The demands for ladder company services at taxpayer fires are many. Engine companies
can be used to force a door, feel a partition, and open ceilings to get water into the cockloft.
D. First floor fires may be extensions of cellar fires. Conversely, first floor fires may drop
down and start a cellar fire. Cellar must always be checked.

7. A

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8. After operations at a cellar fire in a taxpayer with 2 stores BC Duffelli was critiquing
operations. Which member(s) would the Chief know to have operated incorrectly?
Taxpayers 8.2.2
A. The 1st due forcible entry team after getting the required approval from their officer and IC
took out the store windows.
B. The 1st due roof FF placed a portable to the roof and vented the skylight and a scuttle after
coordinating and communicating with her officer.
C. The 2nd due OV initially teamed up with the 1st due OV and then went to the roof.
D. The 2nd due chauffer positioned his aerial ladder away from the immediate fire building and
joined the forcible entry team.

8. C

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9. Which tactic for store and cockloft fires at a taxpayer is not entirely correct?
Taxpayers 8.3.1, 8.3.2
A. The practicality of trenching depends on the size of the roof, volume of fire, and ceilings
height and type.
B. Although a fire may have started in the cockloft, most fires extend to the cockloft through
ceilings, ducts, and vertical arteries from store or cellar fires.
C. All areas of the store must be searched for removal of the occupants with particular
attention given to the rear and main selling areas.
D. Most taxpayer fires originate in the cellar area. Fires in these premises generally originate
in the storage or utility area, which in most occupancies is in the cellar.

9. D

8.3.1 Tactics (store fires)

A. Most taxpayer fires originate in the store occupancy at street level. The
occupancy usually consists of a sales area, a storage area and a utility area.
Fires in these premises generally originate in the storage or utility area,
which in most occupancies are in the rearmost portion of the building. In
the same building, the storage or utility area of one store may butt the rear
or side of another store which fronts on another street. Also this rear
storage area may extend behind stores in the same building, forming an
''L'' shaped occupancy. Light partition walls will usually separate such
stores.

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10. When operating at a cockloft fire in a taxpayer with 2 stores which member/team was
incorrect in their actions? Taxpayers 8.3.3
A. The 1st due forcible entry team took out the store windows after coordinating /
communicating with their officer and after a charged line was in position.
B. The 1st due ladder co. chauffeur placed his tower ladder in front of the fire building and
went to the roof to assist the roof firefighter.
C. The 2nd due ladder co. chauffeur placed his aerial ladder away from the immediate fire
building and joined the forcible entry team.
D. The 2nd due ladder co. forcible entry team forced entry into the adjacent store, checked for
extension, and performed necessary searches.

10. A

officer and IC

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11. Which member(s) operating at a fire in a taxpayer was carrying the correct tools for his
position/assignment? Taxpayers 8.4
A. The 1st due forcible entry firefighter was carrying an axe and a halligan tool while the can
firefighter carried a 6’ hook and the can.
B. The can firefighter of the 1st due truck was sent by his officer to get the Bam-Bam tool for
use on a case hardened padlock.
C. The 1st and 2nd due OV firefighters were each carrying a halligan tool. One of the OV
firefighters also had a maul and the other a flat head axe.
D. The 2nd due roof firefighter at a cockloft fire was carrying the saw and a halligan tool.
E. The extra truck on the all hands reported to the command post with their 10’ and 12’ hooks
instead of their 6’ hooks.

11. A, D

A. Forcible Entry Team
The extinguisher firefighter brings the can and hook to the fire door. The
forcible entry firefighter carries an ax and a halligan tool. One member
can be used to go for additional tools as needed.

2. The Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver are used to pull padlock
cylinders. Brass padlock cylinders are being replaced by "case
hardened" materials. The Bam-Bam tool is ineffective on these
locks.

C. Roof Firefighter
When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a hook must also
be taken. Members going to the roof subsequently should bring an ax or
iron with the saw if available. Tarred over scuttles and skylights can be
removed, and a full complement of tools will be available for use. Engine
company personnel may use these if truck company members are at a
premium.
8.4.4 Taxpayer operations necessitate the use of hooks (10, 12 and 15 foot sizes). Their
use must be anticipated. Truck companies, other than first or second arriving on
the initial alarm, should report in with their 10 and 12 foot hooks besides their
normal tool complement. The hooks will be used by them or other personnel on
the scene

31

12. L-100, an aerial ladder, has just arrived at a fire in a 2 story taxpayer. The fire is on the 2nd
floor and there is no extension to the cockloft at this time. Members of L-100 completely
laddered the 2nd floor using portable ladders while the forcible entry team used the interior stairs
to gain access to the 2nd floor. The LCC of L-100 also placed his aerial to the roof of the
taxpayer for ventilation. Do you agree or disagree with the actions of L-100? Taxpayers 9
A. Agree or D. Disagree

12. A

9.2 A fire originating on the second floor of a two-story taxpayer may be treated as a fire
originating on the first floor of a one-story taxpayer. Added emphasis must be given to
the following:
9.2.1 The need for an aerial ladder to the roof for ventilation.

32

13. Capt. Welsang is on BISP with his company and is in the process of inspecting a taxpayer
built in 1940. The store is 1 story, class 3 construction, and the exposures are as follows:
exposure 1 is a street, exposure 2 is a street, exposure 3 is a rear alley, and exposure 4 is a 3 story
MD. The building is not sprinklered. Capt. Welsang would know that the maximum permitted
area of this structure of this structure is? If the building was sprinklered the maximum permitted
area would be? Taxpayers Appendix A 1938 Building Code
A. 14,000 sq/ft / 28,000 sq/ft
B. 14,500 sq/ft / 29,000 sq/ft
C. 17,500 sq/ft / 35,000 sq/ft
D. 10,000 sq/ft / 20,000 sq/ft

13. B

1. BUILDING LAWS, 1938 CODE-GENERAL
Note: Only structures erected after the enactment of these sections of the law would be
affected. Check the sections of law for full details.
1.1 Maximum permitted area of structure is 10,000, 14,500 or 17,500 square feet depending
whether the building faces upon one, two or three street fronts. The area of the structure
is the area between exterior walls or between fire walls. This area may be doubled if the
area is sprinklered. (C26-254)
1.2 Concealed roof space areas to be cut into areas of 3,000 square feet or less by fire stops.
(C26-685)
1.3 When wood purlins and cross braces are used for suspended ceilings, the space between
the ceiling and the floor or roof above is to be cut into areas of 2,000 square feet or less
by firestops. (C26-461)

33

PART III – TB – TOOLS #17, 20, 21:
1. E-100 is drilling with their new proby on the multiversal New Yorker. Which point made
concerning the multiversal is not correct? Tools 17 Section 2
A. The elevation control wheel can be used to raise and lower the elevation of the nozzle. The
range of elevation is 15 degrees below horizontal to 90 degrees above the horizontal.
B. The safety stop lock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 35 degrees. The
pin should be pulled before 35 degrees.
C. Do not release the elevation stop and operate below that point (35 degrees) unless the unit
is secured in the truck mount or restrained by ropes.
D. No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck
mount or secured by ropes.

1. D

Note:
The New Yorker Multiversal is designed with a safety stop at 35 degrees above
horizontal to maintain stability when used in the portable base. Do not release the
elevation stop and operate below that point unless the unit is secured in the truck mount
fixture, or is securely restrained by ropes using the procedure outlined in Section 3.3.4.
No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the
truck mount

34

2. To prevent backward movement of the multiversal nozzle, it must be secured in position by
means of a utility rope. Which step was performed incorrectly while securing the multiversal
nozzle? Tools 17, 3.3.5
A. Place the middle of the utility rope on top of the siamese, over the identification plate.
B. Bring the 2 sides of the rope up over the siamese and each side forward to the large leg of
the ground base on each side of the front leg. Make a half hitch on each of these two legs.
C. If possible do not connect the hose lines to the siamese before tying the required knots, as
this could slightly increase the time required to tie the knots.
D. The safety chain alone should never be relied on to secure this appliance. A rope is needed.

2. C

Note: Do not connect the hose lines to the siamese before tying the required
knots, as this would greatly increase the time required to tie the knots.

35

3. While operating at a taxpayer fire the multiversal nozzle is ordered into operation by the
IC. E-100 was only correct in which point below regarding the supply and operation of the
multiversal nozzle? Tools 17, 3.4, Engine Ops Ch. 11
A. E-100 used two lines to supply the nozzle. Each line was brought straight back at least 10’
before any bends or turns were taken.
B. E-100 supplied the nozzle with 2 ½” hose lines and realized that upper end flows may not
be attainable.
C. At one point the officer of E-100 called for more pressure. The gauge on the nozzle
showed 210 psi. The ECC informed the Officer of E-100 that 825 GPM were flowing.
D. Since the supply lines were long a 2 way gate was inserted 2 lengths from the nozzle. A
member was positioned at the gate to assure proper pressures were maintained.

3. B

3.4.2 The use of two hose lines to supply the Multiversal Nozzle is recommended. When two
hoses are used, bring them straight back a distance of 15 feet from the siamese, parallel
to each other, before making any sharp bends or turns in the hose lines

3.4.5 When used in the portable ground base, the unit should not be operated at more than
800 gallons per minute with any type of straight stream or Fog Tip.
A. In order to avoid operating at more than 800 gallons per minute with straight
stream tips, the following pressures shall not be exceeded:
1¼" tip - not more than 100 psi
1½" tip - not more than 70 psi
2" tip - not more than 50 psi
Note: In regulating pressure, the gauge provided on the Multiversal Nozzle may be
used as a guide.

3.4.6 When the supply lines feeding the Multiversal Nozzle are long, so that communication
with the engine company chauffeur may be difficult, insert single gate one length from the
nozzle. A member can be stationed at these gates to assure that proper pressures are
maintained.

36

4. The rabbit tool is a hydraulically operated forcible entry tool consisting of a hand pump,
relief valve, jaws, high pressure hose, and a pry bar. This tool is limited to certain uses and has
some limitations. Which point below correctly lists this tools uses and limitations? Tool 21
A. The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically
if the hose is facing down.
B. Hold the jaws with a gloved hand, set the control lever to pressure and operate pump. The
door should open in 4 to 5 pumps of the handle.
C. The tool is designed for use on doors that open inward. It has also been used successfully
on sliding elevator doors and as an auto extrication tool.
D. Maintain control of the door at all times Members should only stand in front of the lock
while the operation is in progress only if absolutely necessary.

4. A

3.2 Hold the jaws with a gloved hand, set the control lever to pressure and operate pump. The
door should open in 3 to 4 pumps of the handle.

2. USES
It is designed for use on doors that open inward. It has also been used successfully on sliding
elevator doors. It is not to be used as an auto extrication tool. This is a misuse of the tool and
may result in injury.

Officers supervising forcible entry operations with the Rabbit Tool on doors that have locks
protected by shields are directed to ensure that no member stands in front of the lock while the
operation is in progress.

37

5. The portable power saw comes equipped with a variety of cutting blades. High engine
speed and the availability of special blades enable the operator to cut almost any material
encountered at fire and emergency operations. Which choice is incorrect concerning the
different blades and their capabilities? Tools 9, 2.2
A. Carbide tips will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal
and similar material such as metal security doors.
B. Aluminum oxide blades (abrasive discs) will cut through various types of steel, auto
bodies, and metal window bars.
C. Silicon carbide blades (abrasive disc) will cut through concrete and other masonry
materials.
D. The carbide tip shall not be used on auto bodies, metal window bars, and case hardened
locks.

5. A

2.2.1 Carbide tip blades will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light
sheet metal and similar material. The carbide tip blade shall not be used on metal
security doors, auto bodies, metal window bars and case hardened locks, etc. The
operational life span of the blade is short and dislodged carbide tips becoming airborne
have caused injury to members.

38

6. The proby in L-100 was checking the saws at the beginning of the 9x6 tour and should
know that which of the following blades should be place out of service and which saw should be
placed out of service? (More than 1 correct). Tools 9, 3.3, 3.4, Data Sheet 1
A. The carbide blade had 3 tips that were missing and 4 tips that were broken.
B. The saw with the carbide tip continued to spin slowly when the saw was at low idle.
C. The saw with the aluminum oxide blade stopped spinning when the saw was at low idle
and then stalled out.
D. The aluminum oxide blade has a small nick on the end of the blade and the circumference
of the blade was 9”.
E. The center hole of the yellow blade was out of round.

6. B, E

3.3 For any major repairs return the saw to the Technical Service Division.
3.3.1 The saw should be placed out of service if blade continues to spin at a low idle.
(This is usually the result of clutch failure).
3.3.2 Return carbide-tipped blades to the Technical Service Division when eight (8) or more
tips are missing or broken, or worn down to the circumference of the blade.
3.3.3 Return aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades for replacement whenever:
A. Cracked or badly nicked.
B. Center hole wears out of round.
C. Blade is worn down to 8" diameter or less.
3.3.4 Blades must be kept tight when on the saw.

39

7. Members of L-100 were drilling with their new member who just transferred across the
floor. Each member made a point regarding the saw and all were correct except which one?
Tools 9, 4.7, 4.7.3, 4.4.1, 4.8.3, 4.11
A. During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall
observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger.
B. All members in the immediate area of cutting operations shall wear full protective clothing.
This also applies while testing the saw in or around quarters, or using the saw at drills or training.
For safety goggles must be worn or eye shields should be down.
C. Whenever possible, a team of 2 members shall perform cutting operations. These members
shall be equipped with complete fire clothing, gloves, and protective goggles in place.
D. The saw shall always be shut down when unattended and when moved to distant areas such
as level to level. Gunning the saw while standing by or moving to a new point of operation shall
not be permitted.

7. A

4.7 CIRCLE OF DANGER
During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall
observe, "as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius Circle of Danger." This circle shall
be measured in all directions FROM THE POINT WHERE THE BLADE OF THE SAW IS
IN OPERATION.

40

8. Lt. Giashield an experienced and outstanding truck officer was supervising roof cutting
operations at a top floor fire in a 5 story MD. Two saws were in operation and four members
were on the roof. Which action(s) should Lt. Giashield correct? Tools 9, 5.7.1, 5.5,
4.18, 5.2, 2.3.1, 4.16
A. While starting the cut with carbide tip the firefighter using the saw kept the saw at low
speed when contacting the roof then gradually increased the engine speed as the blade cut into
the roof.
B. The same member took a boxer stance drawing the saw to the space between his feet which
were 18” to 20” apart.
C. When the second saw was brought to the roof it was started in an area with a light smoke
condition close to the point of operation. When the member started cutting he stayed outside of
the cut.
D. After 30 minutes of cutting the member operating the 1st saw to the roof needed to refuel.
The saw was shut down, tilted away from the engine, and extreme caution was used.

8. A, C

5.7 INITIAL CUT
5.7.1 A. Carbide Blade
To begin the cut (after starting the saw) rev up the saw, lean forward and
squeeze the throttle to bring the blade up to full RPM before contacting the
surface with the blade. Let the blade lower itself into the material to be cut.
Then move backwards, guided by another member designated as a guide. Do
not over-extend yourself. Do not reach forward past the point of good balance.
A slight back and forth motion of the saw will widen the cut and help prevent
binding of the blade. Maintain the saw at full RPM while cutting.

4.16 When necessary to refuel the saw, comply with the following:
4.16.1 Saw should never be refueled while running.
4.16.2 Tilt saw away from engine, use a small funnel carried with gas can, to prevent spillage
on hot engine housing.
4.16.3 When engine is hot use extreme caution refueling.

41

9. Two roof firefighters were operating on the roof of an OLT during an all hands for a fire on
the top floor. These members cut a hole over the fire room and pushed down the ceiling after the
cut was opened. After this hole was cut one of the roof firefighters noticed a piece of plywood
covering a broken window on the bulkhead. He called the other firefighter with the saw to come
over and cut this plywood covering the window to provide additional ventilation. The firefighter
with the saw lifted the saw to a vertical position and cut the plywood without incident. You
should _______ with the firefighter’s actions? Tools 9, 4.14.1
A. Agree or D. Disagree

9. D

4.14 OTHER THAN HORIZONTAL SURFACE
4.14.1 The saw is designed for use on a horizontal surface at ground or foot level. Operation
becomes particularly dangerous as the surface angle approaches the vertical.
Accordingly, whenever the saw is used on other than flat horizontal surface at foot level,
the blade guard should be moved and secured to protect the Operator. It shall be used
in this position only on the direct order and/or under the supervision of an officer. To
support the weight of the saw in this position an additional member may have to be
used.

42

10. Whether the saw is being used at a cutting operation during training, or being tested, all
members in the immediate area of a saw in operation shall wear full protective clothing,
including goggles. In lieu of goggles eye shields must be in the down position. “Immediate
area” in this section is defined as _______ feet. Tools 9, 7.4
A. 10
B. 30
C. 40
D. 20

10. D

43

11. Units were discussing the use of the saw at multi-unit drill. Which point made by members
should be corrected by the officer? Tools 9, 6.1.5, 6.1.6, 6.1.7, 6.1.8
A. Generally the beams run the short side of the building, usually from side to side and 16” on
center. The roof boards are nailed to the beams and run perpendicular to them, usually from
front to rear.
B. If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a
good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a
cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to remove.
C. If resistance is met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, lift the saw, continue to
cut, but avoid a deep cut into the beams.
D. Fresh smoke coming from the area of the saw blade usually indicates too deep a cut
through heavy material. When this occurs, remove the saw from the cut, rev up the saw to
maximum RPM and begin a slightly shallower cut.

11. B

6.1.6 If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks
are a good indication that cut is on beam. Move the saw to the inside of the cut,
permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to remove.

44

12. The size and location of opening will depend on fire conditions. A suggested method is to
make an expandable coffin cut. When making this cut there are a total of 7 cuts that are made
and there is a proper sequence that should be followed. When following this sequence the
numbers 7, 8, and 9 will be formed at some point during the cut. A sharp lieutenant would know
that the 6’ cut would be cut #______, the knock out cut would be cut #_____, and the after the
first 5 cuts are made your cut would look like the 7, 8, or 9? Tools 9, 6.1.10
A. Cut 2 / Cut 3 / #7
B. Cut 4 / Cut 5 / #8
C. Cut 3 / Cut 2 / #9
D. Cut 1 / Cut 7 / #9

12. C

6.1.10 The size and location of opening will depend on fire conditions. A suggested method to
make an expandable opening "Coffin Cut" is as follows:
A. Assume wind is blowing in direction indicated.
B. Cut (1) approximately 3' feet.
C. Cut (2) knock out corner cut for tool insertion.
D. Cut (3) approximately 6' feet.
E. Cut (4) to (7) approximately 3' feet.
Note: See Figure 5.
F. Leave removed pieces of roof section next to opening to warn operating force.
G. If larger opening is needed, additional opening can be made in like manner.
(Continuation of cut in desired direction)
H. Make sure that roof is not opened before cut is completed.
I. Push down ceiling to complete ventilation.

45

13. According to Tools 9 when examining the cockloft what is the preferable method?
Tools 9, 6.2.1
A. Cutting triangular holes in the roof (the size of the saw blade).
B. Pulling ceilings from below.
C. Opening the returns of a skylight or a scuttle.
D. Opening the cornice.

13. B

46

14. Regarding the maintenance of the saw a belt adjustment should be made at all of the
following times except? Tools 9, 3.1, Appendix A 6.4
A. Weekly during MUD.
B. After every cutting operation.
C. When the saw is returned from being repaired.
D. When a new belt is installed.

14. C

3.1 Commanding Officers of units shall maintain a schedule of periodic servicing requirements,
including checks to be done at the beginning of each tour. Officers on duty shall supervise
inspection and necessary maintenance. Belt adjustments, including a visual inspection of the belt
should be done weekly at MUD, and after every cutting operation. If MUD is canceled belt
inspection and adjustment must be done when unit returns to quarters. Remember, when the
saw has been used every effort should be made to restore the saw to serviceable condition as
soon as possible. (See Appendix A, Data Sheet 1 for additional instructions)

47

15. The maxi force air bag system is a valuable tool in rescue and extrication operations.
When inflated with air, they are designed to lift and move heavy loads. They are relatively
simple to operate, requiring only an inch of space for insertion. Which is the only correct point
below about the air bags? Tools 20, 4.3 note, 3.2.7 note, 6.9.3, 6.9.4, 6.5, 6.9.5, 6.8
A. They are excellent in lifting odd shaped objects and cylindrical objects. Stabilize and shore
the load after placing the air bags into position. Always exercise care to avoid injury in the event
of a drop or load shift.
B. If possible have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between a load to minimize
the operator’s exposure to the load area and to eliminate the possibility of the operator placing
the bag with the air inlet under the load.
C. Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on
top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first. The bags
should only be inflated to ½ to ¾ of their rated height capacity.
D. Remember that when stacking bags you can add together the tonnage of the two bags to get
the total lofting weight. Avoid inflating bags against sharp objects or on a surface heated to over
220 degrees.

15. C

NOTE: Stabilize and shore a load before placing bags into position. Build shoring in
stages as load is being lifted. Always exercise care to avoid injury in the event
of a drop or load shift

Note: Always have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between a load
to minimize the operator's exposure to the load area and to eliminate the
possibility of the operator placing the bag with the air inlet under the load.

6.9.4 When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first.
6.9.5 Remember that when stacking you cannot add together the tonnage of the two
bags to get the total lifting weight. The tonnage of the smaller bag is the
maximum that can be lifted.
6.9.6 The lifting capability is reduced by 50% to obtain maximum lifting height.
Example: a 30 ton bag with a maximum lifting height of 10 inches will lift 30 tons
1 inch, but will lift 15 tons to a height of 10 inches.
6.9.7 Do not operate bags, hoses, valves or regulators that are damaged or improperly
assembled.
6.9.8 It is recommended that the bags be stored in a horizontal position to reduce stress.
6.9.9 It is important to center the bags on top of each other when stacking them.
(See Fig. 15) Blocking or shoring should be centered as much as possible. Do not
place wood between the bag

48

16. During a drill the proby pulled out the 30 ton bag which can lift up to 30 tons with a
maximum lift height of 10”. The members should instruct the proby that this 30 ton bag can lift
30 tons ______. They should further instruct him that the 30 ton bag can lift how many tons
10”? Tools 20, 6.9.6, 2.1.1
A. 1” / 15 tons
B. 8” / 30 tons
C. 5” / 10 tons
D. 10” / 30 tons

16. A

6.9.6 The lifting capability is reduced by 50% to obtain maximum lifting height.
Example: a 30 ton bag with a maximum lifting height of 10 inches will lift 30 tons
1 inch, but will lift 15 tons to a height of 10 inches.

49

PART IV – ERP (Pgs 1 – 23):
1. All uniformed members of the Fire Department receive entry level hazardous materials
training in their respective academies and refresher courses. This training provides every
member with the knowledge and clues to recognize the signs of a hazardous materials incident.
Firefighters are trained to which level at a minimum? 3.2
A. Awareness level
B. Operations level
C. Technician level 1
D. Technician level 2

1. B

3.2 All uniformed members of the Fire Department receive entry-level hazardous materials
training in their respective academies and refresher courses. This training, OSHA/NFPA
Awareness level for medical personnel and OSHA/NFPA Operations level for
firefighters, provides every member with the knowledge and clues to recognize the signs
of a hazardous materials incident.

50

2. Members of E-100 and L-99 were drilling on the topic of control zones at hazardous
materials incidents. Which point made at the drill concerning the hot (exclusion) zone is
incorrect? 4.2
A. The hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements.
Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the exclusion zone.
B. The exclusion zone or hot zone is the innermost area of the scene and is considered
contaminated or hot.
C. The hotline, the boundary of the exclusion zone, should be established initially based on
the type of released material and the initial instrument readings.
D. People, equipment, and apparatus leaving the exclusion zone should be considered
contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

2. A

4.2 Exclusion Zone—Hot Zone
4.2.1 The Exclusion Zone or Hot Zone is the innermost area of the scene and is
considered contaminated or "hot."
4.2.2 All personnel entering the Exclusion Zone must wear appropriate personal
protective equipment.
4.2.3 An Access Control Point must be established at the periphery of the Exclusion
Zone to control the flow of personnel and equipment between the Exclusion Zone
and the Contamination Reduction Zone and to ensure the established procedures
for access and egress are followed.
4.2.4 The Hotline, the boundary of the Exclusion Zone, should be established initially
based on the type of released material(s) and the initial instrument readings.
The Hotline should be a safe distance from any potential exposure.
4.2.5 The Hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or
measurements. RED barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone.
4.2.6 People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone should be
considered contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

51

3. Continuing on in the drill members of E-100 and L-99 turned their attention to the support
and contamination reduction zones. Which is the only correct statement made concerning the
cold and warm zones? 4.3, 4.4
A. The support zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered to be uncontaminated.
This zone is not designated a controlled area however no contaminated persons, equipment, or
apparatus are permitted in the cold zone.
B. All decontamination activities occur in the contamination reduction zone. Red or Orange
barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the contamination reduction zone.
C. The contamination reduction zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of
contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel and equipment exiting the exclusion
zone.
D. Moving further away from the exclusion zone does not allow for personnel to operate in a
decreased level of personal protective equipment.

3. C

4.4 Support Zone—Cold Zone
4.4.1 The Support Zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered
uncontaminated.
4.4.2 The Support Zone is designated as a controlled area for authorized support
personnel and equipment.
4.4.3 No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support
Zone

4.3.5 YELLOW barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the
Contamination Reduction Zone.

4.3.8 Moving further away from the Exclusion Zone may allow for personnel to operate
in a decreased level of PPE.

52

4. Decontamination is the process of reducing levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances
from personnel, equipment, and apparatus. This process is one of the most important steps in
ensuring personal safety at a hazardous materials incident. Which point(s) listed below is/are
incorrect? 4.3.9
A. Emergency decontamination may be necessary in potentially life threatening situations to
remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible and always involves the formal
establishment of a decontamination system.
B. The thoroughness and extent of decontamination operations required at an incident depends
on the safety and health hazards of the contaminant(s).
C. Gross decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non-emergency
decontamination. Two common methods of gross decontamination used in emergencies are wet
and dry decontamination.
D. Technical decontamination, which may involve the use of special solution or equipment, is
a more thorough decontamination process and takes place before gross decontamination.
E. Separate decontamination areas should be established for emergency personnel unless time
and equipment do not allow for this. In such case the decontamination area will be shared by
patients and responders with priority going to the patients.

4. A, D, E

B. Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially
life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as
expeditiously as possible and may or may not involve the formal
establishment of a decontamination system.

D. Technical Decontamination is a more thorough decontamination process and
follows Gross Decontamination. Technical Decontamination may involve
the use of special solutions or equipment carried by Haz-Mat units.

F. Separate decontamination areas should be established for emergency
personnel; members may be operating on a limited supply of air and must be
decontaminated as expeditiously as possible.

53

Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D
5. Which level listed above would encompass the use of full face air purifying respirators and
powered air purifying respirators? 5.6
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
E. None of the above

5. C

Note: Full-face air purifying respirators (APRs) and powered air purifying
respirators (PAPRs) are part of the Level C ensemble.

54

Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D

6. Which level listed above will provide the highest level of respiratory protection and offers
vapor tight chemical clothing? 5.6.1
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
E. None of the above

6. A

55

Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D

7. Which level listed above offers thermal protection in case of fire and can be used for
protection from all hazardous materials in an emergency? 5.4
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
E. None of the above

7. E

5.4 The use of chemical protective clothing (CPC) and equipment requires specific skills
acquired through training. CPC is available to members of Haz-Mat Company 1, Haz-Mat
Battalion, Rescue Companies, HMTUs, SSLs, CPC Ladder Companies,
Haz-Tac units, Special Operations Command (SOC) and Safety Battalion. This type of
special clothing may only protect against one chemical, yet be readily penetrated by other
chemicals for which it was not designed. It offers little or no thermal protection in case of
fire. No one suit offers protection from all hazardous materials.

56

Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D

8. First responders should avoid leaks, spills, and obvious sources of hazards as well as
direct and indirect contact with potentially contaminated areas and victims. Full
firefighting gear and SCBA shall be used as a minimum of protection against exposure.
Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is classified as level D protective
clothing. Do you agree or disagree with the above statement. 5.3, 5.7
A. Agree or D. Disagree

8. D

5.7 Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is not classified as chemical
protective clothing

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Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D

9. At all incidents where the Haz Mat Battalion responds, whether it’s a small incident
or a large incident the Haz Mat Battalion will operate at the command post with the IC in
an advisory role. Do you agree or disagree? 8.2, 8.3, 8.4
A. Agree or D. Disagree

9. D

8.3 SOC Battalion
8.3.1 The SOC Battalion operates within the Haz-Mat Branch/Group and is assigned on
10-80 Codes 2, 3 and 4 hazardous materials incidents. The SOC Battalion Chief
and Firefighter are trained to the Technician II level and receive additional
specialized training.
8.3.2 At most small incidents the SOC Battalion will operate in the Contamination
Reduction Zone and directly supervise member and civilian decontamination.
The SOC Battalion will maintain radio communications with both the IC and the
Haz-Mat Battalion. This includes the supervision of the Decon Support Unit.
8.3.3 At larger, more complex hazardous materials incidents, the SOC Battalion may
directly supervise entry teams and on-scene Haz-Mat units.
8.3.4 At hazardous materials incidents that involve unusual rescue operations, the SOC
Battalion Chief will oversee the rescue operations. A special-called Battalion
Chief shall fill the role of the SOC Battalion in supervising decontamination
procedures.

58

Please answer questions 5 - 10 based on the information below.
At a hazardous materials incident the level of special protection required in each zone at an
incident will be determined by the IC based on incident size up and monitoring data
provided by the officer in charge of HAZ-MAT resources. Knowledge of the different
levels of chemical protective clothing is critical to ensure safe operations at haz mat
incidents. The levels of chemical protective clothing defined by OSHA and the NFPA are:
- Level A
- Level B
- Level C
- Level D

10. A group of five Lieutenants were discussing the different units with haz mat training and
their functions at haz mat incidents. Each of the Lieutenants made a statement:
1. Haz Mat Company 1 members are trained to the specialist level and can identify materials,
control spills, neutralize a released material, and coordinate with other city agency
personal.
2. Haz Mat Tech Units (HMTU’s) are trained to the TECH 1 level. These units are trained in
air monitoring instruments and carry all levels of CPC clothing on their second piece.
3. Rescue companies are trained to the TECH 2 level and carry CPC and some metering
devices as well as mitigation equipment. Rescue companies can be used for assessment,
search, and rescue.
4. SOC support ladder companies are trained to the TECH 1 level and are trained in CPC,
monitoring instruments, and decontamination procedures. SOC support ladder co.’s can
perform mitigation activities if necessary.
5. The primary objective of CPC ladder companies is to perform rescue operations of nonambulatory
victims in the contaminated area or the exclusion zone.
Which statements are incorrect? 8.5, 8.6, 8.7, 8.8, 8.9
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 5
D. 2, 4, 5

10. B

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11. A 10-80 no code is used for an incident that can be controlled by the on scene unit or units
and requires no additional resources. All of the following are guidelines for transmitting the
signal 10-80 no code except for which one? 9.1, 9.2
A. Release is of a small quantity.
B. The material has been identified but its hazards are not known.
C. Firefighter PPE provides adequate protection against the hazards.
D. Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.

11. B

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12. Engine 100 has just arrived alone at an ERS box and is met by a civilian who tells Lt.
Carter that his tractor trailer is leaking diesel fuel. Upon further investigation Lt. Carter sees that
the side tank on the truck is split and diesel fuel is spilling out of the tank. The driver says he
just filled up the tank which holds 100 gallons. The driver has diesel on his hands, arms, and
shirt after trying to stop the leak. Lt. Carter would be correct to transmit which signal below?
9.2
A. 10-80 no code
B. 10-80 code 1
C. 10-80 code 2
D. 10-80 code 3

12. C

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13. Ladder 7 is doing BI at a bulk mail facility in Manhattan. While inspecting the facility an
alarm is heard sounding near a high speed sorting machine. Capt. Leftus is told by the post
master that this is the BDS alarm and that this is an anthrax incident. Capt. Leftus calls his LCC,
FF Welpez, and tells him to transmit a 10-80 code? 9.4
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1

13. A

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14. Evacuation involves moving threatened persons to a shelter in another area. Evacuation is
clearly safer than sheltering in place with respect to the hazards but has certain limitations.
Evacuation is best considered in all of the following situations except which one? ERP
10.5.2
A. There is a possibility of a fire or explosion.
B. The potential for discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate
people.
C. The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for
evacuation.
D. People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.

14. A

10.5.2 Evacuation is best considered when:
A. There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion
B. The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time
to relocate people
C. The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit
time for evacuation
D. People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing
conditions

63

15. Sheltering in place is the preferred alternative when pre planning has identified options for
problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies. When deciding to
shelter in place the hazardous material should display which one of the following characteristics?
ERP 10.5.5
A. Low to high toxicity.
B. Partially released and dissipating.
C. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.
D. Small to moderate solid or liquid leak.

15. C

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16. Which general consideration of the first arriving unit is the most correct when there is a
known life hazard but there are no haz-mat resources on scene with CPC? ERP 11
A. Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able bodied (ambulatory) persons
from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should not be attempted.
B. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority. Use CPC
as a minimum to be protected from unnecessary exposure to contaminants.
C. When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be
attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk.
D. Given the limited capability of units arriving first at the scene of a hazardous materials
incident, premature commitment of companies and personnel to unknown, potentially hazardous
situations/locations should be carefully evaluated before being attempted.

16. C

11.7.2 Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory)
persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations
should be carefully evaluated before being attempted.

11.6 As soon as the presence of a hazardous substance is detected or suspected, First
Responders should take the following actions:
11.6.1. Use assigned PPE as a minimum to be protected from unnecessary exposure to
contaminants.

11.3 Given the limited capability of units arriving first at the scene of a hazardous materials
incident, premature commitment of companies and personnel to unknown, potentially
hazardous situations/locations must be avoided.

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17. Lt. Kuitcredi arrives at a subway chemical attack where 750 people need to be
decontaminated as quickly as possible. Lt. Kuitcredi should transmit a 10-80 code _ and should
call how many mass decon task forces? ERP 9.5
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 and special call 2 additional mass decon task forces.
D. 4 and special call 3 additional mass decon task forces.

17. D

9.5 10-80 Code 4
A Mass Decontamination Response requiring Mass Decon Task Forces (MDTF) to
decontaminate a large number of victims as quickly as possible.
Units dispatched on a 10-80 Code 4 include:
A. 10-80 Code 3 assignment
B. Mass Decon Task Force:

Decks in Firetech Class (61):