WEEK OF FEBRUARY 6 th , 2012 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #8 PART III – AUC 287, 331, 345, 346 & 348 PART IV – STEAM EMERGENCIES INSTRUCTOR: BC Gene DiTaranto Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK OF FEBRUARY 6 th , 2012 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #8 PART III – AUC 287, 331, 345, 346 & 348 PART IV – STEAM EMERGENCIES INSTRUCTOR: BC Gene DiTaranto > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK OF FEBRUARY 6 th , 2012 PART I – FFP – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS (Sec. 1 – 5) PART II – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CH. #8 PART III – AUC 287, 331, 345, 346 & 348 PART IV – STEAM EMERGENCIES INSTRUCTOR: BC Gene DiTaranto Deck (55):
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2) To ensure all members comply with the provisions of AUC 329/Managing Members in Distress. When giving assignments, the Officer on duty shall ensure members are reminded of their designations as safety team members. These members must be aware that this designation is based on their unit’s order of arrival at the box and will change as additional units arrive. While operating members shall pay particular attention to the following provisions: From the list below please choose the incorrect provision? (MD sec, 1.1.4) A) When a fire progresses past the incipient stage, the fire area must be considered an IDLH atmosphere. Every member entering the IDLH must be equipped with personal protective equipment and a self-contained breathing apparatus. B) No member shall enter an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams-up with at least one other member and remains within voice or visual contact with that member. C) If a suspected life hazard is found and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by the individual member. D) If rescue activity is conducted by a member, the Incident Commander must be immediately notified and appropriate adjustments made

2-C

1

1) Every Fire Officer needs to study Multiple Dwelling definitions as well as certain terminology that would apply to MDs. From the list below please choose the incorrect definition? (Multiple Dwellings, definitions) A) A building housing three or more families in which residency is permanent in nature is considered a Class A Multiple Dwelling. B) A multiple dwelling which is occupied transiently is considered a Class B Multiple Dwelling. C) A partition under the 1938 Building Code provided for the purpose of protecting life by furnishing an area of exit, or refuge, and having a fire resistive rating of at least three hours is considered a fire partition. D) A wall provided under the 1938 Building Code primarily for the purpose of resisting the passage of fire from one structure to another or from one area of a structure to another, and having a fire resistive rating of at least four hours is considered a fire wall

1-D


Fire wall A fire-rated, smoke tight wall having protected openings designed to
restrict the spread of fire from one structure to another, or from one area of
a structure to another. It extends continuously from the foundation to, or
through, the roof with sufficient structural stability to withstand the
collapse of construction on either side of it. Fire Wall ratings for 1968 BC
are rated at 4 hours; 2008 BC are rated at 2 or 3 hours depending on
occupancy.

2

3) Old Law Tenements built before 4/12/01 had the following characteristics: Please choose the incorrect characteristic? (MD, sec 2.1) A) Three to seven stories in height. B) 20' or 25' wide and 50' to 85' deep. C) Class 3, non-fireproof construction (brick walls, wood floor beams and wood floors) D) Entrance to the basement is by a side or rear door at that level via an exterior stair from the first floor, or through a passageway located in the front of the building

3-D

3

5) Other Class "A" NFP multiple dwellings built after 4/18/29 included the following features: Please choose the correct feature(s) for these types of Multiple Dwellings? (MD, sec 2.2.3) A) After 4/18/29 the Class "A" apartment type of multiple dwelling were no longer called "Tenements" and became known as "Apartment Houses." B) Between 1930 and 1940 firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards and after 1940 to the top of the roof boards. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread. C) The size of the area to be enclosed by fire walls is 2,500 square feet or less. This is larger than the area of an OLT and it should be realized that there are several of these areas under one roof of later built multiple dwellings. D) The limitation of height, six stories or 75 feet, for NFP residence buildings, is bypassed for buildings that are built on grades. It is not unusual to find a NFP seven, eight, or nine story building with no standpipe

5. A B D

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4) Newer types of NLT's erected between 1916 and 1929 included the following features: Please choose the correct feature(s) for NLT's erected between 1916 and 1929? (MD, sec 2.2.2) A) They had a much larger floor area, i.e. 150' x 200'. B) To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were broken up into units of 3,000 square feet or less. C) Dividing walls in these types of NLTs only go as high as the ceiling of the top floor. This results in a very large undivided cockloft area. Fire can, and often does, spread throughout this large cockloft area. D) Unprotected steel beams are used to support some of the wood floor joists. These steel beams are supported by vertical steel columns which run the height of the building. E) Wooden floor joists (beams) run horizontally from brick wall to a steel girder or from a steel girder to a steel girder

4-A, C, D, E

2.3 NEW LAW TENEMENTS BUILT BETWEEN 1916 AND 1929 (Figure 5)

They had a much larger floor area, e.g. 150' x 200'.

To avoid being required to be built of fi
reproof construction, the floor areas were
broken up into areas of 2,500 square feet or
less. This means that between some
apartments there are brick or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the
horizontal spread of fire. However, these
dividing walls only go as high as the ceiling
of the top floor. This results in a very
large undivided cockloft area. Fire can, and
often does, spread throughout this large cockloft area.

Unprotected steel beams are used to suppor
t some of the wood floor joists. These
steel beams are supported by vertical steel
columns which run the height of the
building.

Wooden floor joists (beams) run horizontally fr
om brick wall to a steel girder or from
a steel girder to a steel girder.

There are dumbwaiter shafts located in the
apartments. In most cases, 2 apartments
share 1 dumbwaiter. They terminate on the roof in a bulkhead with a skylight on top.

5

6) Every good Fire Tech student should know the following general Engine Company operations at Multiple Dwelling fires? Please choose the correct operation(s)? A) (MD, sec 3.2) In most cases, the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire. B) The purpose of the first line is to protect the primary means of egress for occupants evacuating the building and to confine and extinguish the fire. C) An exception to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when smoke is issuing from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire escape. In this case, the first line may be operated from the street to protect people on the fire escape. D) If the entrance door to the building is self-closing and equipped with a locking device the first member entering the building should use a chock, rug or other means of preventing the door from locking and thereby delaying other members trying to enter the building

6. A, B, D

6

7) The first line stretched for a fire in a multiple dwelling should be stretched by way of the interior stairs. The primary purpose of this line is to safeguard the stairway so that it can be used by the escaping occupants. The door to the fire apartment must not be opened while people are coming down the stairway from the floors above. When the safety of the stairway is assured, this first line may be advanced to extinguish the fire. From the list below please choose the incorrect placement for additional lines on the first alarm at MD fires? (MD, sec 3.2.12) A) The second hose-line is also usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the same floor as the first line. It is meant to augment the first line, if necessary. If not needed on the original fire floor it is then advanced to the floor above. B) The third line in the building should usually be stretched via the fire escape. This is especially true in Old Law Tenements because the stairway is narrow and the stretching of a third line via the interior stairs would result in congestion and inability to move any of the hoselines. C) In some cases, the second or third lines may be urgently needed in one of the exposures. The decision as to the location to which these lines shall be stretched rests with Chief Officers only and is based on their size-up of the fire situation. D) At a fire in an Old Law Tenement it is often necessary to stretch the second line or the third line into Exposure 2 or 4 because fire has extended or is about to extend across the narrow shaft or shafts between buildings

7. C

 In some cases, the second or third lines may be urgently needed in one of the
exposures. The decision as to the location to which these lines shall be
stretched rests with the Incident Commander, and is based on his/her size-up
of the fire situation.

7

8) In order to provide a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water, all arriving engine and squad companies (assigned as an engine) at Multiple Dwelling fires shall locate and connect to a positive water source (hydrant, drafting, etc.). The failure to select and test a hydrant can cause a delay in stretching additional lines especially if it becomes necessary to back up the engine in order to locate a hydrant. If the engine gets blocked in by other responding units, the delay becomes even greater. Engine company officers and chauffeurs must be prepared to immediately adjust operations and seek alternate sources of supply such as using gated inlets and in-line pumping if the original hydrant proves inadequate. From the list below please choose the correct engine company operation(s) at MD fires? (MD, sec 3.2.6, 3.2.7, 3.2.8, 3.2.10) A) If two or more apartments are involved in fire with lines being used in each apartment, companies should be aware of the possibility of fire getting behind them through the ceiling space if the line in the adjacent apartment is not advancing as rapidly as theirs. B) Do not clutter up the interior stairs. After three lines have been stretched up a stairway, additional lines should be stretched via fire escapes or windows, making use of ropes to pull up hose-lines. C) Hose-lines can be operated into ventilation holes from the roof if needed, however IC approval is needed. D) A roof line should be used only to prevent fire from extending past the trench, to protect exposures, or to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below, such as fire in a cornice

8. A, D

3.2.9 Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof as this
decreases ventilation and nullifies the action of lines operating on the top floor.
A roof line should be used only to prevent fire from extending past the trench, to
protect exposures, or to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below, such
as fire in a cornice.

3.2.7 If two or more apartments are involved in fire, with lines being used in each
apartment, companies should be aware of the possibility of fire getting behind
them through the ceiling space if the line in the adjacent apartment is not
advancing as rapidly as theirs.

8

9) When a serious fire occurs on the top floor or in the cockloft of a Multiple Dwelling, it may be necessary to cut openings in the roof to ventilate and stop the horizontal spread of the fire. Cutting holes in the roof must be done only when necessary. However, when the decision has been made to cut the roof, a sufficiently large hole should be made directly over the fire, using portable saws. If possible, the long side of the opening should be at right angles to the roof beams in order to provide venting of as many bays as possible. From the list below please choose the incorrect action to follow at MD fires? (MD, sec 3.3.7, 3.3.8, 3.3.9) A) Venting the windows on the top floor, in conjunction with the hole in the roof, will usually result in an in-draft of fresh air into the top floor which will be carried out along with heat and smoke through the roof opening and permit advance of hose-lines, search, rescue and opening up operations. B) When fire is on top floor or in the cockloft, sufficient firefighters with hooks must be sent to the top floor to pull ceilings, especially for the larger non-fireproof multiple dwellings. C) Windows should be opened 2/3's from the top and 1/3 from the bottom to allow heat and smoke to vent and cool air to enter the room. D) It is the responsibility of the first Chief Officer to arrive to determine the location of the fire, whether it is extending and to where it is extending

9-D

9

10) The Incident Commander must keep in mind that fire in Non-Fireproof Multiple Dwellings can extend very quickly to the floors above and to the exposures. The I.C. must transmit special calls and/or greater alarms promptly when conditions warrant such actions. Please choose from the list below the correct special calls or greater alarms? (MD, sec 3.4.4) A) For a fire in an Old Law or New Law Tenement, special call an extra engine and truck for fire on two floors. If progress is not made on at least one floor in a short period of time, transmit a 2nd alarm. B)If fire is in a shaft extending into an exposure, transmit a 2nd alarm. C) If fire is extending into two exposures, transmit a 3rd alarm. D.All of the above

10-D

10

11) The first firefighter inside the fire building must make known to their officer and other members the manner in which the floors and apartments are designated, i.e., whether numerically or alphabetically. Apartment 2E could be on the second floor or on the fifth floor. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the above paragraph? (MD, sec 3.5.5) A) Agree or D) Disagree

11-B

11

12) Gas meters in Multiple Dwellings are usually in the cellar but they may also be found in apartments and in public hallways. If gas meters are burning or leaking please choose the correct action(s) to take from the list below? (MD, sec 3.5.9) A) If gas meters are burning they should be allowed to continue to burn until the gas supply is shut off. B) If fire at the meter is extinguished before the gas supply is shut off, gas will continue to discharge and an explosion or flash fire may occur when the gas comes in contact with a source of ignition. C) Combustible material near the burning meter should be wet down after the gas supply is shut off. D) If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and the area ventilated as much as possible. Fog lines may be used for venting. E) A leak or break in the piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags, paper, etc., into the break

12-A, B, D, E

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14) You are working a 9x6 in Engine 100 when you respond to a cellar fire in an Old Law Tenement. You would know as a sharp Fire Tech student that one of the actions listed below for cellar fires in Old Law Tenements is incorrect? A) (MD, sec 4.2.1) The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor. B) The first line should remain at the cellar entrance door to provide protection for people coming down the stairway, and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar via partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other voids. C) The first line should not be advanced down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless of course, the fire is major. D) The second hose-line stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the front or rear entrance to the cellar

14-C

fire is MINOR

13

16) Fires in stairways in Old Law Tenements present a serious situation since the stairway is the primary means of egress for the occupants. If the fire extended into the stairway from an apartment, it is possible that the fire escape exit may also be cut off by flame from the apartment windows. From the choices below please choose the correct tactic(s) when dealing with stairway fires in OLT's? (MD, sec 4.2.4) A) The first hose-line should be stretched up the stairway, operated to extinguish fire, shut down and advanced further up the stairway. B) When possible, the 2nd line should be operated up the well-hole to cool off the hall and stairs above. This procedure should be repeated until the 2nd line is advanced to the fire floor. C) A second line should follow to finish up extinguishing operations and to serve as protection for members advancing the first line. Apartments must be checked for possible extension of fire in them. D) Ventilation at the roof over the stairway is extremely important so that hose-line can advance up the stairway

16-A, C, D

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15) Store fires in Old Law Tenements may involve a large amount of combustible material. Please choose the correct choice(s) below for store fires in OLT's? (MD, sec 4.2.2) A) A charged hose-line must be ready before the store is ventilated. It is especially important that no plate glass windows be broken without a charged line being ready. B) C) Stores in OLT's may have a door which opens into the public hallway on the first floor. The first floor public hallway should be examined immediately to determine whether the means of egress for the occupants of the building is in danger from the store fire. If so, a hoseline should be positioned to protect the interior stairs. D) Store owners may use the rear of the store as their living quarters, so it is important to search the rear of stores as soon as possible. E) A 1 3/4" line should be stretched for large volume fires and a second line stretched to the entrance hallway. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor it may be advanced to the floor above the fire

15-A, B, C, D,

15

17) Windows opening on shafts in Old Law Tenements may provide means for fire to extend into a building or into two buildings. This is true especially in warm weather when windows may be open. Prompt examination must be made to determine if fire has extended into buildings, and windows must be closed to prevent fire or flying brands from entering. In some shafts there are doors at cellar level leading into cellars of both buildings. From the choices below please choose the incorrect tactic(s) for Air and Light and Dumbwaiter Shaft Fires? (MD, sec 4.2.6) A) A hose-line should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be directed onto fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building. B) A second hose-line may be necessary if it appears that fire might have extended into the upper floors of the original fire building. C) In some cases the base of the shaft may be the roof of a store or ceiling of a cellar and the fire may burn down into the store or cellar. D) For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, before the fire in the room has been controlled, the line should be operated up the shaft to extinguish fire and cool the shaft

17-B

4.7.3 A second hoseline may be necessary if it appears that fire might have extended
into the adjoining building.

16

17) Windows opening on shafts in Old Law Tenements may provide means for fire to extend into a building or into two buildings. This is true especially in warm weather when windows may be open. Prompt examination must be made to determine if fire has extended into buildings, and windows must be closed to prevent fire or flying brands from entering. In some shafts there are doors at cellar level leading into cellars of both buildings. From the choices below please choose the incorrect tactic(s) for Air and Light and Dumbwaiter Shaft Fires? (MD, sec 4.2.6) A) A hose-line should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be directed onto fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building. B) A second hose-line may be necessary if it appears that fire might have extended into the upper floors of the original fire building. C) In some cases the base of the shaft may be the roof of a store or ceiling of a cellar and the fire may burn down into the store or cellar. D) For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, before the fire in the room has been controlled, the line should be operated up the shaft to extinguish fire and cool the shaft

17-B

4.7.3 A second hoseline may be necessary if it appears that fire might have extended
into the adjoining building.

4.7.6 For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, after the fire in the room has been
knocked down, the line should be operated into the shaft in order to knock down
the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final
extinguishment.

17

19) It is no longer permitted to convert OLT's to Single Room Occupancies but thousands of such buildings have been converted and are still being used as Single Room Occupancies (SRO's). (MD, sec 4.3.5) A) In these SRO's the individual rooms in each apartment are rented to occupants and the bathroom and kitchen facilities are used by all of the occupants of the apartment. B) Each individual room is equipped with a lock; many with padlocks on the outside. Just because a door is found padlocked, do not assume that the room is empty. Someone may be locked in the room. Entry must be made and all rooms searched. C) The layout of the rooms must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person's room. D) These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the street. The system cannot be supplied by the Fire Department. E) These SRO's also require an interior alarm system to warn the occupants of fire. Exit lights and signs must be provided. From the list above please choose the correct choices

19-ALL

18

20) Party Wall Balcony Fire Escapes in OLT's do not have ladders connecting fire escape balconies. Instead they are arranged so that the fire escape balconies connect two or more buildings. In the event of fire, the occupants would use the fire escape balcony to escape to an adjoining building. The roof firefighter must inform his/her officer and the Incident Commander of the presence of party wall balconies in the rear of the building. The Incident Commander should consider calling an additional _______________ to aid in rescue and search via the rear party wall balcony. A line may have to be stretched to the rear to protect the occupants and firefighters on the balconies. Portable ladders may also have to be brought to the rear. Please choose the appropriate resource that the IC should call for from the list below? (MD, sec 4.3.8) A) Rescue Company B. Ladder Company C. Squad Company D. Additional Engine and Ladder

20. B

19

21) Some Class "A" non-fireproof multiple dwellings built after 1901 are referred to as Htypes. Steel in the H-type structure creates concerns for the fire service: (MD, sec 5.1.1 (C) A) Steel when heated expands, and substantial elongation can occur at a fire. This elongation can cause a wall to bulge, move, or even collapse if the steel is set within the wall. B) Steel when heated to higher temperatures during a fire may fail. Floor beams supported by such failing steel will fall to the floor below. C) Steel columns or girders, generally in an "I" beam shape, transmit fire and heat. The "I" beam or channel rail, as it is sometimes called, when in the form of a column located in the inner framework of a building may extend from the first floor up into the roof space or cockloft area. D) The space between the enclosing wood framework and "I" beam, when in the form of a vertical column, leads up into the cockloft and many times spreads to this roof space. Please choose the correct concern(s) from the choices above

21-A, B, C, D

20

22) The number and location of stairways do not adhere to a common pattern in H-Types. Some stairways will be found near the front entrance; others will be some distance away. In some instances there will be no access from one wing to another or from one part of the building to another. Generally, on the first floor there is access between wings. Stairway construction usually is of the return type, some with no wells, making hose-line stretches more difficult. Some stairways will have windows at the half landing facing the street, courtyard or front entrance courtyard. There are usually two to four independent stairs in "H" type buildings as follows: (MD, sec 5.1.1 (E) A) Transverse stairs: these stairs usually are located at points remote from each other, but a person can go (transverse) from one stairway to another via the public hall on all floors of the building. B) Wing stairs: these stairs, one or two, are located at the front and rear of each wing. They are a tremendous asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor. C) Isolated stairs: these stairs are usually identified by their individual entrances. Floor landings are recognized by their limited space and absence of a public hall. D) It is essential that once the stair layout is recognized, this information be relayed by handietalkie. This is vital in the size-up picture. Please choose the incorrect choice above

22. B

 Transverse stairs-these stairs are usually located at points remote from each
other, but a person can go (transverse) from one stairway to another via the
public hall on all floors of the building. Their layouts ease evacuation, assist
in examination and permit lines to be stretched to any apartment, via any
stairs. They are a tremendous asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor.
 Wing stairs-these stairs, one or two, are located at the front and rear of each
wing. The floor landing leads to the public hall that will join the other stairs
in that wing only (if two stairs). The public hall does not transverse to the
other wing of the "H".
 Isolated stairs-these stairs are usually identified by their individual entrances.
Floor landings are recognized by their limited space and absence of a public
hall. Access is limited to the apartments served by the stairs, and there is no
access to other wings and hoseline operations are confined to their limited
area.
 It is essential that once the stair layout is recognized, this information be relayed
by handie-talkie. This is vital in the size-up picture.

21

23) To provide stability to these large "H" shaped buildings, a steel framework is employed. Steel columns (Channel Rails) are erected vertically from the foundation to the cockloft. Their locations vary according to the architects design, and are at times difficult to find. They are often located in voids behind closets. Our main concern is that they are not fire stopped. This provides a chimney effect for fire travel from the first floor to all apartments above and to the cockloft. These vertical voids, about one foot square, may be larger when the void is built to include waste and water pipes. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (MD, sec 5.1.1 (F) When the fire is knocked down and opening up begins, areas where the lath has been burned must be examined for the presence of these columns (Channel Rails). If detected, locations below the fire must be checked immediately. A) Agree or D) Disagree

23-B

22

24) The manner in which the floors and apartments are designated numerically or alphabetically has no set rule in H-Types and can differ with each building. Some consider the floor one flight up as the first floor, and are numbered accordingly. In the Fire Department, the ground floor is considered the first floor. ICS terminology should correct problems identifying the fire floor and floors above in H-Types. Once the fire floor is identified, this shall be known as the _______________. Please choose the correct ICS terminology for the fire floor in the statement above? (MD, sec 5.1.1 (H) A) Fire Floor Sector B) Fire Sector

24-A

23

26) Top floor fires in H-Types always present the possibility of fire extending into the cockloft. This can result in a complete loss of the top floor and roof. Fire can also drop down to the lower floors. It is imperative for the IC to assign a roof sector supervisor early into the operation. The IC shall designate a Company Officer as the roof supervisor until a Chief Officer can be assigned. Once a sector supervisor is assigned all communications between the roof and the IC shall go though that roof sector supervisor. Please choose an incorrect tactic from the list below when dealing with these types of fires? (MD, sec 5.3.3) A) When it is necessary to cut holes in the roof, initially, approximately a 3' x 6' coffin cut is recommended. Two saws should be put into operation promptly to prevent lateral spread of fire in the cockloft. B) Ventilation of the top floor must also be accomplished via the windows. This may be done from the interior or from the fire escape, ladders or roof. C) At these cockloft fires it is very important to have the ceilings pulled to expose the fire. Sufficient firefighters with hooks must be assigned to pull these ceilings. D) At times it may be necessary to assign engine companies, however do not assign individual engine firefighters to pull ceilings. It is important to maintain Engine Company cohesion in case they are needed to stretch lines. A charged line must be in readiness to extinguish exposed fire

26-D

24

25. The officer who arrives first on the fire floor shall transmit the following information to the Incident Commander: Please choose the correct item(s) to transmit to the IC? A) Location of the fire apartment: (Wing, Floor, Apartment No). B. Number of apartments on the floor of the fire wing. C. Fire conditions: (Fire out in public hall, heavy smoke condition). (MD, sec 5.2.3) D. Access: Location of stairway in fire wing closest to fire apartment. Report if it is possible to go from one wing to another above the first floor, (Transverse, wing or isolated stairs). E) Fire extension: Whether fire is extending and how it is extending. Need and location for additional lines, (Fire floor or floor above adjacent apartment), give reasons. F) Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to fire apartment or in advancing line, give reasons. G) Occupants: If occupants have been located and are accounted for. This information may be obtained from one of the occupants or from a neighbor

25-ALL

25

27) H-Type buildings present unique firefighting concerns and several procedures have been established to ensure the correct number of units and supervision is provided based on the situation. From the list below please choose the incorrect procedure? A) (MD, sec 5.2.3) Because of the severe life hazard, height, area and combustible construction of H-Types, an additional engine company and ladder company (beyond a full 1st alarm assignment) should be called for a medium fire condition, that is, when it is anticipated that one line would be required. B) When additional units have been special called, they should be given instructions by radio regarding positions, masks, extra hooks, etc. C) If two floors are involved, or at extensive cockloft fires, it will generally be necessary to transmit a 2nd alarm. The time that it takes 2nd alarm units to arrive must be considered under these conditions. D) When transmitting 2nd or greater alarms for fires which have entered the cockloft of large "H" type buildings, the IC should consider special calling additional Battalion Chiefs to cover critical sectors and/or exposures. E) These additional Battalion Chiefs could be assigned as a top floor sector supervisor, roof sector supervisor, or as needed

27-A

26

1) Handie-Talkies and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress. (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.4.5) Please indicate if you: A) 2) Agree or D) Disagree with the above statement

1-A

27

2. You are assigned as the first due Engine for a capsized Sporting Boat in the East River. After all units assigned conducted a thorough search the Captain and one crew member are found on the pier and state the boat sank. The Captain and the one crew member have no injuries and escaped the boat before it sank close to the dock. Three Engines, two Trucks, Rescue, Squad, Marine, the Rescue Battalion and the Safety Battalion were assigned, which radio code should be transmitted for this incident? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) A. All Hands for a 10-31 B. 10-60 C. 10-75 must be transmitted for a fire or a significant emergency D. None of the Above

2-A

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The following statements represent the reasons to transmit a 10-40 with appropriate sub-code  Water Condition - any type of water leak or flooding condition  Electrical Emergency (Wires Down, Sparking Fixture, Short Circuit, etc.)  Gas Emergency (Gas main leak, Gas leak in structure, Defective gas appliance, etc.)  Steam Leak - any type of steam leak Please fill in the appropriate sub code for each 10-40 condition below? Chapter 8, section 8.5) A water condition is 10-40- _______. A Electrical Condition is a 10-40- _______. A Gas Emergency is a 10-40- _______. A Steam Leak is a 10-40

3-3, 2, 1, 4

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4) 10-70 is a notification that the first arriving engine does not have a positive water source. This shall be an "urgent" message to the dispatcher from the unit transmitting the signal. It will also require an "urgent" HT transmission to all units on the scene. Examples of situations that would require a 10-70 include: (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) 1. Dead or Frozen Hydrant 2. Unable to Access a Hydrant 3. Unable to Hookup to a Hydrant 4. Insufficient Hydrant Pressure
Please indicate if you agree or disagree that these are the only situations that would require a 1070 signal?
A) Agree or D) Disagree

4-D

Examples of situations that would require a 10-70 include:
1. Dead or Frozen Hydrant
2. Unable to Access a Hydrant
3. Unable to Hookup to a Hydrant
4. Insufficient Hydrant Pressure
5. No Water/Insufficient Pressure at Standpipe Outlet

30

5. After a 10-70 is transmitted the second arriving engine will be designated the “Water Resource Unit” and must be prepared to initiate water supply operations compatible with conditions encountered at the scene. Their primary objective is to assist the first arriving engine obtain a positive water source. Options include, in-line pumping, water relay, and checking standpipe systems for open valves, broken pipes, check valves, etc. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with the below statement? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) When signal 10-70 is transmitted the IC shall notify all units on the scene and the borough dispatcher when a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water has been supplied to the Engine at the correct operating pressure. A) Agree or D) Disagree

5-B

When signal 10-70 is transmitted the Dispatcher shall:
 Announce over the borough frequency that signal 10-70 has been transmitted for
that box.
 Notify the second arriving engine that they are designated the "Water
Resource Unit."
 Notify the IC of the identity of the designated Water Resource Unit.
When a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water has been supplied to the nozzle at the correct operating pressure, the IC shall notify all units on the scene and the borough dispatcher.

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6. You are assigned on an alarm for a car fire on the parkway near quarters, as your unit turns onto the parkway you see an overheated vehicle on your side of the parkway a 1/2 mile south of the reported location, you decide to stop and investigate, however you do not hit the 10-84, is this a correct procedure? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) A) Yes B) No

6-B

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7. 10-35 Codes 1-4 are used for unnecessary alarms such as: Please indicate, which sub code requires a NYFIRS report? (Communications, Chap 8, sec 8.5) 1.Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing. 2. Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities. 3. Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray). 4. Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas). 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

7. D

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8) You are working a day tour in Engine 300 when you respond for a carbon monoxide incident with Ladder 200. After arriving on scene you conduct an investigation with the Ladder Officer. Readings on both the Engine and Ladder CO detectors are 400 parts per million. All procedures are followed as per Haz-Mat bulletin # 4. You notice during the operation that CO detectors were not present. After concluding the operation where only Engine 300 and Ladder 200 operated you should transmit which radio signals? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) A. 10-18 & 10-38-1 B.10-18 & 10-38-3 C.10-18 & 10-38-4 D.10-18 & 10-38-2

8-C

10-35 Unwarranted or Unnecessary Alarm System Activation

Any alarm system activation that is unwarranted or unnecessary, excluding a
sprinkler system alarm (use 10-34 Code 1, 2 or 3) or an alarm system activation
resulting from a utility power fluctuation (use 10-40 Code 2).

No Code – Unwarranted alarm.
Alarm system activation caused by the defective condition of alarm device,
equipment or system. (e.g., low battery condition, alarm activations without a
known cause or when no condition is found warranting an emergency response).

Codes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm.
Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily
activated by lack of due care. DO NOT use this code when there is a fire or other
condition warranting an emergency response.
Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing.
Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities.
Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities
(toast, steam, aerosol spray).
Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause.
(e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized
areas). When this code is used, a NYFIRS report must be
completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and
the relevant particulars.
Select appropriate code based on best information available, whether observed by
or reported to responding unit.

34

Signal 10-25 is used by the FDNY to indicate a Manhole or Transformer fire or emergency. The choices below are the reasons to transmit sub codes, as a sharp Fire Tech student you would know that any other situation not described below would be a 10-25 without sub codes. You would also know that two of the sub-codes below will dispatch an emergency crew immediately from the appropriate Utility Company. Please choose the two sub-codes below that will cause an emergency utility crew to be dispatched? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5)
1.Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.
2. Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
3.Smoke is seeping from a manhole.
4. Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. i.e., pole, vault, room, etc.

A)1 & 4 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 4

9-A

35

10) A fire in a vehicle that has no value other than salvage and no owner can be located, is a signal 10- ________? (Communications, Chapter 8 section 8.5) A) 10-24 B)10-23 C)10-21 D)10-22

10-B

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11) You respond with Engine 200, Engine 500, Ladder 400 and Bn 250 for an odor of smoke in the rear yard of a Private Dwelling. After your arrival you determine that the owner of the Private Dwelling was using a non-commercial barbecue and the grease from years of cooking created a small fire inside the storage area cabinet below the fire box on the barbecue where the drip pan is stored. The situation was quickly corrected and no extension was found further then the barbecue itself. It should be noted that the barbecue was located inside an enclosed porch attached to the rear of the Private Dwelling. After all units complete operations you then proceed to recommend a 2 and 1 for a 10-33-1 to the BC. Would you agree or disagree that the 10-33-1 is the best signal for this incident? (Communications, Chapter 8 section 8.5) A) Agree or D) Disagree

11-B

10-33 Odor Condition
Code 1: Odor of smoke. A smoke condition caused by a nearby working fire
or fires such as barbecues, salamanders, etc.
Code 2: Any other type of odor.



37

12) If you respond for a vehicle accident without injuries, however extrication is required for a trapped victim, you should transmit, which 10-36 code? (Communications, Chapter 8, section 8.5) A.10-36- 1 B.10-36-3 C.10-36-4 D.10-36-2

12-C

38

1) Engine Company tactics and procedures shall be in accordance with Basic Engine Company Operations (Engine Companies 1), Basic Evolutions, and associated materials, however certain additional guidelines have been established in AUC 287 (Roster Staffing). From the list below please choose the incorrect guideline? (AUC 287, section 4)
A.The first and second Engine Companies to arrive at a structural fire shall act in concert to get the first line into operation, unless the presence of a suspected life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line. B) After the first line is stretched, the second to arrive Engine Company shall not detach. Rather, the second Engine Company shall remain in readiness to relieve the first Engine Company, unless otherwise assigned by the Incident Commander. C) In one or two story structures where the amount of hose required is four lengths or less, the need to assist on the first hose-line is not as great and Engine Companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. D) Operations shall be conducted in accordance with AUC 329

1-A

39

To ensure an appropriate assignment and response policy, AUC 287 establishes the following procedures on receipt of an alarm requiring a structural response from an Emergency Reporting System (ERS) alarm box, a telephone or other verbal form of communication. (AUC 287, section 5.1) A) Two Engine Companies, two Ladder Companies, special units, and one Battalion Chief will be assigned, if available, to respond on receipt of such an alarm. However, a minimum of two Engine Companies, one Ladder Company, and one Battalion Chief shall be dispatched. B) If an alarm is received from two sources for an incident requiring a structural response, a total of three Engine Companies and two Ladder Companies will be assigned to respond on receipt of the second source. C) Upon receipt of notification signal 10-75, a fourth Engine Company will be assigned to respond. D) These procedures will be in effect 24 hours a day, no exceptions. From the list above please choose the correct procedures

2-A, B, C

40

3) Please review the following adaptive response procedures below from AUC 287 and choose, which procedures are correct? (AUC 287, section 6 & 11.4) A)Officers of a Ladder, Rescue, or Squad Company are to notify the dispatcher via radio when responding with four Firefighters. They are to identify unit and state, "We are responding with four Firefighters." B) Any Group 1, 2, 3, or 4 unit responding with less than four Firefighters must notify the dispatcher via Department radio that they are responding "Under Staffed

3-A, B

41

4) AUC 287 addendum 1 (Staffing guidelines after the start of the tour) establishes the following guidelines for response: Please choose the incorrect guideline? add 1, section 6) A) (AUC 287 An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when both of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding in with 4 firefighters. B) The additional Ladder Company shall be the 4th Ladder Company, and the 3rd Ladder Company will still be designated as the Fast Truck. C) When notified that a company is responding understaffed (less than four firefighters), the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit. D) Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total response of (4) Engine Companies and (4) Ladder Companies

4 B

42

5) The cellular/digital phone industry is presenting the Department with new concerns. Cellular phone sites are being installed in commercial, residential, and public buildings. Each individual site and cell company will have different configurations and equipment setups. Strategies and tactics must be altered to deal with this new technology. From the list below please choose the incorrect strategy when dealing with fires in buildings with Cell sites? (AUC 331, section 6) A) An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Co. shall be a Tower Ladder, if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company. B) Consider stretching a hand-line to the roof at upper floor fires. This hand-line can be used to maintain egress routes and to cool supporting "I" beams. C) D) Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations. Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires. Avoid cutting roof openings too close to installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system

5-A

6.3 Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site installation is involved. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and placement.

6.4 Insure tower ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings.


43

7) The Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) is a web-based software application accessible via the FDNY Intranet, requiring FDNY personnel (e.g., Officers, Battalion Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs) to prepare, print, and submit an electronic version of the BF-4 riding list form. The EBF-4 shall be completed and printed for each 9x6 and 6x9 tour. Once submitted, the EBF-4 is electronically transmitted to the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) to provide a remote copy of personnel assigned to specific tours. The EBF-4 is directly linked to the HRIS database, the spare radio list, and Computer Assisted Dispatch System (CADS). The application generates Unit, Battalion, Division, Citywide and incident based riding lists. Please choose the incorrect EBF-4 procedure? (AUC 346, section 1.1 & 2) A) Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each tour. Final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, manpower change, reduced staffing). B) Only members actually riding on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour. C) Members working in another unit (e.g., mutual, detail, RSOT, MMOT) shall only be placed on the EBF-4 of the unit they are working in that tour. Members shall not be entered on more than one EBF-4 (EBF-4 system will provide a warning if this occurs). D) 8) Print copies for the apparatus only

7-D

44

6) The Pre-Incident Guideline (PG) has been developed to provide an easy to read summary of building features, potential problem areas, and operational guidelines for buildings, complexes or high profile locations which because of construction, occupancy, size or restricted access may present unusual operational considerations to the Department. From the statements below please choose the correct Pre-Incident Guideline procedure(s)? (AUC 345, section 3.1) A) B) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program. The FD designation PIG must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section as per the Communications Manual Chapter 4. C) The company officer, in consultation with the administrative Battalion Chief, must decide what portion of the vital information from the PG will be included in the transmitted data section of the CIDS message

6-A, C

3.1 Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program.
The FD designation PG must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section
as per the Communications Manual Chapter 4. The company officer, in consultation with
the administrative Battalion Chief, must decide what portion of the vital information from
the PG will be included in the transmitted data section of the CIDS message.

45

8. According to AUC 348 if a chauffeur is granted leave after the start of a tour, the officer on duty shall: (AUC 348, section 4) A) B) Notify the administrative Battalion Chief. The unit shall remain in service with a school trained chauffeur or company trained chauffeur from the quarters the member was working in when the leave was granted. C) If a school trained chauffeur is required, the Battalion Chief shall detail a school trained chauffeur from any unit within the battalion to cover the vacancy. D) If no school trained chauffeur is available from within the battalion, DSCO shall be notified to detail a school trained chauffeur into the unit to cover the vacancy. E) If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit will be out of service for the remainder of the tour, except for structural fires, then the officer can order the company trained chauffeur to drive. Please choose the correct procedures for the Officer to follow from the list above

8-A, B, C, D

4.1.5 If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit shall remain in
service with a company trained chauffeur.

46

9) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one school trained chauffeur and one company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit's second piece, they shall be guided by the following: 1) The company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the officer. 2) 3) The school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another firefighter. The assigned apparatus and the second piece shall travel as a convoy. Please choose the correct guides listed above? A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1 & 2 only C) 3 only (AUC 348, section 3.4) 4) None of the above

9-A

47

2) You recently just attended a drill at a Con Edison steam plant and the following points were made by one of the Con Edison employees. As a sharp Fire Tech student you should have corrected, which point? (Steam Emergencies, section 3.1) A) When water comes into contact with the outside of a high pressure steam pipe, the water boils and steam is generated. This water may come from a heavy rain or a leaking water main. B) If enough water contacts the pipe, it can cool the steam inside the pipe, causing it to condense into water. Normally, this water is drained off by a series of drains called “Traps.” C) If not drained off, a water slug will form which can damage piping in a number of ways. Water slugs can be pushed through the piping by the steam at speeds as high as 300 mph. D) If the steam slug encounters a bend in the piping, the impact can cause the pipe to rupture, resulting in a release of high pressure steam. E) It is also possible for the slug of water to suddenly flash to steam resulting in a damaging concussion that can rupture the steam pipe, again releasing the high pressure steam. F) Another possible cause for pipe rupture is a contractor or some other physical damage to the pipe. Con Edison workers refer to a steam pipe rupture as a High Energy Line Break (HELB)

2-C

Water slugs can be pushed through the piping by the steam at speeds as high as 200 mph

48

1) Con Edison supplies high pressure steam to nearly 2,000 buildings from 96th Street to the Battery in Manhattan through more than 100 miles of buried high pressure steam pipe. It is generated in plants located in Manhattan, Brooklyn and Queens and is piped underground to the end users in Manhattan. Steam pipes run under streets and sidewalks with manholes providing access to the underground steam system. Please choose from the list below an incorrect characteristic of High Pressure Steam? (Steam Emergencies, section 1 & 2)
A) Steam is visible. B)Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900F. C) Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350F. D) High Pressure steam is used in buildings for a number of purposes e.g., to provide heat and hot water, to heat food, run air conditioners

1-A

2.1 Steam is invisible. The white mist seen is the condensate that forms when steam cools.
2.2 Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures
reaching 900ºF. Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings
can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.

49

3) You were recently called as a first due truck to a High Energy Line break in a Con Edison generating plant, which procedures below should you follow? (Steam Emergencies, section 4) A) Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con Ed personnel. Instead, respond to the designated mustering site outside the plant. B) Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. FDNY should only enter the plant to perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel. C) D) When entering the plant, stay close to the provided escort and be guided by their advice. Contact the Con Edison whit hat who can provide critical information and an escort if FD entry is necessary

3-All Correct

50

4) The pressure released in a High Energy Line Break is high enough to cause an intact street to collapse or explode outward as the high pressure steam escapes from the ruptured pipe. A HELB can also cause the following: A) Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 300 mph. Anyone in the vicinity of the break is in danger of being struck by flying, high velocity debris. B) Slugs of hot water released from the rupture and hot water on the pavement may cause burns to firefighters and civilians. C) Debris released from the HELB may break glass in surrounding buildings. This will allow asbestos to contaminate the interior of the building and its occupants. D) Debris in the street may make it difficult to move Department or civilian vehicles Please choose the incorrect choice from the list above? (Steam Emergencies, section 4.2)

4-A

a) Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 mph. Anyone in the vicinity of the break is in danger of being struck by flying, high velocity debris.

51

5) A ruptured steam main could be the result of a terrorist attack. Responding units shall monitor radiation detection devices upon receipt of an alarm for a ruptured steam main. Additionally, a 10-_______ with appropriate sub code should be transmitted upon arrival on scene. (Steam Emergencies, section 5) Please fill in the blank with the appropriate code number

5-10-80 with appropriate code, specifying asbestos release

52

6) When operating at a High Energy Line Break inside a building, members are permitted to shut which steam valve(s)? (Steam Emergencies, section 4.4) A. The Inside service valve, only in an emergency B. The outside service valve, only in an emergency C. The Inside or outside service valve, only in an emergency D. Neither the Inside or Outside service valves may be shut by members, even in an emergency

6-A

a) In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.

53

1) You have just started a day tour working in Engine 100 when you respond on an EMS run for a child burned by a flame. Upon arrival EMS informs you that a five year old child was burned by the heat from a hot iron and no flame or fire existed. As a sharp fire tech student you state to your crew and EMS that the communications manual chapter 8 requires you to transmit a 10-45. You then instruct the ECC to transmit a 10-45 for the victim. Please indicate if you agree or disagree with your decision to transmit a 10-45? A) 2) Agree (Communications Chapter 8, section 8.5) or D) Disagree

1

Note: Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame.

54

2. You are working a 9x6 tour in the Ladder 200 when you are called to a report of a fire. After a preliminary investigation you recommend a 10-26 to the IC, however you also inform the IC that a civilian suffered a thermal burn while trying to extinguish the food on the stove. The civilian was burned as a direct result of heat from a flame and you are also recommending a 10-37-3 for a minor burn. As a sharp fire tech student would know that the correct signal for this injury would be? (Communications Chapter 8, section 8.5)
A. 10-37-2
B. 10-37-4
C. 10-45
D. The truck officer is correct 10-37-3

2. C

1

Note: Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):