wrong Qs Flashcards
(83 cards)
1
Q
what type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?
A
saddle type synovial
2
Q
what type of joint is the elbow joint?
A
hinge synovial
3
Q
what type of joint is the intervertebral disc joint?
A
primary cartilaginous
4
Q
what type of joint is the pubic symphysis joint?
A
secondary cartilaginous
5
Q
what type of joint is the interosseous membrane of the forearm?
A
fibrous (syndesmoses)
6
Q
what do club (clara) cells secrete?
A
glycosaminoglycans
–> protect epithelial lining of bronchioles
7
Q
which nerve supplies mechanoreceptors in the upper respiratory tract?
A
vagus
8
Q
what rib is in the same anatomical location as the sternal angle?
A
2nd rib
9
Q
what is the respiratory epithelium made up of (histologically)?
A
pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
10
Q
if something was aspirated which bronchus is it most likely to go down? where is it most likely to end up?
A
right main bronchus –> right lower lobe
11
Q
what type of bacteria is haemophilus influenza?
A
gram neg coccobacilli
12
Q
what cardiomyopathy is associated with alcohol abuse?
A
dilated cardiomyopathy
13
Q
the closing of which valve causes biphasic waves in the jugular vein?
A
tricuspid
14
Q
where does the thoracic duct drain into?
A
left internal jugular vein (left venous angle)
venous angle = subclavian vein + internal jugular vein
15
Q
where is angiotensin converting enzyme produced?
A
lungs
16
Q
what condition does serial troponins guide it’s management?
A
ACS that isn’t STEMI
17
Q
what investigation is used to screen + monitor AAAs?
A
duplex USS
18
Q
define cholelithiasis
A
formation of gall stones
19
Q
define ascending cholangitis
A
inflammation of bile ducts
ascending - bacteria ascending from duodenal junction
20
Q
what do parietal cells secrete?
A
hydrochloric acid
21
Q
what do G cells secrete?
A
gastrin
22
Q
what do chief cells secrete?
A
pepsinogen
23
Q
what tumour marker is associated with colorectal cancer?
A
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
24
Q
is the influx of Na+ via ligand or voltage gated ion channels?
A
voltage
25
what happens during the hyperpolarisation phase of action potentials?
K channels are open + Na channels are in restin state
26
what is the test for Down's syndrome?
array comparative genomic hybridisation
--> looking for an imbalance in genome
27
what occurs during pavementing in acute inflammation?
WBC binds tightly + flattens against vessel wall
28
what is meant by a sarcoma?
malignant connective tissue tumour
29
where can MHC-II be found?
only professional antigen presenting cells
--> macrophages, dendritic cells
30
what shape are IgM?
pentameric
31
what shape is a macrophages nucleus?
kidney bean shaped - used to be a monocyte
32
how can you calculate SV?
SV = EDV - ESV
33
how can you calculate the ejection fraction?
SV / EDV
34
what is happening in phase 1 (wee flicky bit at top)?
K efflux
35
# define deontology
what is the opposite of this?
follow obligations of patient/NHS
opposite = virtue ethics - follow own morals
36
where is spermatozoa produced?
seminiferous tubules
37
where is infundibulum? isthmus?
infundibulum = broad end of uterine tube that receives oocyte
isthmus = where uterine tube narrows to enter the uterus
38
pseudomonas aeruginosa treatment
ciprofloxacin
| resistant to most antibiotics + gram neg coccobacillus
39
c. diff treatment
mild = metronidazole
severe = metronidazole + vancomycin
(all ORAL)
40
which bone possesses the odontoid process?
C2 (axis)
41
main energy source for slow jogging for 40 mins
glycogen stores
```
4 secs = ATP
15 secs = phosphocreatine
4 mins = free circulating glucose
77 mins = glycogen stores
4+ days = fat stores
```
42
main energy source for lifting a heavy weight for 4 seconds
ATP
```
4 secs = ATP
15 secs = phosphocreatine
4 mins = free circulating glucose
77 mins = glycogen stores
4+ days = fat stores
```
43
what component of MRSA strain causes severe skin infection such as necrotising fasciitis?
panton valentine leukocidin
--> cytotoxin associated with highly virulent strain of staph aureus causing necrolytic skin infection
44
which cranial nerve supplies the sensory nerve supply to the ear?
vestibulocochlear (8th)
45
name a disease acquired through co-dominant inheritance
sickle cell anaemia
46
what is immunophenotyping?
the measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in blood
47
describe the appearance of neisseria meningitidis
aerobic gram negative coccus which appears as diplococci
48
in an action potential, in what direction do sodium and potassium move respectively?
sodium moves inwards
| potassium moves outwards
49
what effect does sepsis have on the circulating blood volume?
decreases it
--> due to endotoxins causing vasodilation + intravascular fluid leaking to adjacent cell
50
what part of the inner mitochondrial membrane transfers energy associated with proton motive from high energy phosphate bonds found in ATP?
FiFoATPase
--> proton pore which utilises energy yielded from the return of protons along their electrochemical gradient in a condensation reaction with ADP + Pi to yield ATP
51
what receptor is responsible for glucose transport into gut?
GLUT 5 - passive facilitated diffusion
52
which G protein does M1 bind to? what does this cause?
Gq - stimulation of phospholipase C
53
an embolus from a DVT is most likely to occlude what vessel?
pulmonary vein
54
what 2 structures form the diencephalon?
hypothalamus + thalamus
diencephalon = central core of cerebrum
--> has connections to right + left cerebral hemispheres
55
most common cause of acute appendicitis
faecolith obstruction
56
what makes C. Diff so hard to destroy?
spore formation
57
what would a biopsy of chronic inflammation look like?
```
angiogenesis - new blood vessels sprouting from orig
fibrosis
lymphocytes
macrophages
plasma cells
```
58
what blood test best reflects the synthetic function of the liver?
albumin
59
side effect of aspirin
haemorrhage - vomiting blood
60
if a patient tests positive using a screening test, which parameter would reflect the probability that the patient had the disease: specificity, sensitivity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value
positive predictive value
in FIT example question it was 5.2%
61
when might a mallory-weiss tear occur?
after severe bouts of vomiting (after party, drinking lots of buckfast)
--> there is usually little in the way of systemic disturbance or prior symptoms (no PMH)
62
which artery is the most likely source of bleeding from base of an ulcer in the second part of the duodenum?
gastroduodenal artery
close relationship to wall of second part of duodenum - deep ulcers may cause torrential bleeding from gastroduodenal artery ("artery of haemorrhages")
63
what would a biopsy of an ulcer look like?
granulation tissue with a layer of necrotic debris on it's surface
64
most common cause of mouth cancer
smoking
65
outbreak, person to person spread, can't wee
e coli 0157
66
which substance in the RAAS would be first to be secreted after an acute blood loss?
renin
--> decrease in blood pressure will be sensed by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney - this will cause renin secretion.
67
best first investigation to detect chromosomal imbalance in 4 y/o with learning difficulties
array comparative genomic hybridisation (array CGH)
68
52 y/o with hypertension, wakes up in night suddenly feeling SOB, has bi-basal crackles
best medication to rapidly relieve symptoms?
IV furosemide
69
metabolite of the arachadonic acid pathway released from eosinophils + mast cells which mediates airway smooth muscle constriction, increased vascular permeability + mucous secretion
leukotriene A4
70
acts on membrane bound beta-2 adrenoceptor on airway smooth muscle to mediate relaxation
adrenaline
noradrenaline = selectively stimulates beta-1 receptors (heart)
adrenaline = non selectively stimulates beta 1+2
71
what would the pulse rate of someone suffering shock from substantial blood loss be like?
fast
72
when would carotid sinus massage be used?
SVT - usually reserved for younger patients who have lower stroke risk
73
pneumonia in which lobes abut the heart boder?
right middle + left upper
74
contraction of which muscles would result in elevation of the section of the resp tract containing the vocal cords?
longitudinal muscles of the pharynx
--> elevate the larynx
75
accessory muscle of respiration due to its attachment to rib 1
scalenus anterior muscle
76
management of old woman with difficulty swallowing since suffering a cerebral vascular accident
percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube
77
management of motor neurone disease + recurrent aspiration pneumonia
radiologically inserted gastrostomy tube
78
process responsible for ketone development in states of insulin depletion
lipolysis
79
most inferior paired anterolateral branches of abdominal aorta
gonadal
80
what drug increases risk of C Diff?
proton pump inhibitors
81
whats cytogenic analysis?
analysis of chromosomal abnormalities
microscopic study of chromosomes in individual cells
82
investigation for GI parasites
stool microscopy
83
auscultation of lung apex, base + middle lobe
apex - root of neck, anterior, superior to medial 1/3 of clavicle
middle lobe - between ribs 4-6 in midclavicular + midaxillary lines
base = scapular line at T11 (POSTERIOR)
