WEEK #5 WEEK OF 10/14/13 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 6 {Tower Ladders} PART II – ERP ADD #1 {Biological Agents} PART III – TB – TOOLS #29, 30, 31 & 32 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #5 WEEK OF 10/14/13 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 6 {Tower Ladders} PART II – ERP ADD #1 {Biological Agents} PART III – TB – TOOLS #29, 30, 31 & 32 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #5 WEEK OF 10/14/13 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 6 {Tower Ladders} PART II – ERP ADD #1 {Biological Agents} PART III – TB – TOOLS #29, 30, 31 & 32 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #11 INSTRUCTOR: DC JOHN ESPOSITO Deck (55):
1

PART I – FFP – LADDER 6 {Tower Ladders}:

1. You are the newly assigned Lieutenant in Ladder 91, a tower ladder. During drill the
chauffeur made the following statements. He was incorrect in which two statements?
(2.1.1, 2.1.3, 2.1.4, 2.1.7)

a. The outriggers need approximately 6 feet to clear obstructions
b. When operating on uneven ground, the low side jacks and outriggers are lowered prior to
the jacks and outriggers on the high side
c. The chassis is supported at six points while the boom is in operation and although the
supports have a direct frame attachment the suspension keeps the apparatus level
d. After the jacks and outriggers are lowered, a mechanical lock (pin) automatically drops into
place to eliminate any possibility of stabilizer support collapse

1. C, D

2

2. When setting up a tower ladder apparatus for operation the LCC needs assistance from
other members of the unit. Which is an incorrect statement? (2.1.5, 2.1.8, 2.1.9)

a. The tower ladder officer must personally verify the placement of all outriggers and jacks
prior to the boom being raised from the bedded position
b. If a guide firefighter is necessary while outriggers are lowered, they must remain in place
until the outrigger is completely lowered on the operator’s blind side.
c. Additional clearance can be obtained if the guide firefighter tilts the hinged outrigger pad
d. The indentations in the turntable for the outriggers require movement of the outriggers
clear of the turntable prior to operating the boom

2. A

2.1.9 Any member operating a tower ladder must personally verify the placement of all
outriggers and jacks prior to raising the boom from the bedded position

3


3. Tower ladder basket movement must be coordinated between the members operating at the
pedestal and in the basket. Which two statements are correct? (2.4, 2.4.5)

a. The pedestal position is required to be staffed whenever a tower ladder operation is in
progress
b. The deadman control on the pedestal must be depressed for the basket firefighter to be able
to control basket movement
c. The use of the platform control switch is necessary whenever members or civilians enter or
leave elevated basket
d. If a malfunction in rotating the boom occurs, depressing the floor switch on the pedestal
will halt all boom movement

3. A, C

4

4. Select the correct statement concerning tower ladder booms operations: (2.6.1,
2.8.1, 2.8.4, 2.8.6, 2.9.1)

a. Members may only use the escape ladder mounted on the boom sections to enter or leave
the basket when no other solution is possible
b. The intercom from pedestal to basket is the most effective means of communication
between basket and pedestal
c. Since the pedestal controls allow for smoother movements, the pedestal firefighter should
always perform delicate operations
d. The most effective means to ensure instant communications between the command post
and the basket is to have the tower ladder officer monitor handie-talkie communications and
relay messages to the pedestal

4. B

5


5. Tower Ladder Company 92 has four firefighters detailed in for the night tour. While going
over the apparatus at the start of the tour, the Lieutenant and members were discussing the
pedestal position. Which Firefighters may operate on the pedestal?

a. FF Smith from Engine 29 because he is a School trained Chauffeur-Tillerman
b. FF Jones from Ladder 60, an aerial ladder, who was previously assigned to Ladder 92
c. FF DiDomenico who is detailed from Tower Ladder 139
d. FF Brown from Engine 31 who is an instructor at Chauffeur School

5. A, C


2.8.8 By monitoring Handie-Talkie transmissions the pedestal man can be continuously
aware of changing fire conditions, location of other units during operations,
orders issued by officer in command of fire or company officer, or any
information regarding safety of members and fire extinguishment that will effect
TL operation. He can relay these communications via intercom to basket or, from
basket to officer in command of operation should Handie-Talkie at basket be
ineffective

6

6. Occasionally there have been misunderstandings concerning basket due to terminology
between the pedestal FF and basket FF. Standard orders such as “raise boom”, “extend boom”
and “boom left” are necessary to avoid confusion. The reference point for these directions is
the? (2.8.2)

a. Basket position
b. Cab of the apparatus
c. Front of the fire building
d. Pedesta

6. D

7


7. Tower ladder positioning is unique yet important for effective operations. Which statement
made during drill with the detailed aerial ladder chauffeur is correct? (3.1.4, 3.2.6 - 3.2.8)

a. Generally, a tower ladder should be positioned perpendicular to the building
b. A tower Ladder may, if necessary, be placed fully on a sidewalk in an effort to reach upper
levels
c. A Tower Ladder’s ideal horizontal distance from objectives is 25 feet.
d. To increase the “scrub” area, position the apparatus with the front end angled 15° toward
the building

7. B

3.1.4 Generally the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally the scrub
area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus. This condition can
be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled about 15 degrees
from the building line. This will put the cab portion of the apparatus farther away
than the rear portion, and in this way the boom can be operated the full extent of
its scrub area.


3.2.6 Apparatus may be placed on the sidewalk either fully or partially to reach upper
levels or to gain better vantage points. In this situation verify the condition under
the sidewalk and make certain that the stabilizers are on a firm foundation.

3.2.7 When the center line of turntable is 25 feet from a building, there will be
sufficient room for basket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom
perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.

3.2.8 Ideal horizontal distance from objectives is 32 feet. At 32 feet from center line of
turntable to building, allowance is made for sidewalks, outriggers and parked
vehicles

8

8. You are the incident commander at an all-hands fire on the 4th floor of a 5-story OLT with
no front fire escape. A tower ladder is positioned in front of the building with the basket placed
to a 4th floor window. After the basket firefighters have entered the window to conduct a search
the pedestal firefighter begins to move the basket from the window. The pedestal firefighter’s
action is: (3.1.11 J)

a. Correct if the basket firefighters are informed of the movement and approve
b. Incorrect if another ladder company is on the scene
c. Correct if a civilian appears in a 2nd floor window
d. Correct if no other ladder company is positioned for coverage on the front of the building

8. A

9


9. Which details of tower ladder characteristics are correct? (3.2)

a. The ideal distance from objective is 32 feet and the maximum angle of the boom is 90°
b. The basket, while touching a point 32 feet horizontally from center of turntable can reach a
basket floor elevation of 65 feet
c. While 75 feet is the nominal height, the actual maximum working height is about 70 feet
d. When the center line of turntable is 25 feet from building, room exists to drop basket below
horizontal with boom perpendicular to apparatus

9. B, C, D

3.2.1 A properly positioned TL provides wall coverage from grade level or below, up to
a maximum basket floor elevation of 70' (approximately), at the maximum 75
degree angle.

10


10. You are the Lieutenant of a special called tower ladder responding to an all-hands fire in a
private dwelling. While responding you are directed to setup your apparatus in front of the fire
building. This placement requires the tower ladder to be positioned on a hill. The optimal
placement is when the apparatus is? (3.4.1)

a. Facing uphill with boom operations in the “uphill” direction
b. Facing uphill with boom operations in the “downhill” direction
c. Facing downhill with boom operations in the “uphill” direction
d. Facing downhill with boom operations in the “downhill” direction.

10. C

11


11. Tower ladders are valuable assets and occasionally need to be positioned on hilly or icy
terrain. Which is an incorrect statement? (3.4.2, 3.4.6 note 2, 3.5.5)

a. When positioning on a hill, all four wheels are required to be chocked before setting the
jacks and outriggers
b. It may be necessary to retract the boom, raise the boom, or both when rotating on steep
inclines
c. The maximum slope for TL operation is 15% grade which is slightly over 5 ½ feet from
front to rear of the apparatus
d. When the TL takes up during winter operations, the boom shall be raised to 45° while the
drain plugs on the waterway are removed prior to beddin g

11. D

3.5.5 On taking up, boom shall be raised to a 60 degree angle, drains of waterway and
the gated inlets opened to drain system of water. On bedding of boom the drain
plugs on waterway around base of platform shall be removed to insure entire
system properly drained

12

12. Members of Tower Ladder 64 were conducting drill on using a portable ladder from a
tower ladder basket. Several comments were made about the equipment required for the
evolution, which are correct? (3.6.4 A, 3.6.4 B 9, p. 21 notes 2, 6)
a. A 20’ combination ladder is the preferred ladder for this evolution
b. Life belts, personal harnesses or the installed safety belts are required for the members in
the basket
c. The equipment list includes 15 feet of ½” rope (known as the Basket Ladder Securing
Rope) with a hose strap hook on one end
d. The basket is raised to the point of operation by the control man in the basket

12. A, B, C, D

3.6.4 Operation of portable ladder from basket as follows:
A. EQUIPMENT
♦ One Tower Ladder
♦ One 20 Ft. Portable Ladder (preferably a combination ladder * Note 7)
♦ Life belt or Personal Harness for each member in basket if installed safety
belts are not used.
♦ 15' of 1/2" rope fitted with hose strap hook at one end. (Fig. 8)
♦ Referred to as Basket Ladder Securing Rope.
♦ Stored on apparatus with 1/2" rope as shown.

13

13. If members use the Portable Ladder Used from TL Basket procedure to reach a victim, they
must avoid the risk of removal by this means if at all possible. Do you agree or disagree?
(3.6.7)
a. Agree or d. Disagree:

13. A

3.6.7 In the event a portable ladder is used from the basket to reach a victim, an
assessment must be made as to whether the victim must be removed using this
procedure. AVOID THE RISK OF REMOVAL BY MEANS STATED ABOVE
IF AT ALL POSSIBLE.
NOTE:
1. The portable ladder from the basket reacts to any movement in the basket
and movement on the ladder results in movement of the basket, lateral and
vertical, and the portable ladder tends to "walk" especially when boom
fully extended.

14

14. You are the Captain working a night tour in Ladder 97, a tower ladder. Heavy snow has
been falling and accumulating for several hours. You are directed to respond to a run for smoke
in a 5 story MD. Your chauffeur is unable to properly position the apparatus due to deep snow
despite the use of chains. You instructed the firefighters to perform the following actions:
(3.5.4)
1. Lower the jacks and outriggers to raise the apparatus
2. Place boards or planks under the wheels for the apparatus to ride upon
3. Lower apparatus onto planks and proceed to the end of the planks
4. Repeat this process until desired positioning of apparatus
5. This procedure is also effective on sand and mud
How many are correct?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

14. D #3

3.5.4 In deep snow, when attempting to position apparatus and chains are of no help,
such as in an unplowed street or lot, jacks and outriggers can be lowered raising
the apparatus sufficiently to allow boards or planks to be placed under the wheels
for the apparatus to ride upon toward desired operating location. Place planks so
as to obtain maximum riding distance. Lower apparatus onto planks and proceed
until unable to continue. Repeat this process until desired positioning of apparatus
is attained. This procedure is also effective on sand and mud.

15

15. Tower ladder 97 is the second arriving ladder company for a fire in a 6 story H-type MD.
After properly positioning the apparatus the LCC starts to raise the boom and realizes that trees
are obstructing the operations. Which is a correct statement? (3.3.3)
a. The boom should not be extended through any branches
b. The boom should not be retracted through any branches
c. The boom may be raised through light branches

15. C

16

PART II – ERP ADD #1 {Biological Agents}:
1. During a recent Education Day lecture at the Rock the instructor made the following
comments about biological incidents. He was correct in all but which one? (1, 2, 2.1.5)
a. Biological toxins are many times more lethal than chemical nerve agents
b. First responders will usually have to deal with the crux of the emergency during an
accidental biological occurrence
c. Production of biological agents can be inexpensive and necessary ingredients easily
obtained
d. A toxin is a poisonous substance produced by a living organism

1. B

2.1.5 By weight, biological toxins are thousands of times more lethal than chemical
nerve agents.

Though public health officials and medical personnel will deal with the crux of the
emergency, first responders will encounter and will have to deal with the ensuing chaos
and overreaction from the public. Biological agents that first responders may encounter
include bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi and toxins.

17

2. You are a Captain working a day tour in Engine 29 and going to the Rock for training.
Prior to the start of the scenario you are told it involves some type of terrorism related incident.
Which two of the following statements made as you review procedures are incorrect?
(2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.1.6, 2.1.7)
a. If the incident involves any type of biological agent, symptoms will not be apparent for
hours, days or longer.
b. If the incident involves a chemical attack the results will be immediate
c. The FDNY does not have any devices that can detect the presence of a biological agent
instantaneously
d. The presence of biological agents cannot be confirmed without laboratory tests
e. Victims exposed to the same biological agent will have fairly consistent signs and
symptoms

2. A, E

18

3. How many of the following situations may provide a clue of the presence of an intentional
biological incident? (3.2)
1. The presence of an abandoned spray device that is out of place
2. Containers from laboratories and culture plates in a hotel room
3. An unusual number of sick or dying animals
4. An IED explosion with only minimal damage
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

3. D

19

4. You are the officer of the first arriving unit for an overt biological release. Of the actions
listed below, which would be incorrect for you to order? (5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.2.3)
a. Order all firefighters in your unit to use respiratory protection
b. Establish an initial exclusion zone a minimum of 300 feet in all directions from the source
c. If the leak in indoors, evacuate and leave doors & windows open if possible to allow the
agent to settle
d. Avoid entry into area for a minimum of 30 minutes

4. C

20

5. Meteorological conditions can have great influence on the effectiveness of a biological
dispersal. Which is a correct statement? (5.6.3)
a. A biological agent released at dawn will have greater impact than the same one released at
dusk or afternoon
b. The sun’s UV rays will strengthen biological agents
c. Lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent
d. Higher humidity is detrimental to the dissemination of a liquid agent

5. C

5.6.3 Consider meteorological conditions
Meteorological conditions may play a role in the dissemination of a biological
agent.
A. A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a
greater impact. The temperature of the ground and the air hovering just
above the ground is cooler than the upper layers of air, creating a
temperature inversion, which keeps the aerosol cloud closer to the ground,
thereby increasing the potential for exposure.

B. The sun's UV rays will destroy some biological agents.
C. Humidity will also factor into the type and timing of the dissemination of
a biological agent. Higher humidity will facilitate the dispersal of a liquid
agent, whereas lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried
biological agent.
D. Though some environmental conditions are more suited for the
dissemination of biologicals, some agents can still be effectively dispersed
in a variety of meteorological conditions.

21

6. First responders should operate upwind of an aerosol release and evacuate civilians
that are downwind to a safer location. Do you agree or disagree?
a. Agree or d. Disagree

6. A

22

7. Which of the following is not a correct action for a response to a possible biological
release? (6, 6.2.1, 6.2.3)
a. Since this is presumed to be a biological release, use of any metering devices is not
necessary
b. Members may use an AV2000 respirator instead of the SCBA
c. Suspicious objects should not be touched or moved
d. Shut down the HVAC even though this may create more problems for people sheltering in
place

7. A

6.2 Fire Branch: First Alarm Unit Operations for an Overt Biological Release
These units will include 3 Engine Companies, 2 Ladder Companies and a Battalion
Chief.
6.2.1 Use available PPE for entry and rescue
A. SCBA or AV2000
B. Bunker Gear with Hood
C. Gloves

6.2.3 Control environment
A. Shut down the HVAC system in affected building(s) to limit the spread of
the aerosol.
Caution: Shutting down the HVAC system could create more problems,
such as poor indoor air quality, resulting in adverse health effects on the
occupants (e.g. asthmatics), and temperature extremes depending on the
weather conditions (i.e. excessively hot or cold).

23

8. You are the Captain working in Engine 56 responding on a CFR-D run for an adult male
with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival you are met with a patient that has difficulty breathing, a
high fever and has recently developed a rash. Which of the following is an incorrect action in
this situation? (7.2 – 7.3)
a. The patient should be wrapped in a sheet or gown
b. Obtain contact information for other people in the household
c. Place a non-rebreather on the patient
d. Remove contaminated PPE prior to entering hospital or station

8. D

7. FDNY RESPONSE TO AN AT-RISK CALL TYPE
7.1 Initial On-Scene Operations of First Responders
7.1.1 Enter scene with respiratory protection and other appropriate PPE
7.2 Patient(s) Consistent with At-Risk Call Type and Presenting With Signs of Contagious
Illness
At-risk call types include:

24

9. While writing the roll call at 0900 a 65-2 comes over the teleprinter warning of a possible
covert biological incident and ordering a Bio Response Level II. Which is not one of the
precautions taken during a Bio Response Level II? (8.1.2 FD & E)
a. Minimize the number of firefighters making patient contact on CFR-D responses
b. Wash hands or use antiseptic towelettes between patients
c. N95 respirator and eye protection required prior to entering patient location
d. Reverse-isolate the patient

9. C

D. Minimize the number of firefighters making patient contact on CFR-D
responses.

E. Use PPE to achieve BSI.
1. Use contact and airborne isolation procedures, as necessary.
2. Reverse-isolate patients (i.e. mask patient, wrap patient in a sheet).
3. Use antiseptic towelettes between patients if soap and water are not
available.

F. Initiate scene size-up and maintain situational awareness.

25

10. During the decontamination process for biological agents, respiratory protection is
the last item removed. Do you agree or disagree?
a. Agree or d. Disagree

10. A

26

PART III – TB – TOOLS #29, 30, 31 & 32:
Tools 29 – {TIF 8800}
1. Lt. Smith was explaining the TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector to the new proby and he
made the following statements. Which of the following is incorrect? (1, 5)
a. Ladder companies and Battalions carry this detector
b. A ticking signal that increases in frequency indicates the presence of a gas source
c. The readout will indicate the amount of gas detected in parts per million (ppm)
d. The detector must be stored in its carrying case when not in use to prevent damage.

1. C

27

2. While operating at an alarm for an odor of natural gas Ladder 139 used the TIF 8800.
Which choice shows an incorrect understanding of this tool? (3, 4)
a. After a 30 second warm up a ticking sound will be heard if it’s working correctly
b. A source as low as 5 ppm can be detected
c. Usually it is not necessary to adjust the detector’s sensitivity
d. At the point of the leak the tick rate will increase until a steady beeping sound is heard.

2. D

28

3. Which is the correct point about the care and maintenance of the TIF 8800? (2, 3,5)
a. Initial charging time is 24 hours
b. Subsequent charging time is 4-6 hours
c. If defective it should be returned to the Meter Room at Haz Mat Operations with an RT-2
d. The TIF 8800 should be used to detect carbon monoxide

3. A

• Initial charging time is 24 hours. Subsequent recharges take 12-16 hours.

• Distribution, service and repairs to the TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Meter will by done
by the Mask Service Unit. Return defective meters to MSU with form RT-2.

The TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector shall not be used to detect Carbon Monoxide

29

Tools 30 – {Glow sticks}
4. Which is an incorrect statement about the glow sticks used by the FDNY?
a. When activated, glow sticks will provide up 8 hours of illumination
b. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus
c. When required, units shall requisition glow sticks in packs of 5 from Tech Services
d. Glow sticks require no electricity and present no danger of sparking

4. A

When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 12 hours of illumination.

30

5. Glow sticks can be an effective source of light in an emergency situation. Which is the
correct point about this new tool? (2.2, 2.3, 2.4)
a. Although they can tolerate high pressure, they are not waterproof
b. The light is created when an internal glass capsule is broken, causing a chemical reaction
c. The glow stick should not be shaken unless the temperature is below 32° F
d. The “triple A” battery needs to be replaced semi-annually

5. B

31

Tools 31 – {Sound Powered Telephones}
6. Sound powered telephones (SPT) have been a tool in the FDNY arsenal for many years and
recently have been emphasized as a viable option for communication. Which is an incorrect
statement made during drill? (1.2, 1.3, 1.4)
a. FDNY sound powered telephone equipment is used primarily in the New York City Transit
system in conjunction with installed hard-wired systems
b. Sound powered telephones can be used as a standalone system in high rise buildings
c. When the temperature is below 0°C, sound powered telephones may not perform efficiently
outdoors
d. All Battalions have been issued sound powered telephones

6. C

1.3 Sound powered telephones can be used as a stand-alone system in tunnels, high-rise
buildings, or anywhere that such use is deemed beneficial by the Incident Commander.
Sound powered telephones are not effected by temperature or humidity, surrounding
concrete or steel structures, and do not present the user with a shock hazard.

32

7. You are the Lieutenant of Engine 49, a special called engine to an all-hands fire in a below
grade subway station. Upon arrival the Deputy Chief orders you to establish a communication
link with the operations chief on the mezzanine level utilizing sound powered telephones which
are not carried on your apparatus. You know that sound powered telephones are carried by all
but which of the following units?
a. All Battalions
b. All Divisions
c. High-rise units 1 & 2
d. Field Communications Unit

7. B

33

8. Which two are incorrectly included on the equipment list for the waterproof SPT box?
(2.1)
a. 2 headsets
b. 1 screwdriver
c. Two 1620 keys
d. 2 survivor flashlights
e. T-handle subway key
f. 1 handset

8. D, F

2. EQUIPMENT
2.1 Sound powered telephone equipment consists of a waterproof SPT box (Photo 1) and
wire reels. The waterproof SPT box contains:
 2 - Headsets
 2 - 1620 keys attached to headsets. 1620 keys are used to gain access to SPT
connectors in the NYCT System.
 2 - Amplifiers
 “Y” Connector

 2 - Jumper cords
 T-handle subway key
 Screwdriver (to change amplifier battery)
 4 - Glow sticks
 Laminated instruction sheet

34

9. Sound powered telephones may be used with either handsets or headsets. If both are
available for use members should choose: (2.2)
a. Handsets because they have less background noise than headsets
b. Headsets because they allow for hands-free use
c. Handsets because they have less interference
d. Headsets because they function like a standard telephone

9. B

35

10. Lt. Smith was reviewing sound powered telephone (SPT) operations during drill. He was
correct in all except? (3.1 – 3.6)
a. Specific members assigned to maintain and monitor the SPT link shall be paired with
another member monitoring handie-talkie communications
b. The headset will buzz when communications are being initiated
c. The headset and amplifier are connected to the wire after the wire is stretched to the end
point
d. When transmitting messages, the mouthpiece should be close to the speaker’s face

10. B

3. USING SOUND POWERED TELEPHONE EQUIPMENT
3.1 Once the start and end points of communications are determined, one or more wire reels
are deployed. The wire from the bottom of the reel is pulled out a few feet and secured at
the starting point. This wire plays out as a member carries the reel towards the end point
of communications. If the wire does not play out easily, pull wire from the reel while
walking. If the distance requires more than one reel to be used, jumper cords are used to
connect the short wire of one reel to the long wire of the next reel.
3.2 Once wire is stretched to the end point, listening devices and amplifiers are connected to
each end.
3.3 Specific members shall be dedicated to maintain the SPT communications link. Each
shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications.
3.4 Unlike conventional telephones, sound powered phones do not emit a ringing or buzzing
sound when communications are initiated. A member monitoring a sound powered
phone must constantly listen to the headset/handset in case another member is
transmitting a message.
3.5 When transmitting messages, speak loudly and clearly, keeping the mouthpiece close to
your face. As with HT transmissions, use the term “K” to indicate the end of your
transmission.
3.6 A member using a headset in a standby position (awaiting a transmission) should cover
the mouthpiece with his or her hand. This will reduce the background noise which might
be transmitted through the wire.

36

11. In preparation for an upcoming large scale exercise members of Ladder 171 were
reviewing the use of sound powered telephones in New York City Transit Facilities. Which is
the only correct statement? (2.4, 4.1.1 -4.1.4)
a. Two types of systems are installed: street to station and street to tunnel
b. The two systems are interconnected and permit seamless communication
c. Only above grade SPT connectors in the Transit system are located in locked metal boxes
d. The wire reels for the under river tunnels consist of a 500 foot long wire

11. A

2.4 Wire Reel - A SPT wire reel consists of a 400 foot-long wire wound around the reel
inside a plastic case, with a 3 foot-long fixed wire coming out of the side of the reel.
Both ends of the wire reel have female connectors. The headset is connected to the fixed
wire. Wire reels shall be stored with the end of the long wire looped around the handle,
to prevent it from becoming entangled inside the case

4.1.2 There is usually no connection from one SPT system to another (e.g., from an
under river tunnel system to a nearby station).
4.1.3 Headsets are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise
levels that may be encountered.

37

12. Which two are the correct statements about the locations of the SPT outlet and standpipe
cabinets? (4.2.2)
a. On a subway platform the SPT outlet is located in metal boxes inside the red standpipe
cabinet
b. If there is no SPT outlet in the standpipe outlet box, search the surrounding area for a small
individual cabinet
c. On the mezzanine level the standpipe cabinet is identified by a sign showing a white hose
on a red background
d. On the platform level the standpipe outlet will only be located on a column

12. B, C

4.2.2 Platform or Mezzanine Level – SPTs on the platform or mezzanine level are
located in red metal boxes inside the stainless steel standpipe cabinets (Photo 12).
Standpipe cabinets are identified by a sign located above the standpipe outlet,
showing a white hose on a red background. Combination standpipe/SPT boxes
may be located on columns or on a station wall. If there is no SPT outlet located
in the standpipe outlet box, look in the surrounding area for a small individual
cabinet (Photo 13).

38

13. Where is the SPT connector typically located in a “street to tunnel” system? (4.3.2)
a. Track level at entrance to the tunnel
b. Track level at emergency exit closet to tunnel entrance
c. Street level at siamese of closest subway station
d. Street level at siamese closest to the emergency exits

13. D

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14. During a familiarization drill in an under river tunnel FF Smith, who is studying for
Lieutenant, made the following statements. Which is incorrect? (4.1.2, 4.1.4, 4.3.2)
a. In the under river tubes the SPT connectors are found at the standpipe outlets
b. The SPT connector on the platform level may require a subway exit key and/or 1620 key to
open
c. The SPT system from the nearby station will usually have no connection to the SPT system
of any under river tunnel, regardless of proximity.
d. In under river tunnels the standpipe outlets are about 200 feet apart and numbered for
location identification

14. B

4.1.4 All SPT connectors within the NYCT are located in locked metal boxes that are
adjacent to standpipe Siamese or outlets. Boxes containing SPT jacks require a
1620 key to open.

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15. The Amplifier is an integral component of the SPT system. Which is the only correct point
about the amplifier? (2.6, 2.6.1, 5.1, 5.2)
a. The amplifier increases the volume of verbal transmissions and must be installed at specific
points in the system
b. The “push to amplify” button must be pressed whenever the user wants to hear a
transmitted message
c. The 9-volt battery in the amplifier must be changed twice a year
d. If the amplifier does not work properly at any time immediately remove from service and
contact Research and Development

15. C

2.6 Amplifiers - increase the volume of verbal transmissions, but are not required to be used.
Each amplifier has 2 cords; an 8” long cord with a female connector that attaches to the
headset, and a 42” long cord has a male connector that attaches to the SPT system (Photo 10).
2.6.1 There are 2 controls on the amplifier; a talk level knob that controls the volume
and shall be placed at the highest setting when in use, and a PTA (Push to
Amplify) button. The PTA button must be pressed and held whenever the user
wants to transmit a message. Once the message is completed, the PTA button
must be released, or the reply will not be heard.

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TB - Tools 32 {Positive Pressure Fans}
16. Positive Pressure Fans are carried by several units in the FDNY. Which is not a stated
intended use of these positive pressure fans? (2.1)
a. Keep heat and smoke from entering stairwells in fireproof multiple dwellings
b. Pressurize the attack stairwell in a fireproof multiple dwelling
c. Ventilate a building with high CO readings
d. Pressurize the fire area in the early stages of a private dwelling fire
e. Ventilate a large structure of smoke to assist in search operations

16. D

2.1 To pressurize the attack and evacuation stairs in Fireproof Multiple Dwellings in order to
keep heat and smoke from entering the stairwells.

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17. You are the Lieutenant working in Ladder 62 and are special called to a 10-77 for use of
the positive pressure fans. You know which of the following to be the only correct statement
about the Tempest Power Blower PP fans carried by your unit? (1, 3.2, 3.4)
a. If starting with a full fuel tank and operating at full throttle, the run time is 60-90 minutes
b. The fan has wheels and is highly mobile; lifting requires only one member
c. Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated unless authorized by the fire sector supervisor,
operations chief or incident commander
d. Although eye and ear protection is required, members shall limit their time directly in front
of an operating fan

17. D

Run time 2 to 3 hours at full throttle

3.4 Whenever the PPFs need to be lifted (e.g., on and off apparatus, upstairs), two members
shall be used.

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18. “Always” and “never” are absolute terms that are not frequently used in the FDNY books.
Which of the following “always or never” statements are correct? (3.2 - 3.5, 4.3)
a. The PPF should never be transported while in operation
b. Fuel levels shall always remain full to allow for maximum operation
c. Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure
d. An operating fan must always have an exhaust hose attached

18. A, B, C, D

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19. While discussing the inspection and maintenance of the PPV fans during study group Joe
Knownothing made the following statements. Which was his only correct? (4.1, 4.2, 4.4)
a. Fans are inspected each tour
b. Fans must be removed from the apparatus to test the fans
c. During MUD fans shall be run at full RPM for at least 10 minutes
d. When repairs are necessary the unit should call research and development to schedule pick
up

4. INSPECTION AND MAINTENANCE
4.1 Fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour. Fans must be removed from the
apparatus and moved to a safe area to test the fans. Prior to starting the fan, the operator
shall check fuel and oil levels, don hearing and eye protection, and ensure that the area is
clear of any loose debris that may become a hazard once the fan is operating.
4.2 At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. A visual
inspection of the fan belt and tightness check should be conducted prior to starting the
fan.
4.3 Fuel levels shall always remain full to allow for maximum operation time.
4.4 When service or repairs to the fans are required, the unit shall call Technical Services and
request an immediate replacement with an available spare. The out-of-service fans shall
be tagged with an RT-2 documenting the nature of the defect.

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PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #11:
1. Which two statements are not characteristics of the XTS3500R handie-talkie used by the
FDNY? (2.1-2.2)
a. 2 watt or 5 watt capability
b. A unique 5-digit numeric internal identification code
c. The internal identification code identifies the company and assigned riding position of the
radio
d. The internal identification code of transmitting radios will appear on the LCD screens on
all models of the radio

1. B, D

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2. You are the Lieutenant of Engine 25 preparing to leave quarters for morning BISP. As the
members don their handie-talkies the proby tells you her XTS3500R radio emitted a low-pitched
tone sound. You know this indicates that the power-up self-test was: (2.3)
a. Passed and the radio is working correctly
b. Passed and the battery is low and should be replaced
c. Failed and the radio should be placed out of service
d. Failed and the radio should be turned off and battery checked

2. D

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3. Which is not correct about the handie-talkie? (2.3, 3.4)
a. It must be turned on prior to donning the bunker coat
b. It must be worn under the bunker coat
c. It is water resistant
d. It has a 60-second time-out-timer

3. D

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4. When the multifunction LED on the XTS3500R radio is flashing green this is an indication
that the: (2.11)
a. Radio is transmitting
b. Radio is in proper working order
c. Battery needs to be recharged
d. Battery is too low to transmit but may receive messages

4. D

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5. The emergency alert button (EAB) should be activated for “mayday” and “urgent”
transmissions. Which two of the following occur when the EAB is activated on the XTS3500R?
(2.7)
a. The wattage of the transmission will be increased from 2 watts to 5 watts
b. Identical tones will be heard on the transmitting and receiving radios
c. The tones will be heard at maximum volume regardless of the radio’s volume setting
d. After activation of the EAB the transmitting radio will automatically switch to channel 16,
the dedicated Emergency channel

5. A, C

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6. You are the Lieutenant of Ladder 141 conducting a drill on FAST truck procedures. Which
is a correct action if the EAB has been activated accidentally? (2.7.5 (2), 7.3.5 G)
a. The member with the accidental transmission must immediately notify the FAST unit
officer and cancel the emergency
b. The EAB may only be reset by depressing the EAB for approximately 2 seconds
c. The member with the accidental transmission is to report to the command post
d. Members must remain on the primary tactical channel unless authorized to switch by the IC
or resource unit leader

6. D

In the event of an accidental transmission, member must immediately
notify the Incident Commander, cancel the emergency and then reset the
Emergency Alert Button. To reset the Emergency Alert Button, the
member can either depress the Emergency Alert Button and hold it for
approximately 2 seconds until a reset tone is heard, then release the
button, or simply turn the radio off and then back on.

G. No member shall operate on other than the primary Tactical Channel
without the authorization of the Incident Commander, or the designated
Resources Unit Leader.

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7. An XTS3500R radio with an internal ID code of 5035004 indicates this radio is assigned to
the: (4.4)
a. Irons position of Ladder 35
b. Control position of Engine 50
c. Back-up position of Engine 35
d. OV position of Ladder 35
e. Control position of Engine 35

7. C

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8. Care and proper use of the handie-talkie is important for effective emergency
communication. Which is the only correct statement made by a not so sharp student at study
group? (5.1, 5.2, 6.1, 6.3)
a. When transmitting a message, members shall depress the push-to-talk button and may
begin speaking immediately
b. Members should speak clearly and directly into the remote speaker microphone
c. If the HT becomes wet, remove from the case and allow to dry before removing battery
d. External battery charging contacts may be cleaned with an abrasive if a coating is observed
on the contacts

8. B

5.2 When the Push-to-Talk button (PTT) on the handie-talkie is depressed, an electronic ID
signal is transmitted. The processing time for the transmission of this electronic ID
signal is approximately one quarter of a second. This is automatically done prior to the
transmission of the audio signal from the handie-talkie.

Members shall follow these guidelines to assure clear and complete transmission of
the HT audio signal:
 Depress the PTT button, taking a slight pause (1/4 second) to allow for the HT to
transmit its electronic ID signal prior to speaking.
 Speak clearly and directly into the Remote Speaker Microphone (RSM). This will
eliminate the need to repeat transmissions

6. MAINTENANCE OF HT EQUIPMENT
6.1 If the HT becomes wet at an operation, or has been submerged in water, remove the
battery, dry, and clean the HT and battery contacts before re-attaching battery to the HT.

6.3 External battery charging contacts may be cleaned with an eraser if a coating is observed
on the contacts. Never use an abrasive.

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9. Knowledge of the channels available for use is essential for an FDNY officer. All of the
channel names are correctly listed below except which one?
a. Channel 2 Command
b. Channel 3 Secondary Tactical
c. Channel 11 EMS-Fire
d. Channel 13 TAC “U”
e. Channel 15 Subway 2

9. C

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10. At times it may be necessary to operate on the secondary tactical channel. Which two
statements are correct? (7.2.2)
a. The first incident in a borough where a 10-75 signal has been transmitted will have priority
use of channel 1 (Primary tactical).
b. The first arriving officer of an ensuing incident in the same area will determine if and when
the secondary tactical channel must be used
c. If the secondary channel is used, the IC must inform the dispatcher via department radio
d. Primary and secondary tactical channels may both be used at the same incident

10. C, D

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11. You are the Captain of Ladder 171 responding to a 10-77 when the dispatcher announces
that the command channel has been activated for this fire. Upon arrival you are ordered by the
IC to set up your PPV fans and that you are to operate in the Vent Support Group. Which is
correct about the communications plan for this incident? (7.2.2 C, 7.3.5 E)
a. If you are designated the Vent Group Supervisor you will contact the IC on the primary
tactical channel
b. If a Battalion Chief is designated the Vent Group Supervisor you will contact him on the
command channel
c. You may operate on the secondary tactical channel if approved by the IC
d. You would only use the primary tactical channel for emergency transmissions1

11. C

Decks in Firetech Class (61):