Fund 16 and 17 2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

agent that is capable of killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms

A

antibiotic

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2
Q

substance capable of killing or suppressing the multiplication and growth of microorganisms

A

antimicrobial

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3
Q

Chemical compound used on skin or tissue to eliminate microorganisms

A

antiseptic

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4
Q

destruction and/or containment of infectious agents after they leave the body of a patient with an infectious disease

A

asepsis

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5
Q

free of microorganisms

A

aseptic

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6
Q

single-celled microorganisms lacking a nucleus, which can reproduce as quickly as every few minutes, depending on conditions

A

bacteria

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7
Q

agent that destroys infection-producing organisms

A

disinfectant

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8
Q

tiny, primitive organisms of the plant kingdom that contain no chlorophyll and reproduce by means of spores; present in soil, air, and water EX: yeast and mold

A

fungi

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9
Q

parasitic worms or flukes that belong to the animal kingdom. EX: roundworms and tapeworms and pinworms (most common in children)

A

helminths

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10
Q

reaction of the body to substances interpreted as non-self

A

immune response

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11
Q

biologic response modifier that affects cellular growth

A

interferon

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12
Q

the practice of reducing the number of organisms present or reducing the risk for transmission of organisms

A

medical asepsis

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13
Q

organism only visible with a microscope

A

microorganism

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14
Q

any disease-producing organism

A

pathogen

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15
Q

proteinaceous particles believed to be responsible for transmissible neurodegenerative diseases. Example is Creutzfeldt-jakob disease (a human version of mad cow disease)

A

prions

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16
Q

one-celled microscopic organisms belonging to the animal kingdom. Causes diarrhea

A

protozoa

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17
Q

Genus of small, rod-shaped to round microorganisms found inn tissue cells of lice, fleas, ticks, and mites and transmitted to humans by their bites. EX: rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus

A

Rickettsia

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18
Q

precautions that protect both the nurse and the patient from infection and are to be used for every patient contact

A

standard precautions

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19
Q

without pathologic organisms

A

sterile

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20
Q

the process of rendering an article free of microorganisms and their pathogenic products

A

sterilization

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21
Q

the practice of preparing and handling materials in a way that prevents the patient’s exposure to living microorganisms

A

surgical asepsis

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22
Q

Extremely small particles of nucleic acids, either DNA or RNA, with a coat of protein, and in some cases a membranous envelope, that can trigger an immune reaction or damage cells in other ways

A

viruses

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23
Q

Nonpathogenic organisms that are prevalent on and in the body are called ___. It prevents more harmful microorganisms from colonizing and multiplying within the body

A

normal flora

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24
Q

___ are responsible for the symptoms seen in diseases such as botulism, tetanus, diphtheria, and Escherichia coli infection. They are found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria, they are released when the cell ruptures. They stimulate fever inflammation, hypotension, and changes in blood clotting.

A

endotoxins

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25
Q

The specimen to be tested for bacteria is placed on a slide, stained, and then treated with a contrasting dye; those retaining the stain are ___, and those losing the stain and taking up the counterstain are ___.

A

Gram Positive ; Gram Negative

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26
Q

(know) many gram-negative bacteria are more dangerous than gram-positive bacteria because they may produce an endotoxin that can cause hemorrhagic shock and severe diarrhea and can alter resistance to other bacterial infection.

A

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27
Q

Classification of bacteria according to their morphology (shape) places and places them into groups (3 main and 3 others)

A
#1 cocci (round)
#2 bacilli (rod shaped)
#3 spirochetes (spiral)
#4 chains (streptococci)
#5 pairs (diplococci)
#6 clusters (staphylococci)
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28
Q

(know) you need to acquire a culture sensitivity before prescribing or giving an antibiotic

A

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29
Q

(know) The sensitivity results, available 48 to 72 hours after the culture, typically show the organism is resistant, susceptible, or has intermediate resistance. The nurse must be sure the primary care provider is aware of the sensitivity results in case treatment needs to be altered

A

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30
Q

What is the Chain of infection (6)

A
#1 causative agent
#2 reservoir
#3 portal of exit
#4 mode of transfer
#5 portal of entry
#6 susceptible host
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31
Q

What are the 4 stages of the infection process

A
#1 incubation
#2 prodrome
#3 illness
#4 convalescence
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32
Q

(know) the most effective means for destroying viruses and all other kinds of microorganisms is to expose them to a high temperature for a specified amount of time; the temperature should be at least 250F (121C) for 20 to 30 minutes if using a steam sterilizer, and at least 320F (160C) for 90 minutes to 3 hours if using dry sterilization. This can be accomplished by using a special machine called an autoclave

A

33
Q

(know) standard precautions are used to prevent the spread of infection from the reservoir

A

34
Q

(know) portal-of-exit transmission can be interrupted by identifying and treating infected patients. Isolation techniques and barrier precautions that include the proper handling and disposal of secretions, urine, feces, and exudate can prevent pathogen transfer

A

35
Q

What are the 5 modes of transfer of pathogens

A
#1 direct personal contact with body excretions or drainage such as from an infected wound
#2 indirect contact with contaminated inanimate objects
#3 vectors such as fleas, ticks, mosquitoes, and other insects that harbor infectious agents and transmit infection to humans through bites and stings
#4 droplet infection, or contamination by the aerosol route through sneezing and coughing
#5 spread of infection from one part of the body to another
36
Q

objects or materials which are likely to carry infection, such as clothes, utensils, and furniture.

A

fomites

37
Q

(know) influenza immunization is recommended YEARLY for all health care workers and anyone over 6 months of age

A

38
Q

Health-care associated infections are also called ___

A

nosocomial infection

39
Q

What are the 3 lines of defense, in order

A
#1 Skin
#2 Fever, inflammation, interferon
#3 Immune response
40
Q

Bactericidal. An enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of the cell walls of certain bacteria, occurring notably in tears and egg white.

A

lysozyme

41
Q

Once exposed to a microorganism, the body produces antibodies against that invader. ___ occurs. Examples are: varicella (chickenpox) and influenza

A

naturally acquired immunity

42
Q

___ occurs when a person is given an antitoxin or antiserum that contains antibodies or antitoxins that have been developed in another person. Example is : tetanus antitoxin

A

passive acquired immunity

43
Q

___ occurs when the fetus receives antibodies from the mother through placental blood before birth. This type of immunity is also acquired by the breastfeeding infant.

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

44
Q

___ is achieved through injection of vaccines or immunizing substances that contain dead or inactive microorganisms or their toxins. Examples are : vaccinations against polio, measles, hepatitis B, influenza, tetanus, and diphtheria

A

artificially acquired immunity

45
Q

___ is provided by injection with antibodies derived from the infected blood of people or animals

A

artificially acquired passive immunity

46
Q

(know) if contact with spores is likely to have occurred, wash hands with soap and water. The physical action of washing and rinsing hands is recommended because alcohols, chlorhexidine products, iodophors, and other antiseptic agents have poor activity against spores

A

47
Q

(know) perform hand hygiene before eating and after using the bathroom, bedpan, or commode. Wash hands thoroughly after handling raw meat. Use supermarket-provided sanitizing wipes to clean the grocery cart handle before using it. Perform hand hygiene after handling money

A

48
Q

(know) infectious disease can be controlled by interrupting the chain of infection at any link, thus breaking the transmission cycle. The CDC has developed Standard Precautions to facilitate breaking the chain of infection. These precautions protect both the nurse and the patient and are to be used for every patient contact; they include the use of hand hygiene and PPE

A

49
Q

How do you remove personal protective equipment in order? (6)

A
#1 Remove gloves
#2 Remove eyewear
#3 If used, remove head cover
#4 Remove gown
#5 Remove the face mask
#6 Perform hand hygiene
50
Q

(know) Wear an n95 respirator mask when entering an area where airborne microorganisms less than 5 microns in size are known to be present. Change the mask any time it becomes moist

A

51
Q

When do you wear eyewear?

A
#1 performing oral care
#2 nasotracheal
#3 performing wound irrigations
#4 performing or assisting with procedures in which blood or other body fluids might splatter
52
Q

What are the 6 steps to cleaning an object?

A
#1 Rinse the object with cold water to remove organic material
#2 wash the object in hot, soapy water
#3 Use a stiff-bristled brush or abrasive to clean equipment with grooves and narrow spaces
#4 rinse the object well with moderately hot water
#5 dry the object
#6 disinfect the cleaning equipment and the sink when you have finished cleaning soiled objects
53
Q

A ___ solution destroys bacteria

A

bactericidal

54
Q

A ___ solution prevents the growth and reproduction of some bacteria

A

bacteriostatic

55
Q

What are the 5 methods of sterilization

A
#1 steam under pressure (moist heat)
#2 dry heat (hot air)
#3 ethylene oxide
#4 liquid chemicals (low temperature gas plasma)
#5 hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (radiation)
56
Q

Patients at high risk for infection are : (7)

A
#1 weakened by injury or severe illness
#2 have another chronic illness
#3 have a central venous catheter, IV cannula, indwelling drainage tube, or endotracheal tube for mechanical ventilation
#4 are very young or very old
#5 have an open wound
#6 have a surgical incision
#7 have a compromised immune system from chemotherapy or immunosuppression
57
Q

the process of recovering after an illness and regaining health

A

convalescence period

58
Q

the third stage of infection, where localized and systemic signs and symptoms appear

A

illness period

59
Q

Not affording a passage

A

impervious

60
Q

the time from invasion of the body by the microorganisms to the onset of symptoms

A

incubation period

61
Q

the use of medical and surgical asepsis and standard precautions to prevent or control the spread of microorganisms

A

infection prevention and control

62
Q

discomfort, uneasiness, or indisposition, often indicative of infection

A

malaise

63
Q

early or very beginning stage of an illness

A

prodromal period

64
Q

According to the IHI (2012), institute for healthcare improvement, health care providers can decrease the incidence of VAP (ventilator acquired pneumonia) by: (5)

A
#1 elevate head of bed 30 to 45 degrees
#2 reduce sedation for assessing the patient's ability to breath independently
#3 Prophylaxis for preventing peptic ulcer disease
#4 prophylaxis for preventing deep vein thrombosis
#5 daily oral care using chlorhexidine, an antimicrobial oral rinse
65
Q

(know) isolation is a means of preventing contact between a patient and others to prevent the spread of infection. Emphasis is placed on containing microorganisms and preventing their spread

A

66
Q

What precaution would you use for Measles (rubella), Varicella (including disseminated zoster), and pulmonary tuberculosis

A

airborne precautions

67
Q

What precautions would you use for invasive haemophilus influenzae type B disease (meningitis, pneumonia, and epiglottitis), invasive Neisseria meningitidis disease (meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis), diphtheria (pharyngeal), Mycoplasma pneumonia, pertussis, and pneumonic plague, streptococcal (group A) pharyngitis, pneumonia, or scarlet fever

A

droplet precautions

68
Q

When do you need to wear a mask regarding droplet precaution patients

A

When you are within 3 feet of the patient

69
Q

What type of precaution would you use for gastrointestinal, respiratory, skin, or wound infections or colonization with multidrug-resistant organisms. Enteric infections like Clostridium difficile. For diapered or incontinent patients, enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli, shigella, hepatitis A, or rotavirus infection. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), parainfluenza virus, or enteroviral infections. Skin infections that occurs with dry skin, herpes simplex virus, impetigo, major abscesses, cellulitis, pressure injuries, pediculosis, scabies, staphylococcal furunculus’s, zoster. Viral or hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, Ebola, Lassa, or Marburg virus

A

contact precautions

70
Q

___ delineate methods for avoiding direct contact with all body secretions except sweat, whether or not visible blood is present. This includes the mucous membranes and all nonintact skin

A

standard precautions

71
Q

___ are based on interrupting the mode of transmission by identifying the specific secretions, body fluids, tissues, or excretions that might be infective.

A

transmission-based precautions

72
Q

How do you don PPE in order (4)

A
#1 gown
#2 mask
#3 goggles
#4 gloves
73
Q

Steps to collecting specimen

A
#1 verify provider order and complete lab form
#2 label the specimen container
#3 Don gloves
#4 collect specimen
#5 apply the lid
#6 disinfect containers
#7 place in specimen bag
#8 complete the lab requisition form and place it in the envelope pocket on specimen bag
74
Q

(know) Wash your hands before eating; before, during, and after handling or preparing food; before dressing a wound, giving medicine, or inserting contact lenses; after contact with body fluids or blood; after changing a diaper; after using the bathroom; after handling animals or their toys, leashes, or waste; after handling anything contaminated, such as trash, drainage, or soil

A

75
Q

(know) the bathroom should be cleaned daily with standard household cleaning agent or a 1:10 solution of chlorine bleach water

A

76
Q

What are the 4 rules of surgical asepsis

A
#1 know what is sterile
#2 know what is not sterile
#3 separate sterile from unsterile
#4 remedy contamination immediately
77
Q

(know) the goal in surgical asepsis is to keep an area free of microorganisms

A

78
Q

(know) a 2 to 4 minute scrub is average

A

79
Q

What are the principles to observe when opening sterile packages? (

A
#1 perform hand hygiene
#2 open the sterile kit away from the body
#3 Touch only the outside of the wrapper
#4 Do not reach across a sterile field
#5 Always face the sterile field, even when moving to the other side
#6 allow sufficient space (at least 6 inches) between the body and the sterile field