WEEK #9 WEEK OF 3/24/14 PART I – AUC 207 & ADD’S 1 - 6 PART II – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM PART III – TB – FOAM Pgs #22 - 30 PART IV – GUIDE TO COMPANY JOURNAL ENTRIES PART V – ERP - RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS PART VI – FFP –UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS INSTRUCTOR: CAPT MIKE BARVELS Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #9 WEEK OF 3/24/14 PART I – AUC 207 & ADD’S 1 - 6 PART II – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM PART III – TB – FOAM Pgs #22 - 30 PART IV – GUIDE TO COMPANY JOURNAL ENTRIES PART V – ERP - RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS PART VI – FFP –UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS INSTRUCTOR: CAPT MIKE BARVELS > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #9 WEEK OF 3/24/14 PART I – AUC 207 & ADD’S 1 - 6 PART II – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM PART III – TB – FOAM Pgs #22 - 30 PART IV – GUIDE TO COMPANY JOURNAL ENTRIES PART V – ERP - RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS PART VI – FFP –UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS INSTRUCTOR: CAPT MIKE BARVELS Deck (55):
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PART I – AUC 207 & ADD’S 1 - 6:
1) Upon arrival at an operation involving an electrified track, the first consideration will be to
determine whether the power is to remain on or turned off. When power removal is required it
shall be accomplished at all times via the apparatus radio through our own dispatcher. Which
choice below contains incorrect information regarding power removal operations in the subway
system? (AUC 207 3.2, 3.2.2, 3.2.3, 3.2.6)
A) Auxiliary contact with the Desk Superintendent can be established through any Transit
Authority police officer or any other employee equipped with a Transit Authority radio.
B) Auxiliary contact with the Desk Superintendent can be established by telephones located at
Railroad Clerk's booths and at areas designated by a blue light.
C) Subway cars can receive power from the third rail via a contact rail shoe(s). When members
are required to operate under a subway car, these members shall position wooden slippers to
further insure that no power can be transmitted.
D) All orders, directions, inquiries and progress reports must be made via the Fire Department
Dispatcher.

1. C

3.2.6 Subway cars can receive power from the third rail via a contact rail shoe(s).
When members are required to operate under a subway car, request that Transit
personnel protect the contact rail shoes of the affected cars with wooden slippers
to further insure that no power can be transmitted.

2

2) There are a number of firefighting strategies that can be employed when operating in an
underground subway system. During multi-unit drill, members of a busy Engine Company were
discussing these strategies. Of the following statements, which is the only one that contains
correct information? (AUC 207 3.4, 3.5, 3.7, 3.8)
A) When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an
Officer and the inside team and only from platforms or catwalks. Tracks shall not be entered or
crossed.
B) If the direction of smoke travel can be established, a member shall be sent to the next
emergency exit or station in an attempt to isolate the source of the fire. Information will be
relayed to the Officer in Command via handie-talkie or apparatus radio.
C) Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area. However,
evacuating passengers will always be given priority use of this means. When ordered to use an
emergency exit, the officer should check his TA emergency exit booklet and make sure that
he/she is on the correct line and track before members are committed to the track area.
D) Many operations will require more than one Engine Company due to long stretches. All
efforts will be concentrated on stretching the initial line to a tentative operating position before
back up lines are ordered.

2. C

3.4 When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an
Officer and a firefighter operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks. Tracks
shall not be entered or crossed.

3.5 If the direction of smoke travel can be established, a unit shall be sent to the next
emergency exit or station in an attempt to isolate the source of the fire. Information will
be relayed to the Officer in Command via Handi-Talkie or apparatus radio.

3.8 Many operations will require more than one engine company due to long stretches. All
efforts will be concentrated on stretching and placing in operation the initial line before
back up lines are ordered.

3

3) Communications throughout the NYC subway system can vary depending on a number of
factors. Communications in a straight line are from fair to poor and some subway stations have
multiple levels underground, which will require additional handie-talkies. The objective is to
keep radios within range of each other to be able to communicate to grade level. As members
who are part of a communications relay must maintain their position throughout the operation
until relieved by the Incident Commander, you would be correct to know which member of this
relay was not in compliance with Department procedures at a recent operation.
(AUC 207 4.1)
A) The Truck Chauffeur who was at the bottom of the subway entrance stairs, attempting to
contact the train dispatcher through the clerk since the token booth was within 50 yards of the
stairs to the street.
B) The Outside Vent FF who was at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform since it was
within 50 yards of the Chauffeur.
C) The Roof FF, who was approximately 50 feet from the Outside Vent FF.
D) The Engine Officer, located approximately 100 yards, line of sight, from the Roof FF on
the platform.

3. C

4

4) Communication conditions in a subway may be such that all members are not needed in the
relay to transmit messages to grade level. When drilling on this situation, an experienced Captain
assigned to Ladder 91 would be correct in which one of his remarks? (AUC 207 4.1)
A) Only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used, beginning with the
Truck Chauffeur.
B) Any member after the Truck Chauffeur that is not needed in the relay, as determined by the
first arriving Chief Officer, shall proceed to the location of the incident with the Truck Officer.
C) The Officer of the unit will be identified by the unit number and the word “Relay” (e.g.
Ladder 91 Relay).
D) Other members in the relay will be identified by their unit number and riding assignment
only (e.g. Ladder 91 OV)

4. B

5

5) Most fires in a subway station are of a minor nature and usually controlled by a fire
extinguisher (e.g. rubbish fire in trash receptacle, papers on railroad ties or overheated ballast at
station lights.) However, there are occasions when the fire will be under the platform and in this
situation members will not be permitted in the track area unless certain conditions are met. All of
the following must be accomplished prior to track entry except in which choice?
(AUC 207 5.3)
A) Power is removed.
B) Confirmation of power removal by FDNY Dispatcher or Desk Superintendent
C) Members are posted at each end of platform to act as safety people.
D) An alternate area of refuge is assured in case of train movement.

5. B

6

6) There are times when evacuation of a subway train, track or system may be necessary. In
other instances, members can reduce panic by following appropriate Department procedures.
Which action below is the only correct procedure regarding unit operations in subways?
(AUC 207 5.6)
A) Upon reaching the train, make contact with the train operator or conductor and see if the
intercom system works.
B) If it does, have FDNY members make an announcement that the Fire Department is on the
scene and that the situation will shortly be under control.
C) If the intercom system does not work, have transit personnel walk on either benchwalls or
alongside the train as far as the last car, notifying people of FDNY presence. This is critical to
controlling panic and subsequent self-evacuation.
D) One of the best ways to reduce panic is to provide increased lighting. There should be a
high degree of lighting along the right of way, in addition to adequate light at the train
debarkation point and close to the exit.

6. A

5.6 EVACUATION
Upon reaching the train, make contact with the train operator or conductor and see if the
intercom system works. If it does, have that person make an announcement that the Fire
Department is on the scene and that the situation will shortly be under control. If the
intercom system does not work, several members walking either on benchwalls or
alongside the train can go as far as the last car, notifying people of our presence. This is
critical to controlling panic and subsequent self-evacuation. One of the best ways to
reduce panic is to provide increased lighting. There should be adequate light along the
right of way, in addition to a high degree of lighting at the train debarkation point and
close to the exit.

7

7) When a petroleum fuel spill in the street is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway
station, we must try to stop the flow of product into these entrances by diking. An experienced
officer would be correct to know that the preferred order of diking is found in which choice?
(AUC 207 5.8 L)
A) Charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill; sand/earth; planking.
B) Sand/earth; planking; charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill.
C) Planking; charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill; sand/earth.
D) Planking; sand/earth; charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill.
8)

7. B

acronym SPiL

8

8) All members should be familiar with power removal procedures as well as operations in the
vicinity of a blue light in underground subway areas. A review of current procedures led to a
discussion regarding power removal and only one member made a correct statement. Indicate the
correct statement. (AUC 207 8.1)
A) Near the blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone and map of the subway line.
B) The power removal box is operated by a red button located inside the box.
C) If we find people on the tracks and are forced to remove power, it is imperative that the
telephone near the blue light be used to inform the Desk Superintendent that power is to be
removed and the reason why (e.g. Fire Department on scene and people are on the tracks and in
danger of electrocution).
D) To operate the telephone at these locations, remove the handset from inside the box and
depress the button on the handset, keeping it depressed at all times when talking. Release the
button to receive a reply.

8. C

9

9) At a recent drill on subway operations, members of Engine 311 were discussing
communication procedures utilizing the blue light telephone when civilians are found on the
track and emergency power removal is required. All members were correct in their statements
except one. Indicate the incorrect statement. (AUC 207 8.1, 8.1.1 B)
A) Communication shall be made in order to insure that the power is not restored. If the Desk
Superintendent does not receive an immediate call from the person who operated the power
removal box, power will immediately be restored on all tracks.
B) To contact the Desk Superintendent, first dial the four-digit Subway Control Center number
listed on the inside of the door cover.
C) If unable to make contact with the Control Center using the primary number, release the
handset button terminating the call, then depress the button on the handset and proceed to dial
one of the two alternate numbers.
D) If the token booth telephone is on a different exchange than the blue light telephone, you
have to replace the three-digit exchange with the three-digit access code before dialing the sevendigit
number.

9. D

B. If the token booth telephone is on a different exchange than the blue light
telephone, you have to replace the three-digit exchange with the two-digit
access code before dialing the four-digit number. These access codes are
usually listed inside the blue light telephone box.
To Call Exchange Dial Access Code
714 21
243 22
927 26
694 27
544 62
430 63
334 65
424 67
Example: 424-2145 becomes 67-2145

10

10) There may be cases when emergency power removal is needed during FDNY operations
throughout the NYC transit system. Which choice below contains incorrect information
regarding this procedure? (AUC 207 8.1)
A) The Power Removal Box may not necessarily be located under the blue light, but it will be
in proximity to it or across the tracks from it.
B) The correct way to cross a third rail is to walk over it and not step on the third rail cover as
it may fail from a person's weight if stepped on.
C) Whenever NYC Transit personnel determine that a Power Removal Box or Telephone is
out of service, they will be covered with a bag to identify them as being out of service. This bag
will be red, with white lettering, and it will state “Out Of Service.”
D) If a member encounters an out of service Power Removal Box, the member should use the
associated Telephone to contact the Rail Control Center (RCC) to request the removal of power.
The member must identify him/herself, state the reason that the power must be removed and
remain on the phone until they receive confirmation that power has been removed.

10. C

Whenever NYC Transit personnel determine that a Power Removal Box or the Telephone
is out of service, they will be covered with a bag to identify them as being out of service.
This bag will be white, with red lettering, and it will state “Out Of Service.

11

11) The MTA New York City Transit agency has provided certain, useful information at all
subway stations within their system. In addition to a station map, a list of all of the following will
be included in a see-through protective folder, readily available at the full time token booth of
every station, with the exception of which choice? (AUC 207 Add 3 2.1)
A) List of all trains that travel through the station.
B) List of all emergency exits which service the station.
C) List of all stairways within the station.
D) List of all token booths within the station.

11. A

REST MAP

Rooms
Exits
Stairs
Token booths

Station map

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FIRE TECH PROMOTION COURSE 3/24/14 OFFICER'S PREP COURSE
SPRING 2014 – Class #9 ©Copyright 2014 Fire Tech Promotion Courses, Inc.
All Rights Reserved
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12) The Department has issued unlimited use Metrocards to each FDNY unit. Each Metrocard
has an expiration date and is identified with a unique number assigned by MTA NYC Transit.
The MTA NYC Transit agency will monitor the usage of all FDNY Metrocards and issue a
monthly report to the Department indicating when and where each card was used to access the
transit system. A Lieutenant studying for Captain would know which choice below contains
incorrect information? (AUC 207 Add 3 3.1-3.6.4)
A) Metrocards are assigned to a specific unit and will be issued in a plastic case to limit
damage to the card. Company Commanders shall ensure that these cards are not bent or
otherwise damaged so as to ensure that the card will work when needed.
B) If an apparatus is taken out of service and a spare is issued, the officer on duty shall ensure
that the Metrocard is removed from the assigned apparatus and secured on the spare apparatus.
When the spare apparatus is returned, the officer on duty shall ensure that the Metrocard is
removed from the spare apparatus and secured on the assigned apparatus.
C) When a new apparatus is placed into service, the Company Commander shall ensure that
the assigned Metrocard is placed on the new apparatus.
D) These cards are to be used for access to the subway system only during fires, emergencies
and routine inspections.

12. D

3.1 The Department has issued an unlimited use FDNY Metrocard to each unit. These cards
are to be used for access to the subway system only during fires and emergencies;
they are not for personal use.

13

13) The Department, in conjunction with the MTA NYC Transit, will make arrangements to
exchange Metrocards prior to the expiration date. A newly promoted Captain was incorrect when
he shared which piece of information with the senior chauffeur? (AUC 207 Add 3
3.6.1-3.6.4)
A) After each roll call the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating
that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus.
B) Members may use the assigned Metrocard for access to the Subway system only when the
token booth is unattended.
C) When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately
notify the PTSU, Bureau of Operation, by phone or fax, to ensure that the Metrocard is
deactivated.
D) When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall file a police
report and complete a Loss Property Report ensuring that the MTA NYC Transit identification
number is included on all reports. Reports are forwarded to the PTSU, Bureau of Operations,
requesting a replacement Metrocard be issued.

13. B

3.6.2 When access to the subway system is needed and the subway station is either
unattended or the token booth clerk is unable to assist the unit in a timely fashion,
members shall use the assigned Metrocard for access to the system.

14

15) In the past, many FDNY units have obtained standard New York City Transit Authority
(NYCTA) padlock keys which allowed members to enter inaccessible areas of NYCTA
facilities. Currently, however, the Transit Authority is replacing these padlocks with locks that
require a special key which cannot be duplicated. Four members discussing subway operations
determined which point below to contain incorrect information regarding safe access during
subway emergencies? (AUC 207 Add 6)
A) For control purposes, each key has a serial number and is assigned to a specific transit
worker.
B) FDNY units will not be issued these keys.
C) If necessary to gain access to a secure area, a key may be obtained from the token booth or
any TA worker.
D) Standard FDNY forcible entry methods shall be utilized when necessary.

15. C

2. FDNY units will not be issued these keys. If it is necessary to gain access to a secure area,
a key may be obtained from the clerk at the token booth.

15

PART II – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES - STEAM:
1) A knowledgeable Captain would be familiar with FDNY procedures at Steam
Emergencies. Which choice below contains correct information regarding the use of steam in
NYC? (EP Steam 1.2-2.3)
A) High pressure steam, generated for use in housing complexes, hospitals and various
commercial locations, can be found in the borough of Manhattan only.
B) Con Edison is the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
C) Steam, at any temperature, is visible as a white mist.
D) High Pressure steam is used in buildings for a number of purposes e.g., to provide heat and
hot water, to heat food, run air conditioners.

1. D

16

2) Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as ______ psi with temperatures
reaching ______ degrees F. (EP Steam 2.2)
A) 170 psi; 350 degrees F
B) 900 psi; 2,000 degrees F
C) 350 psi; 170 degrees F
D) 2,000 psi; 900 degrees F

2. D

17

3) Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as
_____ psi and temperatures as high as ______ degrees F. (EP Steam 2.2)
A) 170 psi; 350 degrees F
B) 2,000 psi; 900 degrees F
C) 350 psi; 170 degrees F
D) 900 psi; 2,000 degrees F

3. A

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4) When heavy rain or a leaking water main results in water contacting a steam pipe, it can
cool the steam inside the pipe, causing the steam to condense into water. Normally, this water is
drained off by a series of traps. However, if not drained off, a water slug will form which can be
pushed through the piping by the steam at speeds as high as ______ mph. (EP Steam 3.1)
A) 150 mph
B) 200 mph
C) 300 mph
D) 350 mph

4. B

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5) A High Energy Line Break (HELB) in a Steam Generating Plant can result in a dangerous
situation for firefighters. Members discussing such operations at drill were incorrect in only one
statement. Indicate the incorrect statement. (EP Steam 4.1)
A) Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con Ed personnel. Instead, respond to
the designated mustering site outside the plant.
B) FDNY personnel will mitigate the emergency and members should only enter the plant to
perform standard search and rescue activities.
C) When entering the plant, stay close to the provided escort and be guided by their advice.
D) Contact the Con Edison White Hat who can provide critical information, an escort if FD
entry is necessary, and a personnel accountability report to see if anyone is missing.

5. B

 Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. FDNY should only enter the plant to
perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel.

20

6) A knowledgeable officer would be correct to consider all of the following during a High
Energy Line Break (HELB) in the Street except in which choice? (EP Steam 4.2)
A) Underground steam pipes are most commonly wrapped in asbestos insulation and a HELB
will likely result in an asbestos release that spreads over a large area.
B) Asbestos has been removed from Con Edison steam manholes and most of the underground
piping.
C) The pressure released in a HELB is high enough to cause an intact street to collapse or
explode outward as the high pressure steam escapes from the ruptured pipe.
D) Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 mph and anyone in the vicinity of the
break is in danger of being struck by flying, high velocity debris.

6. B

21

7) Steam frequently seen rising from the ground and from steam manholes is usually not the
result of a HELB. More often, it is the result of water from a heavy rain or a leaking sewer or
water main, contacting the steam pipe and turning to steam. Con Edison may place vent stacks
over minor steam leaks, to direct the steam up over the roadway. What type of marking on a vent
pipe indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main?
(EP Steam 4.3)
A) A green stripe on the bottom of the vent pipe.
B) A white stripe on the bottom of the vent pipe.
C) A blue stripe on the top of the vent pipe.
D) A white stripe on the top of the vent pipe.

7. B

22

8) A steam leak in a building can range from a leaking radiator to a life threatening high
pressure steam riser rupture. At Multi-Unit-Drill, members were discussing actions taken at a
recent High Energy Line Break (HELB) in an office building. Members of which unit were
correct in their actions? (EP Steam 4.4)
A) Ladder 50 randomly shut steam valves inside of the building due to the large number of
occupants on upper floors.
B) Because of an emergency, members of Ladder 51 shut the Inside Service Valve which was
labeled and sealed.
C) Once it was determined that the steam valve shut did not mitigate the hazard, members of
Ladder 52 re-opened the valve.
D) Members of Ladder 53 closed the steam shutoff valve which was located outside of the
building, due to an emergency condition.

8. B

23

PART III – TB – FOAM Pgs #22 - 30:
1) All foam concentrates have a shelf life and each manufacture has its own
recommendation. You would be most correct to know that AFFF has a shelf life of
approximately? (TB Foam 9.2)
A) 20 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 5 years

1. A

9.2 All foam concentrates have a shelf life. Each manufacture has its own
recommendation. The foam industry has a general rule that for a protein based
foam, which includes our Fluoroprotein and Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein, the
shelf life is approximately 10 years. With synthetic based foam, which includes
our AFFF and Hi-Ex foams, the shelf life will increase to approximately 20 years.

24

2) A newly promoted Captain was correct in only one statement he made to probationary
firefighters during a drill on the proper storage of foam. Indicate the correct statement.
(TB Foam 9.1, 9.3-9.5)
A) Foam concentrate should be stacked no more than three cans high.
B) When foam concentrate is delivered to a depot, the officer on duty shall inspect the cans
to see if a date has been stamped on the container. If there is no date stamped on the can, return
the foam to Tech Services.
C) The Company Commander of units that are assigned foam depots will insure the proper
rotation of foam concentrates so the oldest supplies will be utilized first.
D) When a can of foam reaches its shelf life, the foam should be discarded.

2. C

9.1 Foam concentrate should be stacked no more than two cans high.

9.3 When foam concentrate is delivered to a depot, the officer on duty shall inspect
the cans to see if a date has been stamped on the container. If there is no date
stamped on the can, a date should be affixed with an indelible marker.
9.4 The Company Commander of units that are assigned foam depots will insure the
proper rotation of foam concentrates so the oldest supplies will be utilized first.
9.5 When a can of protein based foam reaches 10 years, or an AFFF or Hi-Ex foam
can reaches 20 years, the foam should be used for drill purposes.

25

3) Immediately after the conclusion of a foam operation, all components of the system shall
prepare an inventory of concentrate remaining in storage. This inventory shall specify the type
and amount of concentrate used, the amount of concentrate remaining in storage and the type and
amount of concentrate requested for replenishment. As soon as it is completed, this inventory
report shall be faxed to? (TB Foam 10.3)
A) The next higher level of command
B) Tech Services
C) The Incident Commander
D) The first responding Foam Coordinator

3. D

26

4) All foam depots will maintain an inventory of fifty 5-gallon cans of each of the following
types of foam except in which choice? (TB Foam 10.7, 10.8)
A) Fluoroprotein
B) Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein
C) AFFF
D) Hi-Ex Foam

4. C

10.7 All foam depots will maintain an inventory of fifty 5-gallon cans each of Fluoroprotein,
Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein and Hi-Ex Foam. When a depot needs to restock its
supply, they shall send the 23-BS-2 to the Technical Services Division.
10.8 Field units requiring additional cans of Fluoroprotein, Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein
and Hi-Ex Foam shall obtain them from the nearest foam depot. If AFFF foam
concentrate is needed, units shall requisition it from the Technical Services Division.

27

5) Maintenance of FDNY equipment is an important part of a firefighter’s job. Of the
choices below, which one contains incorrect information regarding inspecting and maintaining
foam apparatus, eductors and nozzles? (TB Foam 11.1, 11.3)
A) When cleaning an eductor, water should be educted through it for at least 15 minutes.
B) All eductors of engine companies will be tested at weekly MUD.
C) All engine companies that house Foam Carriers will conduct semi-annual drills with their
carrier.
D) During testing, the ECC is to supply 200 PSI to the eductor.

5. C

B. All engine companies that house Foam Carriers will conduct monthly drills with
their carrier on the first MUD of the month. The tank to pump valve as well as all
of the gates should be operated. All eductors carried on the Foam Carrier will be
tested at this time also. At the conclusion of the test a thorough cleaning of the
foam equipment will have to be performed.

28

6) Four members of a Brooklyn Engine Company were discussing Hi-Ex foam operations.
All members were correct in their remarks except one. Indicate the incorrect statement.
(TB Foam 12.1, 12.2, 12.7A)
A) Under certain conditions Hi-Ex foam has been found effective Liquid Natural Gas Fires.
B) Under certain conditions Hi-Ex foam has been found effective in suppressing and
minimizing the release of toxic and flammable vapors of LPG.
C) Expansion of Hi-Ex foam is dependent upon the type of concentrate and generator used.
An expansion ratio of 200/1 to 1000/1 is necessary to be classified as Hi-Ex foam.
D) Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex foam.

6. B

12.1 Hi-Ex Foam is primarily used to control fires that are inaccessible or difficult to approach
due to excessive heat. It is particularly suited for use on indoor Class A fires in confined
spaces. Hi-Ex Foam can confine and suppress the fire to a point where final
extinguishment can be effected with less debilitating affect on members. Under certain
conditions Hi-Ex foam has been found effective on:
A. Liquid Natural Gas Fires
B. Suppression or minimizing the release of toxic or flammable vapors with the
exception of LPG.

29

7) At a recent, stubborn fire in a taxpayer, units resorted to the use of Hi-Ex foam to
suppress the blaze. After the fire was placed “under control” the Incident Commander questioned
her officers on the Hi-Ex foam operations. Which statement made was incorrect? (TB
Foam 12.7 D, 12.8)
A) Only the eductor supplied with the Hi-Ex generator should be used. This eductor should
have a 1" yellow band painted around the throat.
B) The metering valve, if present, may be adjusted from 1% to 6%. The dial can be set at
any point to give a more diverse selection of foam consistency.
C) Only a relatively small amount of pressure is required in Hi-Ex foam operations (60 psi).
D) Maintain between 200 PSI and 220 PSI at inlet of foam eductor in order to deliver
sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator.

7. C

12.8 Although a relatively small flow of water is required in Hi-Ex foam operations (60
GPM), high pump pressure is necessary to overcome the pressure loss at the eductor.
Maintain between 200 PSI and 220 PSI at inlet of foam eductor in order to deliver
sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator.

30

PART IV – GUIDE TO COMPANY JOURNAL ENTRIES:
1) In the Company Journal, which page(s) shall be ruled and indexed to record chief's visits
in accordance with Regulations? (CJ 3.1, 3.2)
A) Pages 500 running backward to 498
B) Pages 497 running backwards to 495
C) Pages 498 running forward to 500
D) Pages 495 running forward to 497

1. A

31

2) Where the journal supplied does not have a flagging column, unit commanders shall take
which action to provide for such a column? (CJ 3.4)
A) Cause a red line to be drawn 1/8" to the left of the existing red line.
B) Cause a black or blue line to be drawn 3/8" to the left of the existing red line.
C) Cause a red line to be drawn 3/8" to the right of the existing red line.
D) Cause a red line to be drawn 3/8" to the left of the existing red line.

2. D

32

3) Members studying for Lieutenant should know a current accurate company roster is
located where in the Company Journal? (CJ 3.5)
A) Inside the front cover of the Journal
B) Inside the rear cover of the Journal
C) On the first full page of the Journal
D) On the last full page of the Journal

3. A

33

4) Which of the following is not a proper flagging column entry? (CJ 5)
A) ACC for an apparatus accident
B) DSP for discipline or charges
C) PR for Property lost, missing, found, delivered, received, or invoiced
D) SV for a surveillance inspection

4. D

34

5) Which choice is the appropriate flagging column entry for a member who sustains an
injury? (CJ 5)
A) Inj
B) Injr
C) LV
D) Ij

5. A

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PART V – ERP - Radiological Operations:
1) What type of radiation consists of particles that can penetrate skin up to ¼ inch (including
eyes)? (ERP Add 4 Table 1)
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) Neutron

1. B

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2) Which scenario below is correctly defined as a Radiological Incident? (ERP
Add 4 2.2, 2.3)
A) Members notify their officer of meter readings above background from a legitimate source
in a Medical facility which has not been released from its container.
B) A legitimate source of radiation has been released from its protective container at a
Research Facility.
C) A unit receives readings from a package in transport above the Transportation Index.
D) Above background radiological meter readings are found at multiple locations throughout
the borough of Manhattan.

2.2 Radiological Incident
A Radiological Incident encompasses a situation where radiological meter readings are
above background from a legitimate source and the source has not been released from its
container. The source may also be a naturally emitting source. Readings must be
confirmed by a second meter to establish the situation as a Radiological Incident.

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3) What is considered the “greatest danger” from a Radiological Incendiary Device (RID)?
(ERP Add 4 2.3.2 C)
A) The acute radiation effects
B) The level of radiation
C) The ensuing panic
D) The expanding fire

3. D

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4) According to the FDNY’s Protective Action Guidelines (PAGs), what is the “Decision
Dose” for Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations? (ERP Add 4 3.1.4 A)
A) 5 Rem
B) 10 Rem
C) 25 Rem
D) 50 Rem

4. C

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5) Because radiation fallout from an Improvised Nuclear Device (IND) does not occur for
some time after the detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the
detonation for how long, post detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and
monitored. (ERP Add 4 3.1.4 C)
A) At least 5 minutes
B) At least 15 minutes
C) At least 30 minutes
D) At least 60 minutes

5. B

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6) The FDNY uses 1 mR/hr as an action level during a Radiological Emergency. The Hotline,
defining the Hot Zone and marked with red “hazardous materials” barrier tape, should be
established at a rate of? (ERP Add 4 4.4.2 B 4)
A) 1 mR/hr
B) 1 R/hr
C) 2 mR/hr
D) 2 R/hr

6. C

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7) Firefighters can reduce unnecessary exposure to radiation by utilizing the proper PPE and
using objects to shield or block the radiation while operating in the Hot Zone. There are
minimum precautions that must be taken prior to initiating operations. Of the following, which
precaution is incorrect? (ERP Add 4 4.4.3 C)
A) Members shall don proper PPE, including bunker gear (with hood and helmet) and SCBA.
B) An APR and adapter must be carried by each member in case their SCBA tank gets
depleted.
C) Members shall carry at least one radiation detector per team.
D) Members shall carry at least one dosimeter detector per team.

7. D

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8) Decontamination is the process of removing, destroying or covering a contaminant to an
acceptable level that facilitates normal operations. For radiological materials, decontamination is
considered successful if levels of radiation on a person or equipment do not exceed twice
background levels. For NYC, the average background rate ranges from? (ERP Add 4 6.2)
A) 0.01 to 0.02 mR/hr
B) 0.02 to 0.05 mR/hr
C) 0.05 to 0.09 mR/hr
D) 1.00 to 1.09 mR/hr

8. B

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9) Priority for decontamination during a Radiological Emergency will depend on the extent of
contamination, the location of the contamination (i.e. contamination near the mouth implies
ingestion of radioactive material,) and the nature of a person’s injuries. According to the
FDNY’s Emergency Response Procedures, the most correct order for decontamination can be
found in which choice below? (ERP Add 4 6.2.2)
1. Patients that are most severely contaminated but are not symptomatic.
2. Patients with life-threatening injuries (i.e. injuries that affect ABCs).
3. Contaminated children, pregnant women, senior citizens
A) 3, 2, 1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 2
D) 2, 1, 3

9. D

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PART VI – FFP –UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS:
1) Members of a Queens Ladder Company were discussing the construction features of Under
River Tubes. All members were correct in their remarks except one. Indicate the incorrect
statement. (URR 2.2.1)
A) Tubes are cylindrical in shape and are constructed of brick, concrete or tubular cast iron.
B) Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete. Tube walls are between 1 and 1 ½ feet thick.
C) Most tubes were bored into solid bedrock but a few tubes run through composites of clay,
sand, and silt.
D) Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is only large enough to contain 1 track.

1. B

Tube walls
are between 2 and 2½ feet thick.

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2) Ladder 190 is the first arriving Truck at a major train derailment in an under river tube. The
officer in charge decides to evacuate the ambulatory victims before beginning the difficult, laborintensive
work of removing non-ambulatory victims. This officer was most correct to evacuate
ambulatory members via which method? (URR Figure 1, 4.6, 7.2)
A) Have the victims walk between the running rails, towards an exit located near a fan
operating in the supply mode.
B) Have the victims walk outside the rails, on the side where the 3rd rail is located, towards an
exit near a fan operating in the exhaust mode.
C) Have the victims walk outside the rails, on the side opposite the 3rd rail, towards an exit
near a fan operating in the supply mode.
D) Have the victims walk outside the rails, on the side opposite the 3rd rail, towards an exit
near a fan operating in the exhaust mode.

2. C

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3) Every officer should ensure his/her members are familiarized with under river rail
emergency exits. At a recent drill, members of Engine 360 made a number of comments
regarding these exits but one was incorrect. Indicate the incorrect comment. (URR
2.5.2, Fig 4D)
A) Some emergency exit stairways are narrow and steep, while others are wider, with a pitch
that is comfortable to walk on.
B) Stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The concrete stairs are often steeper.
C) The depth and pitch of stairways corresponds to the depths of the under river tubes, which
range from 24 to 130 feet deep.
D) The Billy Bar is a tool that aids in the opening of some emergency exit doors more quickly
and easily, although it’s not essential to open these doors.

3. B

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4) Engine companies may face many challenges when operating at fires in under river tubes.
Members discussing such operations were correct in all statements except in which choice?
(URR 2.7.1)
A) All under river standpipes in the NYC transit system are wet.
B) Standpipes are city-main fed. There are no pumps to augment pressure.
C) Siameses are usually located at the emergency exits closest to the river. In all cases, check
the sign attached to the siamese to ensure that the correct system is supplied.
D) 2½ inch outlets are located every 600 feet throughout under river tubes.

4. D

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5) FDNY members would be correct to know that in under river tubes, section valves are
located approximately how far apart? (URR 2.7.1)
A) 200 feet
B) 400 feet
C) 600 feet
D) 800 feet

5. C

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6) Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) can be used as a ladder from the benchwall or a
train to track level, or as a bridge between adjacent subway cars. Where may EEDs be located in
under river tubes? (URR 2.7.2)
A) At both ends of each under river tube at the base of the emergency exits.
B) At both ends of each under river tube at the top of the emergency exits.
C) In the area of the full-time token booth.
D) Typically within 50 feet north of the north bound platform.

6. A

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7) Battalion Chief Smith was discussing communication problems during under river rail
operations. BC Smith was correct when he notified members that at present there are?
(URR 2.9.2)
A) A limited number of repeater antennas at most emergency exits, but no repeater coverage
inside most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on channel 14 shall be used.
B) No repeater antennas at most emergency exits, and no repeater coverage inside most
emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on the tactical channel shall be used.
C) No repeater antennas at most emergency exits, but there will be repeater coverage inside
most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on the tactical channel shall be used.
D) A limited number of repeater antennas at most emergency exits, as well as full repeater
coverage inside most emergency exit stairways. A HT relay on channel 14 shall be used.

7. B

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8) At times, it may be necessary to utilize Post Radios to enhance communications at under
river rail operations. Due to the possibility of electrical interference, officers should know not to
use Post Radios in the immediate vicinity of? (URR 2.9.6)
1. Signals
2. Communications equipment
3. Train operator cabs
4. Blue light telephones
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3

8. D

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9) Responding officers should know where to report in to during certain emergencies in under
river tubes. In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located where? (URR 4.4)
A) At the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.
B) At the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.
C) At the tunnel to tube transition area, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.
D) At the tunnel to tube transition area, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.

9. A

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10) Your unit is conducting a search for victims at an under river rail train derailment. Among
the victims triaged are a number of non-ambulatory red and yellow-tagged victims, red and
yellow-tagged victims requiring disentanglement and four victims that are black-tagged. In
which order should these victims be removed? (URR 7.1)
1. Black tagged
2. Red-tagged victims requiring disentanglement
3. Yellow-tagged victims requiring disentanglement
4. Red-tagged non-ambulatory victims
5. Yellow-tagged non-ambulatory victims
A) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
C) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

10. C

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11) Removal of non-ambulatory victims from an incident in an under river tube will be laborintensive
and will require increased personnel and logistical support. Of the following choices,
which is the primary method for moving non-ambulatory patients and equipment?
(URR 7.3)
A) SKED Stretchers
B) Rescue Trains
C) Rail Carts
D) Victim Removal Relay Teams

11. C

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12) Some of the many potential hazards found during under river rail operations include the
existence of third rails in the affected and adjacent tubes. In addition, be cognizant of power lines
that are not deactivated by routine requests for power removal. These lines are correctly
described in which choice below? (URR 9.1)
A) 660 volt lines that may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level.
B) 1,000 volt lines that may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level.
C) 800 volt lines that may run throughout the tubes at track level.
D) 1,200 volt lines that may run throughout the tubes at track level.

12. B

Decks in Firetech Class (61):