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Flashcards in Wiley Flashcards Deck (221)
1

Computer operating systems can be open source, meaning the OS can be examined and modified by ______.

Anyone

2

A multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor is known as ______.

Cooperative multitasking

3

Because the operating system is essential for running all other programs, it is usually the first piece of software loaded during the ______.

Boot process

4

The ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time is known as what?

Multithreading

5

Can you mix 64-bit software with 32-bit hardware?

No

6

What is the minimum amount of memory recommended for Windows Vista Home Premium?

1 GB

7

What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for installing a Windows 7 32-bit version?

16 GB

8

In Windows, a primary mouse click is typically a single click of which mouse button?

Left

9

The Taskbar contains two major items, the Start menu and the ______.

System Tray

10

A ______ is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time.

Restore point

11

Which Control Panel applet is used to configure screensavers, colors, display options, and monitor devices?

Display

12

What is the name of the desktop interface available in Windows Vista?

Aero

13

The ability to support so many languages is provided through the use of the ______ standard.

Unicode

14

A group of computers that are tightly connected or associated and share a common domain name will have a single authority that manages security for all the computers know as the ______.

Domain Controller

15

In Windows 7, Vista, and XP, every user is automatically given a user ______ when they log on to the workstation that contains information about their settings and preferences.

Profile

16

True/False: Remote Assistance is enabled by default.

True

17

The ______ command indicates whether the host can be reached and how long it took for the host to send a return packet.

Ping

18

Which option is used with NETSTAT to display all connections and listening ports?

-a

19

What switch is used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address from a DHCP server?

/renew

20

The ______ utility can be used to schedule a shutdown (complete or a restart) locally or remotely.

Shutdown.exe

21

With Windows 7, there are 32-bit and 64-bit versions for each of the editions you must know for the exam except ______.

Starter

22

What feature of WIndows 7 and Windows Vista is intended to prevent unintentional/unauthorized changes to the computer by either prompting for a permission to continue or requiring the administrator password before continuing?

User Account Control (UAC)

23

The ______ feature of Windows 7/Vista allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.

BitLocker

24

In Windows 7, the ______ feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive to speed up a system by caching content.

ReadyBoost

25

Windows 7 includes the ______ antispyware program.

Windows Defender

26

Windows 7 has a quick way to access files you've been working on through their association with the application that has been using them. This feature is known as ______.

Jump Lists

27

A simplified way to setup a home network was added to Windows 7. It is known as ______.

HomeGroup

28

In Windows 7, ______ allow you to logically (as opposed to physically) group files and folders that are not in the same location and make them appear as if they are.

Libraries

29

Microsoft Windows ______ allows you to migrate user file settings related to the applications, desktop configuration, and accounts.

User State Migration Tool (USMT)

30

During the startup of Windows 7, what holds information about OSs installed on the computer, such as the location of the OS files?

Boot Configuration Data (BCD)

31

What is the maximum number of CPUs supported by Windows Vista Home Premium?

One

32

Which edition of Windows Vista supports BitLocker and is not available through the retail channel?

Enterprise

33

In Windows Vista, what is the name for mini programs that can be palced on the Sidebar, allowing them to run quickly and personalize the PC?

Gadgets

34

In Windows Vista, the ______ provides a single interface for firewall settings, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings.

Windows Security Center

35

True/False: In Windows Vista, you can turn off the UAC feature.

True; while turning UAC off is not recommended, you can do so by choosing Start > Control Panel > user Accounts and clicking Turn User Account Control On or Off

36

To what versions of Windows Vista can Windows XP Professional be upgraded?

Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate

37

What file in Windows serves as the hardware abstraction layer?

HAL.DLL

38

Windows Firewall has been a component of Windows ever since ______.

Windows XP Service Pack 2

39

The default setting for Enforce Password History is 0. How high can this value go?

24

40

What Control Panel applet in Windows Vista can be used to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet?

Tablet PC Settings applet

41

Setup Manager is not an unattended installation method in and of itself but is used to create ______ files.

Answer

42

What type of operating system installation installs the most commonly used components of the software but not all of the components?

Typical

43

Older Windows Server Operating Systems have a feature called Remote Installation Service (RIS), which allows you to perform several network installations at one time. Beginning with Windows Server 2003 SP2, RIS was replaced by ______.

Windows Deployment Service (WDS)

44

______ is the process of dividing part or all of a hard drive into sections, or partitions, for use by the computer.

Partitioning

45

On each hard drive, the ______ contains the partition information for the hard drive and includes the beginning and end of each partition that has been defined on the drive.

Master Boot Record (MBR)

46

Windows XP includes a utility known as the ______ that will transfer most of your files and individual application settings from an old computer to a new one.

File and Settings Transfer Wizard

47

With Windows XP, what file starts the loading of an OS on the computer?

NTLDR

48

With Windows XP, to access Safe Mode, you must press what key when the OS menu is displayed during the boot process?

F8

49

True/False: Windows XP Home edition does not have Remote Desktop, only Remote Desktop Connection.

True; Therefore, Windows XP Home computers can connect to other computers but cannot be connected to by other computers.

50

What Control Panel applet is unique to Windows XP and can be used to add or remove network connections?

Network Connections

51

Ideally, your system should have a minimum of ______ physical barriers.

3

52

______ is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you without needing to use a key, a card, or any other security device.

Tailgating

53

______ is a common physical access method that involves digging through dumpsters or recycle bins looking for more information that is highly sensitive in nature (such as passwords written down after a change and before the user has the new one memorized).

Dumpster diving

54

______ devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners use physical characteristics to identify the user.

Biometric security

55

What is the name of file or glass add-ons that are placed over a monitor and prevent the data on the screen from being readable when viewed from the sides?

Privacy filter

56

A firewall operating as a ______ passes or blocks traffic to specific addresses based on the type of application.

Packet filter

57

The concept of ______ is a simple one: When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

Least Privilege

58

______ is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.

Social engineering

59

What is a type of malicious software that acts on behalf of a third part (rather than self-replicating, like viruses and worms, it is spread to machines by users who inadvertently ask for it)?

Spyware

60

______ is a form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.

Phishing

61

If you're running into a software problem on a computer, the first step (after understanding what the problem is and getting any relevant error messages written down) should always be to ______.

Reboot

62

True/False: When trying solutions to fix a problem, make only one change to the computer at a time.

True. This allows you to determine the exact cause.

63

What is BSOD?

Blue Screen of Death; another way of describing the blue-screen error condition that occurs when Windows fails to boot properly or quits unexpectedly.

64

When troubleshooting in Safe Mode, you can uninstall a driver you think is causing the problem. Another option is to boot into the ______ configuration.

last known good

65

What is the name of the file that is the Windows OS kernel?

NTOSKRNL.EXE

66

A RAID array was not detected during the installation of Windows 7. What is a likely reason?

A likely possibility is that the correct drivers for the version of Windows being used is not located.

67

Device ______ are software programs that tell the operating system how to work with the hardware.

Drivers

68

True/False: In Windows 7/Vista, the User Account Control (UAC) feature has the sole purpose of keeping the user from running programs that could pose a potential threat by escalating privileges to that of Administrator.

True

69

True/False: When a file fails to open, it is often due to compatibility.

False. When a file fails to open, it is often due to corruption.

70

What command must you use to install the Recovery Console?

WINNT32 /CMDCONS

71

If all computers on the network are in the same office, then the office is a ______.

local area network (LAN)

72

Computers dedicated to providing resources to other computers are called ______.

servers

73

A network where there are no dedicated servers is called a ______ network.

peer-to-peer

74

A network topology where all computers are connected to a central device such as a switch is called a                                       .

Star

75

Ethernet uses ______ to send information on the network.

CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

76

The layer of the OSI model that manages the "look" of the data including encryption and compression is the ______ layer.

Presentation

77

The layer of the OSI model responsible for establishing and maintaining communications between computers is the ______ layer.

Session

78

The OSI layer responsible for error-checking is ______ .

Transport

79

The cable type with the longest range is ______.

fiber optic

80

As opposed to a WLAN, a Bluetooth network is referred to as a ______.

wireless personal area network (WPAN)

81

The network connectivity device that can connect multiple networks to each other is a ______.

router

82

The OSI model layer responsible for putting frames on the wire is called the ______ layer.

Physical

83

The seven layers of the OSI model from top down are ______.

Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical

84

The language of communication spoken between computers on a network is called a ______.

protocol

85

TCP/IP is based on the ______ model.

United States Department of Defense (DoD)

86

TCP is a ______ protocol that operates at the ______layer of the OSI model.

connection-oriented, Transport

87

Which protocol in TCP/IP is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses?

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

88

To communicate on a network, TCP/IP hosts must have a unique ______ and valid ______.

IP address, subnet mask

89

Class A IP addresses will have a first octet of between ______and ______.

1 and 126

90

FTP uses ports ______and ______, and Telnet uses port ______.

20, 21, 23

91

A ______ server provides IP configuration information to clients on the network.

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

92

Class B private IP addresses are in the ______ range.

172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

93

Class C private IP addresses are in the ______ range.

192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

94

APIPA addresses are in the ______range with a subnet mask of ______.

169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255, 255.255.0.0

95

The ______ protocol is used to send mail and operates on port ______.

SMTP, 25

96

The address fe80::/10 is an example of an IPv6 ______ address.

link-local

97

The ______ protocol is used to retrieve mail and operates on port ______.

IMAP, 143
POP3, 110

98

A 10BaseT network uses ______ cabling and can transmit data at ______ (speed).

twisted-pair (or UTP), 10Mbps

99

What are the four common types of broadband?

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line), cable, satellite, and fiber-optic

100

The wireless networking standard 802.11a operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).

5GHz, 54Mbps

101

The wireless networking standard 802.11n operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).

2.5 and 5GHz, up to 600 Mbps

102

What is the most secure encryption protocol for 802.11?

WPA2

103

Wireless networks use ____ to identify themselves.

SSIDs

104

Name two examples of 4G technology.

WiMAX, LTE

105

Firewalls filter packets based on a set of rules called ______.

an ACL (access control list)

106

UTP cable has a maximum segment length of ______.

100 meters

107

The server that translates between private nonroutable IP addresses and public IP addresses is ______.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

108

WPA2 employs what security method?

AES-CCMP

109

What type of laptop adapter combines functionality of PCIe and USB 2.0?

ExpressCard

110

How thick are PCMCIA Type I cards?

3.3 millimeters

111

If you want to plug your laptop into a power outlet in your car, what kind of power adaptor do you need?

DC

112

Type III PC Cards are ______ thick, and the most common Type III device is a ______ .

10.5 millimeters, hard drive

113

What kind of connector do MiniPCI Type III cards use?

124-pin card edge

114

Where can you obtain laptop service manuals?

From the manufacturer's website

115

What are the three components of an LCD?

Inverter, screen, and backlight

116

What is the part of the LCD that is responsible for providing enough light?

Backlight

117

What is the component of a laptop's video system that is responsible for sending the video signal?

Video card

118

MiniPCIe cards have ______ connectors.

52-pin card edge

119

What step of the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?

Writing

120

The last step in the EP print process is ______.

Cleaning

121

Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?

+600VDC

122

Bubble-jet and laser printers are examples of ______ because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time.

page printers

123

Multipart forms are used with this type of printer.

dot-matrix

124

With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to ______ VDC.

–100

125

What is the function of the corona assembly?

The corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper.

126

What is the first step in the EP printing process?

Processing

127

What are the seven steps in the EP printing process, in order?

Processing
Charging
Exposing
Developing
Transferring
Fusing
Cleaning

128

______ are examples of print communication languages.

Printer Command Language (PCL), PostScript (PS), and Graphics Device Interface (GDI)

129

Which component inside the computer case poses the biggest risk of electrocution?

The power supply

130

Class ______ fire extinguishers are for flammable liquid fires.

B

131

Class ______ fire extinguishers are for fires involving flammable metals.

D

132

To discharge electricity from a monitor, use a ______.

high-voltage probe

133

What is the name of the safety sheet supplied with all chemicals?

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

134

What are the three common types of screws used in computers?

Straight-slot, Phillips, and Torx

135

Computer components can be damaged with a shock of ______ volts.

100

136

To see an electrical discharge, the transfer must be of ______ volts or more.

10,000

137

What device uses a one megaohm resistor to slowly bleed charge away?

An antistatic wrist strap

138

To whom must accidents at the workplace be immediately reported?

The employer

139

When lifting computer equipment, always lift with your ______

legs

140

You should ______ batteries to properly dispose of them.

recycle

141

When talking about a computer problem with a customer, you should avoid using ______.

jargon, acronyms, and slang

142

What should you do if you are going to be late to a customer appointment?

Contact (call) the customer

143

When working on a customer's computer, you should always ______ and ______ expectations.

set, meet (or exceed)

144

Consistently light or faded characters on output from a dot-matrix printer likely indicates what?

The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.

145

Unevenly spaced characters in output from a dot-matrix or bubble-jet printer could indicate what?

A problem with the stepper motor.

146

A paper jam in a bubble-jet printer is usually caused by what two things?

Worn pickup rollers or the wrong type of paper

147

Pin 1 on a laser printer's power connector should supply what voltage?

+5v

148

What are three ways you can manually configure your laser printer's IP address?

Through the control panel on the printer, using Telnet, and using management software on your computer.

149

The process that a bubble-jet printer goes through after installing a new print cartridge is called ______.

print head alignment

150

Vertical white lines on the output of a laser printer are caused by what?

Foreign matter (more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire

151

What causes image smudging from a laser printer?

The fuser isn't heating the toner and fusing it into the paper.

152

When Windows quits unexpectedly, you may get a ______.

Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)

153

The diagnostic routine built into the BIOS is called the ______.

power-on self test (POST)

154

Name the two most common types of devices used to keep computers cool.

Heat sinks and cooling fans

155

The line of print jobs is called the ______.

print queue

156

The service that formats jobs for the printer is called the ______.

print spooler

157

If a laptop will not power up on battery power, what should you should?

Plugging it in to an AC adapter

158

If the video on a laptop is not working, you should plug in what?

An external monitor

159

To communicate on a TCP/IP network, which two things do you need?

A unique IP address and a valid subnet mask

160

What is the command-line utility used to look at inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on your computer?

NETSTAT

161

Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?

RAID 0

162

The functional components of a chipset are known as ______ and ______.

Northbridge, Southbridge

163

ATX and ITX are examples of what?

Motherboard form factors

164

______ is essentially software implemented in hardware.

Firmware

165

Name two advanced methods used to keep computer components cool.

Possible answers include: liquid cooling, heat pipes, Peltier cooling devices, phase-change cooling, liquid nitrogen and helium, and undervolting.

166

External cache is most commonly implemented using what type of memory?

Static RAM (SRAM)

167

Which modules both have 240 pins but are distinguished by the location of their keying notch?

DDR2, DDR3

168

What are the two socket types that require little to no force during CPU installation?

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) and Land Grid Array (LGA)

169

What should you apply between the CPU and heat sink to avoid overheating?

Thermal compound

170

What type of conventional CPU cooling method is relatively quiet and affords the greatest drops in temperature?

Water or liquid cooling

171

If the fan on the power supply is an exhaust-oriented fan, then the fan on the front fan should be ______ oriented, while the rear supplemental fan should be ______ oriented.

intake, exhaust

172

How many devices can a 16-bit SCSI bus support?

16

173

How many pins might you find on the data interface of a given SCSI device?

25, 50, 68, or 80

174

What was the ATA-5 technology that first required the 80-wire ribbon cable called?

UltraDMA/66 or UDMA/66

175

IDE and EIDE are now collectively referred to as ______ and have been superseded by ______.

PATA, SATA

176

Name three of the available memory-card formats

SD, xD, MMC, CF, MS, SM, etc.

177

Name one of the standard DC voltages supplied by a power supply.

+3.3VDC, +5VDC, -5VDC, +12VDC, or -12VDC

178

What is the name given to the IDE/EIDE family of drive interfaces to differentiate them from the newer SATA specifications?

PATA

179

How much faster is the 1X transfer rate of a DVD drive when compared to that of a CD drive?

Nine times faster

180

Name three interfaces commonly used to attach external hard drives to a computer system.

USB, FireWire, and eSATA

181

What is the capacity of a standard Blu-ray disc?

25GB

182

RCA and TOSLINK connectors are used with copper and fiber, respectively, for what input/output technology family?

Digital audio

183

Thunderbolt is a combination of which two interfaces?

DisplayPort and PCIe

184

What should you do for a mechanical mouse that causes the cursor to move erratically on the screen?

Clean it.

185

The e in eSATA stands for ______, but the E in EIDE stands for ______.

external, enhanced

186

What input technology allows the touch of a finger or stylus to simultaneously move the cursor and make a selection?

Touchscreen

187

What multimedia technology daisy-chains devices back to a host and uses a messaging protocol to communicate musical information among devices?

MIDI

188

Which expansion bus type can share a single IRQ among two or more hardware components?

PCI

189

A card with expansion slots on it that installs into a motherboard is known as a                                        card.

riser

190

______ is the preferred I/O bus architecture for high-end graphics adapters, especially among gaming enthusiasts.

PCI Express (PCIe)

191

Which two types of expansion slot are closely related and highly limited and specialized as to what can be installed in them?

Audio Modem Riser (AMR), Communications and Networking Riser (CNR)

192

A ______ contrast ratio indicates that an LCD monitor reduces the power to the backlight to display darker images.

dynamic

193

What is the digital version of YPbPr called?

YCbCr

194

Three major types of LCD screens are dual scan, passive matrix, and ______.

active matrix

195

How many pins are on a standard (Type-A) HDMI connector?

19

196

How many more pins does a dual-link DVI-D connector have than a single-link DVI-D connector?

6

197

When you ______ a CRT monitor, you reduce the built-up magnetic field, improving the display quality.

degauss

198

The three main classifications of video display devices are CRT, LCD, and ______

projector

199

The analog-only portion of a DVI-A connector has a flat ground blade surrounded by how many pins?

4

200

______ has a resolution of 1920 pixels by 1200 pixels.

WUXGA

201

Adjusting the ______ rate can eliminate flickering in a monitor.

refresh

202

Name three custom computer configurations.

Possible answers are graphic and CAD/CAM design workstations, audio/video editing workstations, virtualization workstations, gaming PCs, home theater PCs, thin clients, home server PCs.

203

What special modifications apply to graphics and CAD/CAM workstations?

CPU enhancements, video enhancements, and maximized RAM

204

What special modifications apply to A/V editing workstations?

Video enhancements, specialized audio, and specialized drives

205

What special modifications apply to virtualization workstations?

CPU enhancements and maximized RAM

206

What special modifications apply to gaming PCs?

CPU enhancements, video enhancements, specialized audio, and enhanced cooling

207

What special modifications apply to home theater PCs?

Video enhancements, specialized audio, special chassis, and TV tuner

208

What special modifications apply to thin clients?

None, but they must be able to run basic applications and the local operating system.

209

What special modifications apply to home server PCs?

Media streaming capabilities, file sharing services, print sharing services, gigabit NIC, and RAID

210

With respect to A/V editing workstations, what does NLE stand for?

Nonlinear editing

211

Name the two most popular families of graphics APIs recommended for adapters used in A/V editing.

CUDA and OpenGL

212

What are the terms used to describe proprietary and nonproprietary programming code?

Closed source/vendor specific and open source, respectively

213

Which component in a mobile device can detect yaw?

A gyroscope

214

Mobile devices that contain a magnetometer support apps that act as what kind of device?

A compass

215

Which TCP ports are most commonly used for insecure and secure SMTP?

Port 25 and port 465, respectively

216

What term refers to a mobile device adding geographical information to media such as photographs taken with the device?

Geotagging

217

Capacitive touchscreens do not require _____, but resistive touchscreens do because their outer panels flex to make contact with their inner panels.

calibration

218

Name two methods that a mobile device can use to detect its current location.

Possible answers are cellular network, WiFi network, GPS.

219

What technology allows pairing of mobile devices and, on occasion, the ability to transfer files between them?

Bluetooth

220

When configuring an Internet email account on a mobile device, what are the standard pieces of information required?

Username and password, outbound mail server and port (often based on secure SMTP), and inbound mail server and port (often based on secure POP3 or secure IMAP4)

221

What feature available on almost all mobile devices can ensure that, after a configurable amount of time, a security challenge must be met in order to access the device?

Passcode lock