Wiley Flashcards
(221 cards)
1
Q
Computer operating systems can be open source, meaning the OS can be examined and modified by ______.
A
Anyone
2
Q
A multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor is known as ______.
A
Cooperative multitasking
3
Q
Because the operating system is essential for running all other programs, it is usually the first piece of software loaded during the ______.
A
Boot process
4
Q
The ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time is known as what?
A
Multithreading
5
Q
Can you mix 64-bit software with 32-bit hardware?
A
No
6
Q
What is the minimum amount of memory recommended for Windows Vista Home Premium?
A
1 GB
7
Q
What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for installing a Windows 7 32-bit version?
A
16 GB
8
Q
In Windows, a primary mouse click is typically a single click of which mouse button?
A
Left
9
Q
The Taskbar contains two major items, the Start menu and the ______.
A
System Tray
10
Q
A ______ is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time.
A
Restore point
11
Q
Which Control Panel applet is used to configure screensavers, colors, display options, and monitor devices?
A
Display
12
Q
What is the name of the desktop interface available in Windows Vista?
A
Aero
13
Q
The ability to support so many languages is provided through the use of the ______ standard.
A
Unicode
14
Q
A group of computers that are tightly connected or associated and share a common domain name will have a single authority that manages security for all the computers know as the ______.
A
Domain Controller
15
Q
In Windows 7, Vista, and XP, every user is automatically given a user ______ when they log on to the workstation that contains information about their settings and preferences.
A
Profile
16
Q
True/False: Remote Assistance is enabled by default.
A
True
17
Q
The ______ command indicates whether the host can be reached and how long it took for the host to send a return packet.
A
Ping
18
Q
Which option is used with NETSTAT to display all connections and listening ports?
A
-a
19
Q
What switch is used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address from a DHCP server?
A
/renew
20
Q
The ______ utility can be used to schedule a shutdown (complete or a restart) locally or remotely.
A
Shutdown.exe
21
Q
With Windows 7, there are 32-bit and 64-bit versions for each of the editions you must know for the exam except ______.
A
Starter
22
Q
What feature of WIndows 7 and Windows Vista is intended to prevent unintentional/unauthorized changes to the computer by either prompting for a permission to continue or requiring the administrator password before continuing?
A
User Account Control (UAC)
23
Q
The ______ feature of Windows 7/Vista allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.
A
BitLocker
24
Q
In Windows 7, the ______ feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive to speed up a system by caching content.
A
ReadyBoost
25
Windows 7 includes the ______ antispyware program.
Windows Defender
26
Windows 7 has a quick way to access files you've been working on through their association with the application that has been using them. This feature is known as ______.
Jump Lists
27
A simplified way to setup a home network was added to Windows 7. It is known as ______.
HomeGroup
28
In Windows 7, ______ allow you to logically (as opposed to physically) group files and folders that are not in the same location and make them appear as if they are.
Libraries
29
Microsoft Windows ______ allows you to migrate user file settings related to the applications, desktop configuration, and accounts.
User State Migration Tool (USMT)
30
During the startup of Windows 7, what holds information about OSs installed on the computer, such as the location of the OS files?
Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
31
What is the maximum number of CPUs supported by Windows Vista Home Premium?
One
32
Which edition of Windows Vista supports BitLocker and is not available through the retail channel?
Enterprise
33
In Windows Vista, what is the name for mini programs that can be palced on the Sidebar, allowing them to run quickly and personalize the PC?
Gadgets
34
In Windows Vista, the ______ provides a single interface for firewall settings, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings.
Windows Security Center
35
True/False: In Windows Vista, you can turn off the UAC feature.
True; while turning UAC off is not recommended, you can do so by choosing Start > Control Panel > user Accounts and clicking Turn User Account Control On or Off
36
To what versions of Windows Vista can Windows XP Professional be upgraded?
Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate
37
What file in Windows serves as the hardware abstraction layer?
HAL.DLL
38
Windows Firewall has been a component of Windows ever since ______.
Windows XP Service Pack 2
39
The default setting for Enforce Password History is 0. How high can this value go?
24
40
What Control Panel applet in Windows Vista can be used to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet?
Tablet PC Settings applet
41
Setup Manager is not an unattended installation method in and of itself but is used to create ______ files.
Answer
42
What type of operating system installation installs the most commonly used components of the software but not all of the components?
Typical
43
Older Windows Server Operating Systems have a feature called Remote Installation Service (RIS), which allows you to perform several network installations at one time. Beginning with Windows Server 2003 SP2, RIS was replaced by ______.
Windows Deployment Service (WDS)
44
______ is the process of dividing part or all of a hard drive into sections, or partitions, for use by the computer.
Partitioning
45
On each hard drive, the ______ contains the partition information for the hard drive and includes the beginning and end of each partition that has been defined on the drive.
Master Boot Record (MBR)
46
Windows XP includes a utility known as the ______ that will transfer most of your files and individual application settings from an old computer to a new one.
File and Settings Transfer Wizard
47
With Windows XP, what file starts the loading of an OS on the computer?
NTLDR
48
With Windows XP, to access Safe Mode, you must press what key when the OS menu is displayed during the boot process?
F8
49
True/False: Windows XP Home edition does not have Remote Desktop, only Remote Desktop Connection.
True; Therefore, Windows XP Home computers can connect to other computers but cannot be connected to by other computers.
50
What Control Panel applet is unique to Windows XP and can be used to add or remove network connections?
Network Connections
51
Ideally, your system should have a minimum of ______ physical barriers.
3
52
______ is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you without needing to use a key, a card, or any other security device.
Tailgating
53
______ is a common physical access method that involves digging through dumpsters or recycle bins looking for more information that is highly sensitive in nature (such as passwords written down after a change and before the user has the new one memorized).
Dumpster diving
54
______ devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners use physical characteristics to identify the user.
Biometric security
55
What is the name of file or glass add-ons that are placed over a monitor and prevent the data on the screen from being readable when viewed from the sides?
Privacy filter
56
A firewall operating as a ______ passes or blocks traffic to specific addresses based on the type of application.
Packet filter
57
The concept of ______ is a simple one: When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.
Least Privilege
58
______ is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.
Social engineering
59
What is a type of malicious software that acts on behalf of a third part (rather than self-replicating, like viruses and worms, it is spread to machines by users who inadvertently ask for it)?
Spyware
60
______ is a form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.
Phishing
61
If you're running into a software problem on a computer, the first step (after understanding what the problem is and getting any relevant error messages written down) should always be to ______.
Reboot
62
True/False: When trying solutions to fix a problem, make only one change to the computer at a time.
True. This allows you to determine the exact cause.
63
What is BSOD?
Blue Screen of Death; another way of describing the blue-screen error condition that occurs when Windows fails to boot properly or quits unexpectedly.
64
When troubleshooting in Safe Mode, you can uninstall a driver you think is causing the problem. Another option is to boot into the ______ configuration.
last known good
65
What is the name of the file that is the Windows OS kernel?
NTOSKRNL.EXE
66
A RAID array was not detected during the installation of Windows 7. What is a likely reason?
A likely possibility is that the correct drivers for the version of Windows being used is not located.
67
Device ______ are software programs that tell the operating system how to work with the hardware.
Drivers
68
True/False: In Windows 7/Vista, the User Account Control (UAC) feature has the sole purpose of keeping the user from running programs that could pose a potential threat by escalating privileges to that of Administrator.
True
69
True/False: When a file fails to open, it is often due to compatibility.
False. When a file fails to open, it is often due to corruption.
70
What command must you use to install the Recovery Console?
WINNT32 /CMDCONS
71
If all computers on the network are in the same office, then the office is a ______.
local area network (LAN)
72
Computers dedicated to providing resources to other computers are called ______.
servers
73
A network where there are no dedicated servers is called a ______ network.
peer-to-peer
74
A network topology where all computers are connected to a central device such as a switch is called a .
Star
75
Ethernet uses ______ to send information on the network.
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)
76
The layer of the OSI model that manages the "look" of the data including encryption and compression is the ______ layer.
Presentation
77
The layer of the OSI model responsible for establishing and maintaining communications between computers is the ______ layer.
Session
78
The OSI layer responsible for error-checking is ______ .
Transport
79
The cable type with the longest range is ______.
fiber optic
80
As opposed to a WLAN, a Bluetooth network is referred to as a ______.
wireless personal area network (WPAN)
81
The network connectivity device that can connect multiple networks to each other is a ______.
router
82
The OSI model layer responsible for putting frames on the wire is called the ______ layer.
Physical
83
The seven layers of the OSI model from top down are ______.
```
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical
```
84
The language of communication spoken between computers on a network is called a ______.
protocol
85
TCP/IP is based on the ______ model.
United States Department of Defense (DoD)
86
TCP is a ______ protocol that operates at the ______layer of the OSI model.
connection-oriented, Transport
87
Which protocol in TCP/IP is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
88
To communicate on a network, TCP/IP hosts must have a unique ______ and valid ______.
IP address, subnet mask
89
Class A IP addresses will have a first octet of between ______and ______.
1 and 126
90
FTP uses ports ______and ______, and Telnet uses port ______.
20, 21, 23
91
A ______ server provides IP configuration information to clients on the network.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
92
Class B private IP addresses are in the ______ range.
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
93
Class C private IP addresses are in the ______ range.
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
94
APIPA addresses are in the ______range with a subnet mask of ______.
169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255, 255.255.0.0
95
The ______ protocol is used to send mail and operates on port ______.
SMTP, 25
96
The address fe80::/10 is an example of an IPv6 ______ address.
link-local
97
The ______ protocol is used to retrieve mail and operates on port ______.
IMAP, 143
| POP3, 110
98
A 10BaseT network uses ______ cabling and can transmit data at ______ (speed).
twisted-pair (or UTP), 10Mbps
99
What are the four common types of broadband?
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line), cable, satellite, and fiber-optic
100
The wireless networking standard 802.11a operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).
5GHz, 54Mbps
101
The wireless networking standard 802.11n operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).
2.5 and 5GHz, up to 600 Mbps
102
What is the most secure encryption protocol for 802.11?
WPA2
103
Wireless networks use ____ to identify themselves.
SSIDs
104
Name two examples of 4G technology.
WiMAX, LTE
105
Firewalls filter packets based on a set of rules called ______.
an ACL (access control list)
106
UTP cable has a maximum segment length of ______.
100 meters
107
The server that translates between private nonroutable IP addresses and public IP addresses is ______.
Network Address Translation (NAT)
108
WPA2 employs what security method?
AES-CCMP
109
What type of laptop adapter combines functionality of PCIe and USB 2.0?
ExpressCard
110
How thick are PCMCIA Type I cards?
3.3 millimeters
111
If you want to plug your laptop into a power outlet in your car, what kind of power adaptor do you need?
DC
112
Type III PC Cards are ______ thick, and the most common Type III device is a ______ .
10.5 millimeters, hard drive
113
What kind of connector do MiniPCI Type III cards use?
124-pin card edge
114
Where can you obtain laptop service manuals?
From the manufacturer's website
115
What are the three components of an LCD?
Inverter, screen, and backlight
116
What is the part of the LCD that is responsible for providing enough light?
Backlight
117
What is the component of a laptop's video system that is responsible for sending the video signal?
Video card
118
MiniPCIe cards have ______ connectors.
52-pin card edge
119
What step of the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?
Writing
120
The last step in the EP print process is ______.
Cleaning
121
Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?
+600VDC
122
Bubble-jet and laser printers are examples of ______ because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time.
page printers
123
Multipart forms are used with this type of printer.
dot-matrix
124
With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to ______ VDC.
–100
125
What is the function of the corona assembly?
The corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper.
126
What is the first step in the EP printing process?
Processing
127
What are the seven steps in the EP printing process, in order?
```
Processing
Charging
Exposing
Developing
Transferring
Fusing
Cleaning
```
128
______ are examples of print communication languages.
Printer Command Language (PCL), PostScript (PS), and Graphics Device Interface (GDI)
129
Which component inside the computer case poses the biggest risk of electrocution?
The power supply
130
Class ______ fire extinguishers are for flammable liquid fires.
B
131
Class ______ fire extinguishers are for fires involving flammable metals.
D
132
To discharge electricity from a monitor, use a ______.
high-voltage probe
133
What is the name of the safety sheet supplied with all chemicals?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
134
What are the three common types of screws used in computers?
Straight-slot, Phillips, and Torx
135
Computer components can be damaged with a shock of ______ volts.
100
136
To see an electrical discharge, the transfer must be of ______ volts or more.
10,000
137
What device uses a one megaohm resistor to slowly bleed charge away?
An antistatic wrist strap
138
To whom must accidents at the workplace be immediately reported?
The employer
139
When lifting computer equipment, always lift with your ______
legs
140
You should ______ batteries to properly dispose of them.
recycle
141
When talking about a computer problem with a customer, you should avoid using ______.
jargon, acronyms, and slang
142
What should you do if you are going to be late to a customer appointment?
Contact (call) the customer
143
When working on a customer's computer, you should always ______ and ______ expectations.
set, meet (or exceed)
144
Consistently light or faded characters on output from a dot-matrix printer likely indicates what?
The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.
145
Unevenly spaced characters in output from a dot-matrix or bubble-jet printer could indicate what?
A problem with the stepper motor.
146
A paper jam in a bubble-jet printer is usually caused by what two things?
Worn pickup rollers or the wrong type of paper
147
Pin 1 on a laser printer's power connector should supply what voltage?
+5v
148
What are three ways you can manually configure your laser printer's IP address?
Through the control panel on the printer, using Telnet, and using management software on your computer.
149
The process that a bubble-jet printer goes through after installing a new print cartridge is called ______.
print head alignment
150
Vertical white lines on the output of a laser printer are caused by what?
Foreign matter (more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire
151
What causes image smudging from a laser printer?
The fuser isn't heating the toner and fusing it into the paper.
152
When Windows quits unexpectedly, you may get a ______.
Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)
153
The diagnostic routine built into the BIOS is called the ______.
power-on self test (POST)
154
Name the two most common types of devices used to keep computers cool.
Heat sinks and cooling fans
155
The line of print jobs is called the ______.
print queue
156
The service that formats jobs for the printer is called the ______.
print spooler
157
If a laptop will not power up on battery power, what should you should?
Plugging it in to an AC adapter
158
If the video on a laptop is not working, you should plug in what?
An external monitor
159
To communicate on a TCP/IP network, which two things do you need?
A unique IP address and a valid subnet mask
160
What is the command-line utility used to look at inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on your computer?
NETSTAT
161
Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?
RAID 0
162
The functional components of a chipset are known as ______ and ______.
Northbridge, Southbridge
163
ATX and ITX are examples of what?
Motherboard form factors
164
______ is essentially software implemented in hardware.
Firmware
165
Name two advanced methods used to keep computer components cool.
Possible answers include: liquid cooling, heat pipes, Peltier cooling devices, phase-change cooling, liquid nitrogen and helium, and undervolting.
166
External cache is most commonly implemented using what type of memory?
Static RAM (SRAM)
167
Which modules both have 240 pins but are distinguished by the location of their keying notch?
DDR2, DDR3
168
What are the two socket types that require little to no force during CPU installation?
Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) and Land Grid Array (LGA)
169
What should you apply between the CPU and heat sink to avoid overheating?
Thermal compound
170
What type of conventional CPU cooling method is relatively quiet and affords the greatest drops in temperature?
Water or liquid cooling
171
If the fan on the power supply is an exhaust-oriented fan, then the fan on the front fan should be ______ oriented, while the rear supplemental fan should be ______ oriented.
intake, exhaust
172
How many devices can a 16-bit SCSI bus support?
16
173
How many pins might you find on the data interface of a given SCSI device?
25, 50, 68, or 80
174
What was the ATA-5 technology that first required the 80-wire ribbon cable called?
UltraDMA/66 or UDMA/66
175
IDE and EIDE are now collectively referred to as ______ and have been superseded by ______.
PATA, SATA
176
Name three of the available memory-card formats
SD, xD, MMC, CF, MS, SM, etc.
177
Name one of the standard DC voltages supplied by a power supply.
+3.3VDC, +5VDC, -5VDC, +12VDC, or -12VDC
178
What is the name given to the IDE/EIDE family of drive interfaces to differentiate them from the newer SATA specifications?
PATA
179
How much faster is the 1X transfer rate of a DVD drive when compared to that of a CD drive?
Nine times faster
180
Name three interfaces commonly used to attach external hard drives to a computer system.
USB, FireWire, and eSATA
181
What is the capacity of a standard Blu-ray disc?
25GB
182
RCA and TOSLINK connectors are used with copper and fiber, respectively, for what input/output technology family?
Digital audio
183
Thunderbolt is a combination of which two interfaces?
DisplayPort and PCIe
184
What should you do for a mechanical mouse that causes the cursor to move erratically on the screen?
Clean it.
185
The e in eSATA stands for ______, but the E in EIDE stands for ______.
external, enhanced
186
What input technology allows the touch of a finger or stylus to simultaneously move the cursor and make a selection?
Touchscreen
187
What multimedia technology daisy-chains devices back to a host and uses a messaging protocol to communicate musical information among devices?
MIDI
188
Which expansion bus type can share a single IRQ among two or more hardware components?
PCI
189
A card with expansion slots on it that installs into a motherboard is known as a card.
riser
190
______ is the preferred I/O bus architecture for high-end graphics adapters, especially among gaming enthusiasts.
PCI Express (PCIe)
191
Which two types of expansion slot are closely related and highly limited and specialized as to what can be installed in them?
Audio Modem Riser (AMR), Communications and Networking Riser (CNR)
192
A ______ contrast ratio indicates that an LCD monitor reduces the power to the backlight to display darker images.
dynamic
193
What is the digital version of YPbPr called?
YCbCr
194
Three major types of LCD screens are dual scan, passive matrix, and ______.
active matrix
195
How many pins are on a standard (Type-A) HDMI connector?
19
196
How many more pins does a dual-link DVI-D connector have than a single-link DVI-D connector?
6
197
When you ______ a CRT monitor, you reduce the built-up magnetic field, improving the display quality.
degauss
198
The three main classifications of video display devices are CRT, LCD, and ______
projector
199
The analog-only portion of a DVI-A connector has a flat ground blade surrounded by how many pins?
4
200
______ has a resolution of 1920 pixels by 1200 pixels.
WUXGA
201
Adjusting the ______ rate can eliminate flickering in a monitor.
refresh
202
Name three custom computer configurations.
Possible answers are graphic and CAD/CAM design workstations, audio/video editing workstations, virtualization workstations, gaming PCs, home theater PCs, thin clients, home server PCs.
203
What special modifications apply to graphics and CAD/CAM workstations?
CPU enhancements, video enhancements, and maximized RAM
204
What special modifications apply to A/V editing workstations?
Video enhancements, specialized audio, and specialized drives
205
What special modifications apply to virtualization workstations?
CPU enhancements and maximized RAM
206
What special modifications apply to gaming PCs?
CPU enhancements, video enhancements, specialized audio, and enhanced cooling
207
What special modifications apply to home theater PCs?
Video enhancements, specialized audio, special chassis, and TV tuner
208
What special modifications apply to thin clients?
None, but they must be able to run basic applications and the local operating system.
209
What special modifications apply to home server PCs?
Media streaming capabilities, file sharing services, print sharing services, gigabit NIC, and RAID
210
With respect to A/V editing workstations, what does NLE stand for?
Nonlinear editing
211
Name the two most popular families of graphics APIs recommended for adapters used in A/V editing.
CUDA and OpenGL
212
What are the terms used to describe proprietary and nonproprietary programming code?
Closed source/vendor specific and open source, respectively
213
Which component in a mobile device can detect yaw?
A gyroscope
214
Mobile devices that contain a magnetometer support apps that act as what kind of device?
A compass
215
Which TCP ports are most commonly used for insecure and secure SMTP?
Port 25 and port 465, respectively
216
What term refers to a mobile device adding geographical information to media such as photographs taken with the device?
Geotagging
217
Capacitive touchscreens do not require _____, but resistive touchscreens do because their outer panels flex to make contact with their inner panels.
calibration
218
Name two methods that a mobile device can use to detect its current location.
Possible answers are cellular network, WiFi network, GPS.
219
What technology allows pairing of mobile devices and, on occasion, the ability to transfer files between them?
Bluetooth
220
When configuring an Internet email account on a mobile device, what are the standard pieces of information required?
Username and password, outbound mail server and port (often based on secure SMTP), and inbound mail server and port (often based on secure POP3 or secure IMAP4)
221
What feature available on almost all mobile devices can ensure that, after a configurable amount of time, a security challenge must be met in order to access the device?
Passcode lock
