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DAT Biology > DAT Destroyer Bio Section > Flashcards

DAT Destroyer Bio Section Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Assuming Hardy- Weinberg conditions, a certain disease has an incidence of 1 in 10,000. The disease is autosomal recessive. What is the carrier frequency?
A

1 in 50

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2
Q
  1. Consider the cell membrane. It is often said it can act as an insulator. The reason is that:
A

Lipids that comprise it are uncharged

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3
Q
  1. Consider a population of rodents in which a black tail (B) is dominant to a bald tail (b). If black tail shows 64% of the population, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?
A

0.40

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4
Q
  1. Which cell will normally give lactate as the end product of glycolysis?
A

Erythrocyte

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5
Q
  1. Consider the start codon AUG. In a mitochondrion, this codon will code for which amino acid?
A

N-formyl methionine

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6
Q
  1. A mycorrhiza is a:
A

Fungus-plant relationship

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7
Q
  1. Which vitamin is called the “sunshine vitamin” and is most closely associated with calcium absorption and made by the skin?
A

Vitamin D

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8
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
A

A bacteriostatic drug kills bacterium at drug serum levels in a patient

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9
Q
  1. Which anatomical term is incorrectly matched?
A

Proximal: farthest from the beginning of a structure

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10
Q
  1. Molecular chaperones are involved with the folding and unfolding of proteins. They assist in the formation of proteins:
A

Tertiary structure

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11
Q
  1. The shaft of a long bone is called the:
A

Diaphysis

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12
Q
  1. Which disease is incorrectly matched?
A

Cushing’s syndrome: a decrease in cortisol production is noted

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13
Q
  1. What is true regarding hyperpolarization?
A

K+ ions diffuse out of the cell

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14
Q
  1. Biome distribution is most affected by:
A

Soil type, climate, and topography

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15
Q
  1. The use of cocaine will increase ______ in the synapse and lead to a euphoria:
A

Dopamine

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16
Q
  1. Hypophosphatemia is a pathology in which phosphate deficiency is noted. This pathology causes rickets, or bow- leggedness. A normal woman marries a male with hypophosphatemia. The couple has 2 sons that are normal and 2 daughters that have this disease. What type of disease is this?
A

X- linked dominant

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17
Q
  1. A geneticist discovered that a mother had 69 chromosomes rather than the normal 46 chromosomes in each cell. This rare chromosomal abnormality is best termed:
A

Triploidy

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18
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
A

The pia mater contains few blood vessels but is rich in proteins and lipids

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19
Q
  1. Which is incorrectly matched?
A

Ventricles: deep grooves highly abundant in sensory neurons

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following possess a homodont dentition?
A

A reptile

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21
Q
  1. A Haversian canal, with its surrounding lacunae, canaliculi, concentric lamellae, and osteocytes in compact bone constitutes an:
A

Osteon

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22
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
A

Globular proteins are hydrophobic and include hemoglobin and myoglobin

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23
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
A

a) Protobionts include liposomes, coacervates, and proteinoid microspheres
b) The first plovers of life may have formed on clay or hot rocks
c) They Urey- miller experiment tested the hypothesis of how life began on Earth
d) The Urey- miller experiment established the possibility that life arose from abiotic (nonliving) production of biomolecules
e) None. All statements are true

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24
Q
  1. Consider the zona pellucida which is a jelly coating composed of glycoproteins designated as ZP1, ZP2, and ZP3. Binding to which of them would allow sperm to adhere to the zona pellucida?
A

ZP3

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following are true?
A

The posterior pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex target the same organ

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26
Q
  1. Which is false regarding the law of parsimony?
A

The optimal phylogenetic tree will maximize the amount of homoplasy

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27
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
A

a) A small bug that changes its movement rate in response to humidity is called kinesis
b) Taxis is a directional behavior toward or away from a stimulus
c) Migration refers to a long-distance location change which is often seasonal to attain a more favorable environment
d) An organism can exhibit phototaxis, where it moves toward or away from a light source
e) All statements are true

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28
Q
  1. Short RNA sequences that were complementary to a single-stranded piece of DNA was produced by ______
A

Primase

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29
Q
  1. Phosphates have been restricted for extensive use in laundry detergents and pesticides mainly because:
A

They cause the growth of plants and microorganisms

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30
Q
  1. A mule is the offspring of a male donkey and a female horse. If the donkey has 2N=62 and the horse has 2N=64, the mule will have a 2N of?
A

63

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31
Q
  1. A student did an investigation on allium cells. Which of the following was most likely studied?
A

Onion cells

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32
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
A

Most fish have gills, except for the jawless fish known as Agnatha

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33
Q
  1. Many motorcycle enthusiasts seem to gravitate towards tattoos. The tattoo needle when properly done should penetrate into which layer of the skin?
A

Dermis

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34
Q
  1. What is the largest internal organ?
A

Liver

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35
Q
  1. The concentric rings of bone matrix found in compact and cancellous (spongy) bone are called:
A

Lamellae

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36
Q
  1. Dino the dinosaur most likely lived:
A

230 million years ago

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37
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
A

a) Actin and myosin have essential roles in cytokinesis
b) If a chemical destroyed actin and myosin cytokinesis would be halted
c) The cleavage furrow is the first sign of cleavage in a cell
d) Cytokinesis in plants involves a cell plate
e) All statements are true

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38
Q
  1. Examples of second messenger molecules:
A

a) IP3
b) DAG
c) cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP
d) Ca++ ions

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39
Q
  1. Cri du Chat syndrome is due to the deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 and is associated with an array of congenital problems such as abnormal development of facial structures, gastrointestinal malformations, and infants that make crying sounds like a cat meowing. This syndrome is due to:
A

Partial trisomy

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40
Q
  1. Four test tubes containing thioglycollate broth were prepared to examine bacterial growth. The results are as follows:

Tube 1: growth appears at the top of the test tube
Tube 2: growth appears at the bottom of the test tube
Tube 3: growth appears scattered at the top and the bottom, but slightly more at the tp
Tube 4: growth appears in the upper portion of the test tube, but not the very top

Which statement is true?

A

a) Tube 1 contains obligate aerobic bacteria
b) Tube 2 contains obligate anaerobic bacteria
c) Tube 3 contains facultative anaerobic bacteria
d) Tube 4 contains microaerophiles
e) All are correct

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41
Q
  1. Penicillins inhibit bacteria to:
A

Synthesize cell walls

42
Q
  1. Pictured below is the Ebola virus which has received much attention in late 2014. Which statement is incorrect?
A

Ebola targets mainly red blood cells which cause the patient to bleed uncontrollably

43
Q
  1. Which statement is false regarding the lungs?
A

The right lung and left lung vary in size, however, the right lung is usually smaller

44
Q
  1. The sensory or afferent neuron is most associated with:
A

Receptor cells

45
Q
  1. Which technique will best allow a researcher to examine genes in a particular cell type, and determine if they are expressed?
A

DNA microarray technology

46
Q
  1. Which is true about insulin, a hormone made by pancreatic beta cells?
A

a) Stimulates glycogenesis
b) Inhibite gluconeogenesis
c) Stimulates fatty acid synthesis
d) A and B
e) All are true

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is a monotreme?
A

Paulie the Platypus

48
Q
  1. Which is true about chitin?
A

a) Chitin is found in the cell wall of many fungi
b) Chitin is a polysaccharide containing nitrogen
c) Chitin forms the exoskeleton of arthropods
d) Chitin contains a glucose molecule with a nitrogen-containing group
e) All are correct

49
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect regarding the sodium-potassium pump?
A

Inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump causes a lower Na+ concentration inside the cell

50
Q
  1. Which valve is at the junction of the small and large intestine?
A

Ileocecal valve

51
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. The alkaloid colchicine blocks the mitotic cycle of plants and animals
    B. Colchicine inhibits microtubule activity
    C. Microtubules are essential for mitosis
    D. The mitotic spindle consists of microtubules and associated proteins
    E. Colchicine will accelerate mitosis
A

E. Colchicine will accelerate mitosis

52
Q
  1. Which is true regarding the thyroid gland?
    A. Thyroid hormones contain iodine and cannot be produced without it
    B. The mammalian thyroid gland contains cells that secrete calcitonin, which lowers calcium levels in the blood
    C. Thyroxin and triiodothyronine are thyroid hormones containing iodine
    D. If radioactive I-131 is ingested with water it will concentrate in the thyroid
    E. All are correct
A

E. All are correct

53
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. ACTH is made by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids
    B. The three stages of cell signaling include acetylation, translocation, and response
    C. In paracrine cell signaling, a secreted molecule targets a neighboring cell. In autocrine signaling, a secreted molecule triggers a response in the cells that secrete them
    D. Somatostatin is involved with inhibiting insulin and glucagon
    E. None. All statements are true
A

B. The three stages of cell signaling include acetylation, translocation, and response

54
Q
  1. The _____ is continuous with the nuclear envelope.
A

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

55
Q
  1. Hemophilia is a sex-linked trait. If a woman has this blood-clotting disorder, what can be said for certain?
A

C. The father and son of this woman are hemophiliac

56
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    A. Down-regulation occurs when there are excessive amounts of transmitter molecules available over a period of time, and a decrease in the receptor sites are notes
    B. Up-regulation occurs when receptors are created or expressed by the DNA of a cell
    C. When exposed to a toxin, the liver increases its production of cytochrome p450 enzymes. This is an example of up-regulation
    D. A heroin addict needs a higher amount of the drug. The desensitized post-synaptic neurons need increased heroin amounts to obtain the opioid effect. This is an example of a down regulation
    E. All are true
A

E. All are true

57
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. The proportion of euchromatin to heterochromatin accounts for the light-to-dark appearance of a nucleus when examined by microscopy
    B. Heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in eukaryotic cells, as well as prokaryotic cells
    C. Heterochromatin is the condensed inactive form of chromatin that stains deeply and is involved in regulation and protection of the chromosomal integrity
    D. Euchromatin is less coiled than heterochromatin and represents the active form of chromatin by participating in transcription
    E. None of these are false. All statements are correct.
A

B. Heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in eukaryotic cells, as well as prokaryotic cells

58
Q
  1. In alcoholic fermentation, the final electron acceptor can be?
A

C. an organic compound (pyruvate)

59
Q
  1. Consider the following:
    Statement 1: A type of development in which the young hatch from eggs laid outside the mother’s body is called oviparous.
    Statement 2: A type of development in which the young hatch from eggs that are retained in the mother’s uterus is called ovoviviparous.
A

B. Both statements are true

60
Q
  1. ____ are cells in many fish, amphibians, and reptiles that have the ability to absorb or reflect any and all colors of the spectrum. These cells are located in the ___
A

iridophore cells; dermis

61
Q 
61. A patient was diagnosed with a tumor of the parathyroid gland which resulted in hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following would be most likely elevated?
A. Fe++
B. Ca++
C. Sr++
D. K+
E. O2
A

B. Ca++

62
Q
  1. Norepinephrine and epinephrine are examples of a:
A

Catecholamine

63
Q
  1. If ATP is formed by an enzyme that directly transfers a phosphate group to ADP from an intermediate substrate in a catabolic process, the correct term is:
A

C. Substrate-level phosphorylation

64
Q 
64. Which particle-life form is smallest?
A. Frog egg
B. Pollen grain
C. Adenovirus
D. E. coli
E. Erythrocyte
A

C. Adenovirus

65
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    A. Transcription involves 3 stages: initiation, elongation, termination
    B. In eukaryotes, a 5’ cap is added to protect the phosphate groups from enzymatic degradation during post-transcriptional modification
    C. A poly A tail is added to the 3’ end which protects the mRNA from enzymatic degradation during post-transcriptional modification
    D. snRNP’s and associated proteins form a molecular complex called a spliceosome on pre-mRNA that contains both introns and exons
    E. All statements are true
A

E. All statements are true

66
Q
  1. Consider the two photos are pick the correct response:
A

D. A was taken by a transmission electron microscope; B was taken by a scanning electron microscope

67
Q
  1. Consider the following morula at the 8-cell stage. Each individual cell is called a:
A

B. Blastomere

68
Q
  1. Which statement regarding kidney physiology is false?
    A. A decreased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles
    B. Blood flow is decreased with afferent arteriole vasoconstriction
    C. An increased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles
    D. Sympathetic innervations primarily affect the afferent arterioles and decreases the volume of urine flow
    E. All statements are true
A

E. All statements are true

69
Q 
69. Which of the below molecules exert its action within the target cell by only interacting with cell-surface receptors?
A. Estrogen
B. Testosterone
C. Progesterone
D. Insulin
E. More than one of these
A

D. Insulin

70
Q
  1. Which is unique to angiosperms?
A

C. Double fetilization

71
Q
  1. Which statement is false regarding an earthworm?
    A. An earthworm is an invertebrate
    B. Earthworms have no respiratory organs, thus respiration takes place through moist skin
    C. Moist skin is needed for O2 to passively diffuse
    D. Earthworms usually thrive in areas of high salt content
    E. All are true
A

D. Earthworms usually thrive in areas of high salt content

72
Q
  1. Connective tissue binds and supports different types of tissues and organs. Which germ layer is it derived from?
A

C. Mesoderm

73
Q
  1. Which process is common to both aerobic and anaerobic organisms?
A

C. Glycolysis

74
Q
  1. Identical twins are made possible due to:
A

B. Indeterminate cleavage

75
Q
  1. A biology student added I2-KI reagent to an unknown compound dissolved in water in a test tube. The solution turned blue-black. The unknown compound is most likely?
A

B. Amylose (starch)

76
Q
  1. Which vessel carries blood away from the liver toward the heart?
A

B. Hepatic vein

77
Q 
77. Which of the below processes represents the key event that leads to the association of a protein with a proteasome?
A. Phosphorylation
B. Methylation
C. Glycosylation
D. Ubiquitination
E. Acetylation
A

D. Ubiquitination

78
Q
  1. A patient is examined for liver disease and has jaundice, a yellow coloring of the skin. What may be the cause of the yellow coloring?
A

B. Excess bilirubin

79
Q
  1. Which is true regarding altitudinal zones?
    A. Regarding elevation, alpine>sub-alpine>montane>lowlands
    B. Altitudinal zones depend on such factors as sunlight, soil composition, temperature, and elevation
    C. Spruce, Fir, and Pine trees are especially noted in the montane zone
    D. Generally speaking, species number decreases with increasing elevation
    E. All are correct
A

E. All are correct

80
Q
  1. Which is incorrectly matched regarding marine zones?
    A. Benthic zone: The bottom surface of the sea floor
    B. Pelagic zone: open waters of any depth
    C. Aphotic zone: photosynthetic plants
    D. Intertidal zone: land meets water
    E. Photic zone: Zooplankton
A

C. Aphotic zone: photosynthetic plants

81
Q
  1. A certain population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of the allele b is 0.2. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
A

A. 4

82
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. Six turns of the Calvin cycle produce glucose in photosynthesis
    B. The stroma of the chloroplast contains the Calvin cycle enzymes
    C. The products of the light reaction of photosynthesis include ATP, O2, NADPH
    D. Chlorophylls and carotenoids are two pigments used in photosynthesis
    E. Autotrophs are unable to make their own food; they include plants
A

E. Autotrophs are unable to make their own food; they include plants

83
Q
  1. Which is incorrectly matched?
    A. Retina: rods and cones
    B. Ciliary muscle: adjusts lens shape in the eye
    C. Papillary muscle: Muscle associated with the heart
    D. Papillae: Projections on tongue surface
    E. All are correct
A

E. All are correct

84
Q 
84. Which is true of an echinoderm?
A. They include starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers
B. Adults display radial symmetry
C. No segmentation
D. They are invertebrates
E. All are true
A

E. All are true

85
Q
  1. A hummingbird looks very similar to a sunbird. Hummingbirds live in North and South America, while the sunbird is from Asia and Africa. This is an example of:
A

B. Convergent Evolution

86
Q
  1. Which statement(s) is true?
    A. Erythropoietin is a hormone released primarily from the kidneys and will stimulate red blood cell formation in the bone marrow
    B. Platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes develop from a common source; namely a pluripotent stem cell
    C. A stroke is the death of nervous tissue in the brain
    D. A thrombus is a blood clot that forms in a vessel abnormally
    E. All are true
A

E. All are true

87
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. In terms of cellular abundance: erythrocytes > platelets > leukocytes
    B. An injured cell may release histamine which cause white blood cells to migrate out of blood capillaries
    C. A cancerous cell known as a myeloma may be cultured indefinitely
    D. A lymphocyte may be fused with a myeloma to produce a hydridoma
    E. All are true
A

E. All are true

88
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. The pancreas can function as an endocrine and an exocrine gland
    B. Norepinephrine can act as a hormone and a neurotransmitter
    C. The adrenal gland produces hormones such as epinephrine, aldosterone, and cortisol
    D. In insects, molting and metamorphosis are regulated by the hormone ecdysone
    E. Prostaglandins are modified proteins involved in inflammation, pain and fever
A

E. Prostaglandins are modified proteins involved in inflammation, pain and fever

89
Q
  1. A normal woman marries a man that has an autosomal dominant disorder called polydactyly. The man is heterozygous. Polydactyly manifests itself in giving rise to individuals with extra toes or fingers. What is the probability for this couple to have a normal child?
A

A. 50%

90
Q
  1. Which statement is false regarding pregnancy?
    A. The first trimester is the main period in which organs are formed
    B. At approximately 8 weeks, the embryo is called a fetus
    C. At 5 weeks eyes, heart, liver, pancreas, and limb buds have begun development
    D. During the second trimester, the embryo is most sensitive to drugs and radiation
    E. All are true
A

D. During the second trimester, the embryo is most sensitive to drugs and radiation

91
Q
  1. Located in the plasma membrane, a scientist noted an integral transmembrane protein that consisted of 2 alpha and 2 beta subunits joined by a disulfide bond. If the scientist needed to disrupt the dimer for study, what conditions would most likely be employed?
A

B. Reducing conditions

92
Q
  1. An enzyme capable of unwinding a DNA duplex is called:
A

B. Helicase

93
Q
  1. A bacterial protein cleaves DNA at specific sites to help defend against an invader such as a virus. Which correctly identifies this “biochemical scissor”?
A

A. Restriction endonuclease

94
Q
  1. Which statement is false regarding bacteria?
    A. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi
    B. Pilli and cellular appendages that are involved in the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells is called conjugation
    C. Certain gram positive bacteria can form endospores which allow the bacteria to be resistant to hot, cold, chemicals, radiation, and other environmental extremes
    D. Endospores prevent bacterial proliferation
    E. All are true
A

D. Endospores prevent bacterial proliferation

95
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes populate lymph nodes
    B. Natural killer cells are not phagocytic
    C. The largest phagocytic cells are the macrophages which may be found in the lymph nodes
    D. About 10% of white blood cells are comprised by neutrophils
    E. All are true
A

D. About 10% of white blood cells are comprised by neutrophils

96
Q
  1. Parallel evolution in separate lineages caused the flipper of a dolphin to resemble the flipper of a penguin, and the structures had similar functions. These structures are called:
A

B. analagous structures

97
Q 
97. Which of the following would NOT cause a deviation in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. Mutation
B. Small population size
C. Meiosis
D. Natural selection
E. Founder and bottleneck effect
A

C. Meiosis

98
Q
  1. Consider the fact that spiders spin webs, animals flock together, and fish swim together. Which term best applies?
A

C. Fixed-action pattern

99
Q
  1. Which statement is false?
    A. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow
    B. The lymphatic system returns fluid and protein to the blood
    C. Lymph is a colorless, watery fluid that travels through the lymph system and carries lymphocytes
    D. The spleen is an organ that makes lymphocytes, filters the blood, stores blood cells, and destroys old blood cells
    E. Monocytes make up the majority of white blood cells in the blood
A

E. Monocytes make up the majority of white blood cells in the blood

100
Q
  1. What makes up the bulk of a tooth?
A

E. Dentin

DAT Biology (27 decks)

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