WEEK #7 WEEK OF 3/10/14 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 2 PART II – TB – FOAM Pgs #1 - 12 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #56 & 57 PART IV – DUNN CHAPTERS #12, 13 & 14 PART V – FFP - ENGINE OPS CH. #8 & 9 INSTRUCTOR: CAPT CHRIS PAOLICELLI Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #7 WEEK OF 3/10/14 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 2 PART II – TB – FOAM Pgs #1 - 12 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #56 & 57 PART IV – DUNN CHAPTERS #12, 13 & 14 PART V – FFP - ENGINE OPS CH. #8 & 9 INSTRUCTOR: CAPT CHRIS PAOLICELLI > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #7 WEEK OF 3/10/14 PART I – FFP – LADDERS 2 PART II – TB – FOAM Pgs #1 - 12 PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #56 & 57 PART IV – DUNN CHAPTERS #12, 13 & 14 PART V – FFP - ENGINE OPS CH. #8 & 9 INSTRUCTOR: CAPT CHRIS PAOLICELLI Deck (66):
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PART I – FFP – LADDERS 2:
1) During a company drill on general aerial ladder placement, a new chauffeur explained that
there are four conditions which must be considered when deciding where to place the aerial
ladder. In which statement should you correct your chauffeur? (2.1)
A) Whether immediate rescue is apparent.
B) Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the height of the building to be covered in
case of future need of the ladder.
C) Area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.
D) Heat, smoke or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member or the
ladder.

1.

2.1 The placement of aerial ladder apparatus (tractor-trailer and rear mount) is dependent on
four conditions:
 Whether immediate rescue is apparent.
 Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the size of the frontage of the
building to be covered in case of future need.
 Smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member
or the ladder.
 Area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.

2

2) In order to achieve a good climbing angle on an aerial ladder, the LCC should place the
apparatus how may feet from the fire building? (3.1.1)
A) 10 - 20
B) 15 - 25
C) 25 - 35
D) 30 - 40

2. C

3

3) While working in Ladder Company 200 you are about to arrive at the scene of a fire on the
4th floor of a 5 story old law tenement. As you approach the building, you observe fire blowing
out the 4th floor window and a civilian at the window directly above the fire, obviously requiring
assistance. As the officer, you should instruct your chauffeur to take all but which one of the
following actions? (3.1.2)
A) Slow down the approach of the ladder truck so that lining up with the objectives will be
more accurate.
B) Note carefully the window where the civilian is situated. Follow this line of windows
vertically to the street.
C) If possible, observe the relationship of windows to the lines in the sidewalk, or other
markers.
D) Follow the closest sidewalk line to the center of the apparatus.

3. D

4

4) Ladder Company 99 arrives at a fire on the 5th floor of an H-Type building. A victim is
seen at the window next to the fire window. When positioning the aerial ladder to rescue this
person, the distance from the tip of the ladder to the window should be how far? (3.1.5)
A) 2 inches
B) 2 - 6 inches
C) 6 inches
D) At least 6 inches

4. A

5

5) When a ladder company finds two victims, at two different windows in need of rescue with
the aerial, where should the turntable be positioned? (3.2.3)
A) In line with the most seriously exposed victim
B) In line with the least exposed victim
C) Midway between the victims
D) Before the window of the first victim approached

5. C

6

6) Ladder 300 arrives at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6 story non-fireproof building and
immediately finds occupants on the 4th floor front fire escape. The LCC would be correct to
position the aerial ladder where to remove these occupants? (3.3.1)
A) 2 inches away from the building and 1-3 feet above the balcony railing
B) 2 inches away from the building and at least 5 feet above the balcony railing
C) 6 inches away from the building and at least 1-3 feet above the balcony railing
D) 6 inches away from the building and at least 5 feet above the railing

6. A

7

7) Captain Manning and his ladder company are discussing the tactics used when ventilating
windows with the aerial ladder. The Captain made the following statements, but was incorrect in
which one? (4)
A) All horizontal ventilation tactics with the aerial ladder must be controlled by the Incident
Commander.
B) Position the center of the turntable at the center of the span of windows to be vented.
C) If there are obstructions hindering the use of the ladder, position to get the largest number
of windows.
D) Aim at the upper window panels, just above the sash, and extend the ladder without hitting
the tops or sides of the window frames.

7. A

8

8) The movement of the aerial ladder with a firefighter on it is always prohibited. Do
you agree or disagree with the above statement? (5.5, 5.6 Note)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

8. A

9

9) It is 0300 hours and Ladder Company 98 arrives first for at fire on the 4th floor of a
brownstone building. A victim is seen at the 4th floor window with heavy smoke pouring out
over his head. After the rig is properly positioned, which action taken by the OV and LCC
firefighter was not correct? (5.6, 5.7, 5.9)
A) The OV ascended the ladder followed by the LCC.
B) The OV climbed in the window, assists the victim out feet first to the LCC, closes the door
to the fire area, and then searches the area.
C) When descending with the victim, the LCC placed himself one rung below the rung the
victim was standing on. They then descended in unison (Right foot for right foot and left foot for
left foot)
D) After assisting the victim to the turntable, the LCC returned to the window to assist the OV
with other victims.

9. D

10

10) Frequently a member’s assignment calls for two tools, one of which is the 6 foot hook. The
hook is the only tool that need not be actually carried on aerial ladders, portable ladders or fire
escapes. The other tool (axe, halligan) is carried and the hook is extended arm’s length overhead
and hooked on a rung. It is not touched again until the member has climbed to a position where
the top of the hook is about _____ level. (7.15.1)
A) Shoulder
B) Chest
C) Waist
D) Knee

10. D

11

11) How many of the following statements made by the members of an aerial ladder company
at Multi-Unit drill are correct? (5.13, 6.3, 6.3.1 E, 6.7, 7.7)
1. Always carry small children down ladders
2. In order to facilitate an efficient, coordinated operation, the officer of the ladder company
should strive to enter the block after the 1st engine company and from the same direction.
3. If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first
engine company, the ladder company officer must verify that the engine has located the fire
building.
4. The LCC is charged with the responsibility for proper placement of the ladder.
5. When finished with the aerial ladder at a given location, always raise the ladder away from
the building before retracting.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

11. B (1, 2, 5)

12

12) You are the officer of a ladder company operating on the floor above the fire when you
come across an unconscious victim in the hallway. The interior stairs have become weakened by
the fire, and you are unable to bring the fire victim down them. The building has no horizontal
exits. What should be your next choice to remove this victim? (6.7)
A) The fire escape
B) A tower ladder
C) A portable ladder
D) A life saving rope operation

12. A

13

13) When placing the ladder to a roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least how many feet
above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building? (7.13)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10

13. C

14

14) Which one of the following choices is not listed in this bulletin as a precaution to take
during aerial ladder operations? (8.2, 8.3, 8.13, 8.17)
A) When both stabilizers are properly in place, both STABILIZER DOWN green lights will
be illuminated.
B) Wheel chocks should be placed to prevent movement of the apparatus. Carry one set of
chocks on each side of the apparatus.
C) At night, keep the top of the ladder and the rungs well illuminated. For greater visibility,
units could place reflective tape on the tip of the ladder and paint the tip white or yellow.
D) For extended operations or when the turntable will be left unattended, disengage the powertake-
off in order to prevent accidental movement of the ladder.

14. C

15

15) A situation that can arise at a fire is the obvious need to use the aerial for the roof
firefighter but at the same time there is an apparent need to remove an occupant. When deciding
which action to take first, there are 5 factors that should be considered. Which one of these
factors is listed incorrectly? (Ladders 3 3.2.4 Duties 8)
A) Location and severity of the fire. A fire on a lower floor in the front of the building will not
normally require immediate removal of occupants from the floors above the fire.
B) The emotional state of the occupant. An agitated, frightened occupant or one threatening to
jump should be removed first.
C) Fire and/or smoke in the vicinity of the occupant. The occupant must receive instant
attention if he/she would be endangered or seriously disturbed by any delay in their removal.
D) The time element. When the aerial is needed both for removal and roof access, roof access
can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no danger.
E) Doubt. If there is any doubt, remove the occupant first.

15. A

 Location and severity of the fire - A rear first floor fire will not
normally require immediate removal of occupants from the 3rd,
4th, or higher floors in the front of the building. Conversely, a fire
on the upper floors rarely requires removal operations on lower
floors.

16

16) Ladder Company 500, an aerial ladder arrives first for a reported fire in a 50’x75’ loft
building. Upon entering the fire block, no smoke or fire condition is noted on the front of the
building, and no people are showing at any windows. The officer of Ladder 500 would be correct
to instruct the LCC to position the apparatus how? (3.5.1)
A) With the cab just before the first side wall approached.
B) With the center of the turntable 15 feet from the side wall passed upon approach.
C) With the turntable positioned in the center of the building.
D) With the turntable positioned just before the first side wall approached.

16. B

17

17) Ladder Company 324 is the 1st to arrive ladder to a fire in a 5 story isolated multiple
dwelling. Heavy fire is found blowing out all of the top floor windows, making it impossible to
use the aerial for roof access on the front of the building. The officer of Ladder 324 orders the
aerial to the roof via the least exposed sidewall of the building. All of the following choices
would be correct steps for the LCC to take except which one? (3.6)
A) Obtain the best position for the apparatus. This may require removing a minor obstruction.
Do not place the apparatus on the sidewalk.
B) The aerial ladder will initially be placed in the cantilever position with the tip fairly close to
the building.
C) When placed under load the ladder will either touch or barely touch the wall. This should
eliminate any twisting stress.
D) Members should ascend or descend the ladder at well spaced intervals.

17. B

18

18) When there are two victims to be removed, the order of removal is dependent on variables
that are difficult to predetermine. In many instances, one of the people will have climbed out on
the ladder before a member has reached this position and there will be no need to make a
preferential determination as to removal. Occasionally one of the occupants will be aged,
extremely heavy or hysterical and the other ambulatory and less trouble to remove. Which
statement below is incorrect when discussing removal of two occupants from a window?
(5.11)
A) The removal order should be based on the length of time needed to completely affect the
rescue and the seriousness of the exposure to victims and members.
B) For a serious fire in the front of the building, assist the most ambulatory victim first, then
both the OV and LCC can concentrate on the difficult removal which will require two members.
C) In this instance, time is the prime consideration in effecting a complete removal of victims
below the danger point and preventing the possibility of retreat from being cut off.
D) When there are more than two people to be rescued, the officer should contact the second
ladder company and inform them of the need for supportive assistance.

18. B

19

19) Ladder Company 500 is the first arriving ladder company at a fire in a vacant 5 story
brownstone. The officer of Ladder 500 knows that at vacant building fires, aerial ladder officers
must consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their
extinguishing capabilities. However, he also realizes that there are vacant building fires where
the officer should give precedence to the positioning of aerial ladders. Which is not listed as a
situation in which the aerial should be given precedence to the position of the apparatus?
(6.6.1)
A) A building that is completely vacant
B) The officer receives information that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
C) The officer has prior knowledge that part of the building is used by vagrants or squatters.
D) The reach of the 100 foot aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks or
assignments.

19. A

6.6.1 At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladder companies shall consider the
need for access and positioning of tower ladders in order to utilize their
extinguishing capabilities. However, there are vacant building fires where the
officer gives precedence to the positioning of their aerial apparatus, e.g.
A. A building not completely vacant.
B. The officer receives information or has prior knowledge that part of this
building is used by vagrants or squatters.

C. The reach of the 100' aerial is required to expedite or execute certain tasks
or assignments.
Note: In all of the above situations, the officer selects a position that permits achieving the
intended objective while allowing for the placement and use of a tower ladder.

20

20) If the ladder becomes coated with ice, try to avoid movement before defrosting. To remove
ice, the following actions should be taken in which order? (8.19)
1. Free the trussing
2. Free the main beams
3. Free the rungs
4. Free the ladder rung locks
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 3, 4, 1, 2
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3

20. B

21

PART II – TB – FOAM Pgs #1 - 12:
1) Foam is a fire-extinguishing agent designed for certain unusual type incidents. There are
two main categories of foam in use in the FDNY- low expansion foam and high expansion foam
(Hi-Ex). Which statement below does not show proper knowledge in the use of foam?
(2.1)
A) Low expansion foam is extremely useful on fires involving flammable and combustible
liquids.
B) Low expansion foam is extremely useful on spills involving flammable and combustible
liquids.
C) Hi-Ex foam is suitable for outdoor flammable liquid fires.
D) Hi-Ex foams are intended to fight fires of class “A” combustible materials in areas that are
inaccessible to firefighters, such as cellars and ship holds.

1. C

22

2) Foam concentrate is a mixture of various foaming agents, surfactants and in some cases,
anti-freeze compounds, specifically formulated to produce a mass of air filled bubbles which
when mixed with water and air, will float on the surface of a fuel. A study group made the
following statements regarding foam concentrate. Which one should be corrected?
(2.3.1, 2.3.3, 2.3.4, 2.3.5)
A) There are a wide variety of foam concentrates. There is not any one specific foam
concentrate that will solve every problem the department faces.
B) Failure to use the correct type of foam could result in failure to extinguish the fire, sudden
ignition of a spill, and could cause injury or death to members operating in the vicinity.
C) Only in extreme circumstances (e.g. a fast moving gasoline fire), should members mix
different types of foam concentrate in the tanks of Foam Carriers or Foam Tenders.
D) At an incident it is permissible to apply two different types of low expansion finished
firefighting foams simultaneously if necessary.

2. C

23

3) It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the correct situation. To insure
that the foam concentrates do not get mixed, they are color coded (banded) around the top.
Match the foam concentrate with the color band used to identify it.
1. Fluoroprotein ______ A) Black
2. Alcohol ______ B) Yellow
3. Hi-Expansion ______ C) Green
4. AFFF ______ D) Brown

3.
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A

24

4) During a recent company drill, Lt. Hernandez was discussing foam operations with his
engine company. Lt. Hernandez was correct when he stated that a first alarm assignment of 3
engines and 2 ladders should provide _____ gallons of foam concentrate and up to _____ foam
hand lines for control. (6.1.3)
A) 50, 2 B) 50, 3 C) 65, 2 D) 65, 3

4. D

6.1.3 A first alarm assignment of three engines and two ladders should provide 65
gallons of foam concentrate and up to three foam hand lines for control.

25

5) During a Multi-Unit Drill, the Battalion Chief asked members of your Engine Company to
each name an incident at which a foam handline used in conjunction with an educator would be
useful. In which choice should you have corrected your firefighter? (5.2)
A) An oil burner with fire outside of the pit
B) A car fire with a ruptured gas tank
C) A gas pump knocked over at a gas station
D) A gasoline spill that is approximately 800 square feet

5. D

5.2 Handline nozzles are usually used in conjunction with an eductor and are very useful at a
small operation like an oil burner with the fire outside the pit, gas pump knocked over,
car fire with ruptured gas tank, a small spill (approximately 600 sq. ft.) or similar
situation.

26

6) The premixing of foam solutions by FDNY units are restricted to the premixing of AFFF to
hand held extinguishers and the premixing of Fluoroprotein foam solution into the 500-gallon
booster tank of an engine company. Which is an incorrect point about dumping the solution into
the 500 gallon booster tank? (4.2, 4.3)
A) 4 5-gallon cans should be dumped into the booster tank, this will create a 3% solution
B) The pumper that is being used should not be connected to a hydrant
C) This evolution should be used only when a foam educator cannot be placed into operation
D) The FDNY purchases foam concentrate that is used in 3%-6% proportioning ratios. Units
shall identify the foam to be used in order to set operating equipment at the correct flow rate

6. A

4.2 The premixing of Fluoroprotein foam solution can be accomplished by dumping
three 5-gallon cans of concentrate into a 500-gallon booster tank (four 5-gallon cans are
required for a 750-gallon tank). This would produce a 3% solution

27

7) Captain Carter is working a 9x6 tour in Engine 207 when they are dispatched, along with
Satellite 6, to a fire in a bulk oil storage facility. While enroute, the Captain is reviewing all he
knows about the Satellite Units capabilities at foam operations. In how many of the following
thoughts was he correct? (6.4.1)
1. The Satellite carries a 7,500 CFM High Expansion Foam Generator
2. They also carry approximately 32 5-gallon cans of Hi-Ex Foam.
3. The 2,000 gallon per minute pumper provides the proportioning function through their
FIMM (Foam Injecting Metering Module) when concentrate is pumped into it.
4. The accompanying Satellite apparatus provides large capacity nozzles, both 500 and 1,000
gpm aerating foam nozzles.
5. The 500 gpm model may be placed directly onto the discharge threads of any 2 ½”
appliance, including a tower ladder.
6. The 1,000 gpm Angus Cannon can be used on the Satellite monitor or can be fitted with a
special adapter for attachment to any Tower Ladder waterway.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

7. D

6.4.1 Satellite Units
A. The units of the Satellite system provide three key components of the Foam
Delivery System:
1. The 2,000-gallon per minute pumpers provide the proportioning function
through their FIMM when concentrate is pumped into it.
2. The accompanying Satellite apparatus provides large capacity nozzles;
both 500 GPM and 1,000 GPM aerating foam nozzles. The 500 GPM
model may be placed directly onto the discharge threads of any
2½ appliance, including a Tower Ladder.
3. The 1,000-gallon per minute Angus Cannon can be used on the Satellite
monitor or can be fitted with a special adapter for attachment to any
Tower Ladder waterway. The Satellites carry the adapter and the
wrenches necessary to fit the 1000 GPM Angus Foam Cannon to
Tower Ladders.
B. The Satellites carry a 7,500 CFM High Expansion Foam Generator.
C. They also carry approximately thirty-two 5-gallon cans of Hi-Ex
concentrate.

28

8) Units are operating at the scene of an aircraft emergency at LaGuardia Airport. Port
Authority Crash Trucks are on scene and have knocked down the fire prior to FDNY arrival.
Which point below is incorrect when operating at incidents such as this? (AUC 325
6.1.1, Foam 3.6.2)
A) Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is a primary function of the FDNY at airport
emergencies.
B) Port Authority Crash Trucks are mandated by the FAA to use AFFF, due to its fast
knockdown capability on jet fuels.
C) FDNY units may be tasked with overhauling the scene which could involve entering a
foam blanket that is floating on jet fuel.
D) Prior to and throughout the entry to this area, AFFF should be applied to provide maximum
security to our members.

8. D

29

9) Which type of foam is the superior fire extinguishing concentrate for hydrocarbon fuels
(gasoline, fuel, oils, etc) as well as polar solvents (alcohols, ketones, etc)?
A) Fluoropolydol (Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein Foam)
B) Fluoroprotein
C) Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
D) Alcohol Resistant Aqueous Film Forming Foam

9. A

30

10) Fluoropolydol should be used at a _____% rate for hydrocarbons and a _____% rate for
polar solvents.
A) 4, 8
B) 8, 4
C) 3, 6
D) 6, 3

10. C

31

PART III – SAFETY BULLETINS #56 & 57:
Safety Bulletins 56
1) It is your first day as new Lieutenant and you are sitting in your office when the
housewatch firefighter calls you to the watch to speak to a civilian. The civilian tells you that his
parked car was struck and witnesses told him that it was an FDNY vehicle that struck it. You
would be correct to notify the civilian to contact who? (3.2 Note)
A) The Safety Battalion
B) NYPD
C) 311
D) The NYC Comptroller’s office

1. D

32

2) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement made by a Captain during a recent
conversation with a new Lieutenant:
“All motor vehicles assigned to the FDNY shall be considered apparatus. In addition, for
accident reporting purposes, member’s private vehicles, when authorized for use on
Department business, are also considered apparatus.” (4.1)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

2. A

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3) Which one of the following instances would be considered an accident and not an incident?
(4.3,4.4)
A) A member suffers a serious injury after falling from the rig while repacking the hosebed.
B) Damage to a civilian vehicle from a tower ladder outrigger at an All-Hands Fire.
C) A member is thrown from a spare open cab tower ladder while responding to a gas leak.
The member suffers only a minor injury and no medical leave is needed.
D) After returning from picking up the meal, members notice graffiti drawn on the rear of the
apparatus.

3. C

4.3 INCIDENT
A vehicle related occurrence that results in damage to a Department vehicle when the
vehicle is properly parked, or damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the
vehicle. Minor injuries, serious injuries or fatal injuries to members while operating on
a parked apparatus shall also be defined as an incident.
Note 1. An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian
vehicle or property should be treated as an incident.
Note 2. Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus
operating at alarms, (e.g., a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked
car) inspection activities, MUD, should be treated as an incident; CD19
and CD19A should be prepared.
4.4 MINOR ACCIDENT
An apparatus accident that results in either minor to moderate damage to the Department
vehicle or to a civilian vehicle or property. An accident that results in no injuries, or
minor injuries to civilians and/or to members.

4.5 MAJOR ACCIDENT
An apparatus accident that results in either significant damage to the Department or
civilian vehicle, or to private property. Any accident that results in serious injury or
death to a civilian or member.
4.6 PROPERLY PARKED APPARATUS
4.6.1 Apparatus parked in apparatus quarters shall be considered properly parked.
4.6.2 Apparatus that is parked at a distance from, or not parallel to the curb, or is
double or even triple-parked at fires, emergencies, or false alarms shall be
considered properly parked, unless an investigating Chief Officer feels the
member in charge of the apparatus could have selected an available alternate site
in a less exposed position.
A. This same guideline applies to unorthodox parking at Multi-Unit Drills.
4.6.3 While on routine duties, apparatus shall be considered properly parked if parked
in compliance with Safety Bulletin No. 3, "Parking of Fire Apparatus on AFID."


34

4) Engine 500 was just involved in an accident while responding to telephone alarm. The
officer of Engine 500 must realize that his primary initial obligation is what? (6.2.1)
A) Treat life threatening injuries
B) Request additional units if needed
C) Determine if the accident is major or minor
D) Prevent the accident from increasing in magnitude

4. D

35

5) The officer of a ladder company involved in a major accident with a tractor trailer, while
awaiting the arrival of the Battalion Chief, feels that the vehicles involved must be moved to
prevent further accidents. She would be correct to take all but which one of the following
actions? (6.5.2)
A) Mark the location of all tires on both vehicles with a “T” shaped marking, indicating the
outside edge of the tire and the center line of the axle of each wheel. If double wheeled, mark
only the outside tires.
B) Mark the four corners of the tractor trailer
C) Use lumber crayon, chalk or any other means at hand to make the marks.
D) Renew the marks as necessary until the arrival of the assigned Battalion Chief

5. D

C. Marks shall be made with lumber crayon, chalk, or any other means at
hand. Marks shall be made to withstand traffic wear after vehicles are
removed, or shall be renewed as necessary, until the arrival of the Safety
Battalion or the Photo Unit, unless such renewal would present a hazard
to the members.

36

6) Engine 333 was just involved in a minor accident with a civilian vehicle on the BQE at
0300hrs. The civilian vehicle has a flat tire and is unable to be moved. While awaiting the
Battalion Chief and tow truck, the officer instructs her members to place flares to warn oncoming
traffic. The posted speed limit is 50 mph, but vehicles are passing the accident at speeds of up to
60 mph. Based on this information, the member placing the flairs should place the furthest flare a
minimum of how many feet from the rear of the accident scene? (Training Bulletin
Fires 8 (8.1E))
A) 420 feet
B) 360 feet
C) 310 feet
D) 250 feet

6. A

37

7) Ladder 501 is having trouble with the air brake system on their apparatus and they have
been instructed to drive the rig to the shops for repairs. The officer has the LCC and the OV
drive the apparatus to the shops. While enroute, they are involved in a minor accident. Engine 99
and Battalion 70, respond to the accident, where there are no injuries and a police report is
completed. In this instance, who is responsible to prepare the Apparatus Accident Report (CD-
19)? (8.1)
A) The officer of Engine 99
B) The officer of Ladder 501
C) The Battalion Chief in Battalion 70
D) The OV firefighter from Ladder 501

7. B

38

8) The CD-19 report shall be forwarded through the chain of command by the officer or
operator within how many hours of the apparatus accident/incident? (26.1)
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96

8. D

39

9) The following statements were made at a recent Division Safety Conference. Which
statement should be corrected by the Deputy Chief? (12.1, 25.1, 11.1.13)
A) If two or more apparatus collide, the occurrence is considered to be two (or more)
accidents, and each unit involved is required to prepare an Apparatus accident Report.
B) A properly parked apparatus is not required to forward a CD-19 if struck by another
vehicle.
C) Upon return to quarters, the preparer of the CD-19 will contact the Fire Department
Operations Center (FDOC) with the particulars of the incident.
D) A copy of the PD Report must be obtained from the responding precinct and included with
the CD-19. The Police Report can be obtained at the responding precinct either in person or via
fax.

9. B

12.1 If two (or more) apparatus collide, the occurrence is considered to be two (or more)
accidents, and an Apparatus Accident Report is required from each unit. A properly
parked apparatus is always required to forward an Apparatus Accident Report whenever
struck by another vehicle or another apparatus.

40

10) The New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) must be completed and
sent to the NYS DMV with _____ days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-
Accident Claims Unit within _____ days of an accident resulting in death, personal injury,
damage over $1000 to the property of anyone person, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated.
(24.1)
A) 7, 4
B) 7, 7
C) 10, 4
D) 10, 7

10. C

24.1 The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104 revised 5/02)
must be completed and sent NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a
copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Accident Claims Unit within 96 hours of an
accident resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1,000 to the property of any
one person, or if a dollar amount can not be estimated. This is the express responsibility
of the vehicle operator involved in the accident.
NOTE: MV-104 forms can be completed and printed on the FDNY Intranet or copies
can be ordered from the FDNY Stationary Supply Unit.

41

Safety Bulletin 57
11) During a recent roll call, Captain Kiner discussed various safety points with the members
of his ladder company. In which point was the Captain incorrect?
A) No unit shall operate alone in a vacant building.
B) A tower ladder should be positioned and made ready for immediate use at vacant building
fires.
C) At all fires obviously involving electrical equipment, members shall use breathing
apparatus until the member feels the area is completely free of toxic smoke.
D) Under heavy fire conditions, the stability of all fire buildings should be suspect, particularly
buildings that formerly were supported on either side by walls of adjoining buildings.

11. C

42

12) The Captain continued with safety discussion but again made one incorrect statement.
Which choice was in need of correction?
A) Whenever a tower ladder basket comes to rest close to a parapet or roof, prior to retracting
the boom, the basket must be raised.
B) Each firefighter and officer responding or riding on or in a Department apparatus or vehicle
should make use of all restraining devices provided to insure safe transport.
C) Military smoke grenades have been found at FDNY operations. While they are considered
non-toxic when used outdoors, exposure to heavy concentrations of smoke generated in closed
spaces are extremely dangerous.
D) Only under extreme circumstances, such as a known life hazard, may a tower ladder
operate with outriggers and jacks down on only one side.

12. D

2. All outriggers and jacks must be extended and lowered before raising the boom of a tower
ladder. Tower ladders are not designed to operate with outriggers and Jacks down on one side
only.

43

PART IV – DUNN CHAPTERS #12, 13 & 14:
Chapter 12
1) Ceilings are non load bearing structural elements that support only their own weight. Their
collapse does not cause the collapse of other structural parts. However, ceilings can drop over
firefighters and trap them inside burning buildings. According to Dunn, what type of ceiling
collapse most often kills firefighters? (Dunn Chapter 12)
A) The wood grid system
B) The metal grid system
C) The lightweight metal grid system with a removable panel ceiling

1. A

44

2) What is the most important 1st step to rescue firefighters trapped under a collapsed ceiling
during a store fire? (Dunn Chapter 12)
A) Place a ladder to the area of the collapse
B) Remove the collapsed sections of the ceiling
C) Sweep the collapse area above the ceiling with a hose line and knock down the flames
D) Breach a hole in the floor from below to gain entry to the area of the collapse

2. C

45

3) Which one of the following statements is incorrect when discussing the safety of
firefighters at fires involving ceiling collapse? (Dunn Chapter 12)
A) Suspended ceilings are most often found in stores, renovated buildings and on the top
floors of multiple dwellings.
B) Before committing firefighters to a serious fire in a large area occupancy, an officer should
know the type of ceiling in the structure.
C) At a ceiling collapse in a store, if members are trapped at the rear of a store under a
suspended ceiling rescue attempts should be made from an adjoining store and may also be
possible from the cellar of the involved occupancy.
D) After entering a room, check for fire in the space above the suspended ceiling. Make an
inspection opening in the ceiling with a pike pole.

3. D

46

4) Which type of stair is the preferred stair in modern building construction, and will not fail
if the floor collapses? (Dunn Chapter 13)
A) U-Return Stairs
B) “Stacked” Straight Run Stairs
C) Continuous Straight Run Stairs
D) L-Shaped Stairs

4. A

47

5) How many of the following statements are correct when discussing the dangers of stairway
collapse? (Dunn Chapter 13)
1. Flames coming from within a wooden stair or burning on wooden steps may indicate
serious hidden structural fire damage to the stair.
2. Stone treads on steel framed stairs may be cracked or shattered by heat and collapse.
3. The stairway is the safest area in the wooden interior of the building and logically the best
avenue for the initial fire attack.
4. Straight run stairs and L-Shaped stairs are built through floor openings in the center of a
structure. They are dependent on the stability of the floor for support and will collapse if
the floor collapses.
5. Stair railings may collapse when excessive pressure is applied from the side by firefighters
bunching up on the stairway, who are pushing on the stair railing for support.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

5. D

48

6) While U-return stairs will not collapse due to floor failure, they still can collapse during a
fire. The steel frame of risers, stringboards and railings rarely collapse. The most serious danger
of collapse in these stairs is the collapse of the intermediate landing. Which fact below is
incorrectly stated when dealing with U-return stair collapse?
A) The most frequent cause of collapse is the failure of a stone stair tread or step.
B) When climbing a steel framed U-return stair with stone treads, a firefighter should not
allow the stone tread to support his weight.
C) Firefighters should avoid stepping on the intermediate landings if possible. Hold onto the
banister from the lower section of stairs and swing around to the upper section of stairs.
D) The impact of a member’s weight on the intermediate landing is greater when the member
is climbing up the stairs rather than coming down the stairs.

6. D

49

Chapter 14
7) You are drilling with your members on operations dealing with fire escapes. One of the
junior members asks you about exterior screened fire escapes found on some buildings
throughout the city. You would be incorrect to make which one of the following points about
these fire escapes? (Dunn Chapter 14)
A) They are the safest type of fire escape.
B) They extend from the roof of the building to the street by way of a permanent, stationary
metal stair.
C) It is like an interior stair, it is wide enough for 2 people to descend side by side and they
have handrails.
D) When a rusted metal fire escape step fails, a firefighter can fall the rest of the way down the
flight of steps or fall through the stairs to the stairway below.

7. B

50

8) Another type of fire escape encountered by firefighters is the party balcony fire escape.
Which one of the following is incorrect about these types of fire escapes? (Dunn
Chapter 14)
A) They have no stairway or ladder connecting them to the other balconies.
B) The hazard of the party balcony is collapse from overloading or failure of the supports.
C) The safest method to remove people from a party balcony is with FD portable or aerial
ladders.
D) The real protection provided by a party balcony is the unpierced fire division between the
two adjoining occupancies.

8. C

51

9) The standard fire escape ladder is the most common type of fire escape found on residential
buildings. It is a series of metal balconies interconnected by narrow metal ladders and the top
balcony may have a gooseneck ladder leading to the roof. Which choice below should not be
followed when dealing with standard fire escapes? (Dunn Chapter 14)
A) Be aware of step collapse, as this is the most frequent cause of injury to members using
standard fire escapes.
B) A member lowering a drop ladder should stand to the street side of the fire escape, so if the
drop ladder fails, he can move quickly out of the way.
C) A safer alternative to using a drop ladder is the use of an FD portable ladder.
D) When descending a weakened standard fire escape ladder, members should face the ladder
and hold onto the guard rail, so if a step fails, they will fall into the ladder.

9. B

52

10) Counterbalance stairways still may be found on buildings all throughout the city. These
escapes are supported on a pivot. The counterbalance stair is activated by moving a bar located
beneath the stairway. The end of the stairway can then be lowered to the street by a pike pole or
by the weight of the person walking on it. Do you agree or disagree with the following
statement?
“When encountering people awaiting rescue on a counterbalanced stair, it would be a safer
operation for everyone involved if the occupants are removed by an FDNY ground ladder
instead of the staircase.”
A) Agree or D) Disagree

10. A

53

PART V – FFP ENGINE OPS CH. #8 & 9:
1) Your engine company has just arrived 1st at a fire in a vacant 4 story old law tenement. The
1st ladder arrived before you and states there is no life hazard inside the fire building. Exposure
2, a jewelry store, which is closed at the time of the fire, is being seriously exposed to the fire.
Exposure 4, an occupied bodega has no exposure problem at this time. As the 1st due engine
officer, you would be most correct to take which one of the following actions? (8.2)
A) Stretch the 1st hoseline into the fire building.
B) Operate the 1st hoseline into the fire building from the exterior
C) Stretch the 1st hoseline to protect Exposure 2
D) Stretch the 1st hoseline to protect Exposure 4

1. D

8.2 GUIDELINES FOR HOSELINE PLACEMENT
8.2.1 First Hoseline
The first line is placed between the fire and any persons endangered by it. This is
accomplished by stretching the hoseline via the primary means of egress, usually
the main stairway. This tactic:
• Provides a base for confining and controlling the fire.
• Allows occupants to evacuate via the stairs.
• Allows members to proceed above the fire for search.

54

2) Who is responsible to announce via handie-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to
commence? (8.2.1 Note)
A) The Engine company officer
B) The Ladder company officer
C) The Incident Commander
D) The nozzle firefighter

2. A

55

3) Lieutenant Backman and his engine company are drilling on basic engine company
operations. The Lieutenant asks his junior firefighter to make a few statements regarding hose
stretches. In which choice should he correct his firefighter? (8.2.2, 8.3, 8.7, 8.13.2)
A) The 2nd hoseline, unless otherwise ordered, is placed to backup the 1st hoseline.
B) The first two engine companies should team up to place the 1st line into operation.
C) An exception to this will be when the fire building is one or two stories and the amount of
hose required is 5 lengths or less. In this case the 2nd engine officer, after contacting the 1st
engine officer and ensuring their assistance is not needed, may order a second line stretched.
D) Never enter the fire area with an uncharged hoseline.

3. C

56

4) The drill topic now turns to well-hole stretches and again the Lieutenant must correct one
of the statements made. Which one is incorrect? (8.14.1, 8.14.3A)
A) The rule of thumb is that a 5 story stretch up a well-hole requires about one length of hose.
B) When a wide well-hole is being used, the nozzle firefighter drops his/her folds at the base
of the stairway, and proceeds up the stairway pulling the hose up through the stairway.
C) If conditions are on the fire floor are favorable, the hose may be pulled up and flaked on the
fire floor.
D) If fire has extended into the public hallway, the hose must be pulled up and flaked out on
the floor below.

4. B

57

5) The drill ends with the members discussing a utility rope stretch. This is particularly useful
at fires in buildings with stairs that wrap around an elevator. The members of this company
would be correct to state that if fire is found below the _____ floor, the utility rope stretch should
not be used and the line should be stretched up the stairs.
A) 3rd
B) 4th
C) 5th
D) The utility rope stretch may be used for a fire on any floor.

5. A

58

6) What color siamese connection will be found on a Non-Automatic sprinkler or a sprinkler
with a perforated pipe? (9.3.2)
A) Red
B) Green
C) Aluminum
D) Yellow

6. C

59

7) Standpipe systems should always be supplied by 3 ½” hose. Do you agree or disagree with
the following statement?
(9.3.3)
A) Agree or D) Disagree

7. A

60

8) Which statement about standpipe operations is incorrect? (9.3.4, 9.3.6, 9.3.7, 9.3.8)
A) Whenever possible, standpipe systems should be supplied by at least 2 different pumpers.
B) If a pressure reducing device (PRD) is found on a standpipe outlet, it should be removed. If
the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, than it is
permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.
C) As a general rule, there should be a separate engine company supplying the standpipe
system for each hoseline placed in service.
D) If a building is supplied with both standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first
supply line must be attached to the sprinkler system.
E) If the 1st engine is supplying, both the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the 2nd and 3rd due
engines must stretch additional lines to augment both systems.

8. D

61

9) High pressure pumping is defined as operating at a discharge pressure over how many psi?
(1.3)
A) 200
B) 250
C) 300
D) 600

9. B

62

10) Which engine companies are capable of providing pressures over 250 psi? (1.4)
1. Conventional engines
2. 3rd Stage pumpers
3. High pressure pumpers
A) 1,2 and 3
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only

10. A

63

11) Your engine company, a high pressure pumper, is going to supply the standpipe system for
a fire on the 44th floor of a 60 story high rise multiple dwelling. You should instruct your
chauffeur to supply ______ psi to the standpipe system. ( 2.1)
A) 250
B) 300
C) 350
D) 400

11. C

64

12) Engine 20, a high pressure pumper, is preparing to supply the standpipe system for a fire on
the 50th floor of a residential building. At this operation, all of the following actions should take
place except for which one? (3.1)
A) The high-pressure supply hose, fittings (painted white and noticeably heavier than
conventional fittings) and tether strap must be used.
B) Whenever possible, an engine supplying high-pressure should be positioned within 1 hose
length of the fire department connection being supplied.
C) No more than 2 connected lengths of high pressure hose should be stretched to the fire
department connection.
D) Maintain safety zones of at least 50 feet around a working engine in all directions including
the high-pressure supply hose.
E) The ECC must be assisted by another ECC form a non-operating pumper. One ECC shall
operate the pump and the one ECC shall assist in keeping persons out of the safety zone.

12. E

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13) Operations are continuing from the previous question. The officer of Engine 20 should be
proud to know that all but which one of the following choices happened at this fire.
(3.1, 3.2,3.3)
A) Tether straps were secured to both the engine and fire department connection.
B) The preset on the operating pumper was used to ensure proper pressures were reached
safely.
C) All high pressure and 3rd stage engines, other than the 1st due, took positions at hydrants in
proximity to the standpipe Siamese connection.
D) Since there was only one Siamese connection on this building, the second supply line was
stretched to the 1st floor outlet.

13. B

 Preset pressures on apparatus equipped with pressure governors, should not be used when
charging a standpipe system. Once the supply line is charged, pressures are to be
increased slowly to avoid damage to the building piping.

66

14) 3rd stage engines are the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge
pressures over how many psi?
A) 450
B) 500
C) 550
D) 600

14. B

4.1 Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage engine. When 3rd stage pumping is
implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd Stage Engine is assigned to the incident.
ECCs intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC. Only
an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.
4.2 As compared to two-stage engines, three-stage engines (with the third stage engaged) can
pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump rpm’s.
This increased efficiency makes the 3rd Stage Engines the preferred choice for pumping
operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi. (Figure 7)

Decks in Firetech Class (61):