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DAT Biology > stuff i got wrong/need more review > Flashcards

stuff i got wrong/need more review Flashcards

1
Q

A cell from a tadpole embryo’s eye was removed and then placed onto its tail region. This resulted in surrounding cells of that region of the tail differentiating into corneal cells. What term best describes this phenomenon?

A

Induction

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2
Q

Induction

A

describes the embryonic process in which one group of cells influences what neighboring immature cells become in the future

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3
Q

Metaplasia

A

transformation of one differentiated somatic cell type to another differentiated somatic cell type

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4
Q

Dysplasia

A

presence of any of the various types of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ, can be a precursor to cancerous growth

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5
Q

Cell plasticity

A

describes the ability of some cells to take on the characteristics of other cells in an organism - ex: adult bone marrow cells to convert to cells of other tissues

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6
Q

Metamorphosis

A

describes an abrupt and conspicuous change in animals after birth or hatching

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7
Q

Which technique determines which genes are actively expressed in a cell?

A

DNA microarray

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8
Q

Gel electrophoresis allows you to:

A

separate macromolecules (DNA, RNA, proteins) by size and charge

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9
Q

ELISA

A

technology to determine if a specific antigen exists

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10
Q

Karyotyping

A

Tool to count the number of chromosomes in a cell

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11
Q

What adaptations do herbivores have that aid them with their diet that carnivores do not have?

A

Large cecum and long intestines - since they eat a lot of cellulose (fiber) compared to carnivores

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12
Q

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
A. Regulation of blood pH
B. Rising levels of estrogen stimulate a surge of luteinizing hormone
C. Blood platelet accumulation in blood vessels
D. Release of oxytocin during childbirth
E. Release of oxytocin during lactation

A

A. Regulation of blood pH

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13
Q

A species of plant from Wyoming is artificially introduced to a marsh in New Jersey. It manages to reproduce and maintain a population, and is not disruptive to surrounding plant communities. How should this plant be categorized?

A

Naturalized

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14
Q

What is a naturalized species?

A

non-native species that spreads beyond the place of introduction, and whose introduction is sufficient to maintain its population.

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15
Q

True or false: naturalized species can become invasive

A

True - if they become sufficiently abundant to have an adverse effect on native plants and animals

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16
Q

What is a non-native species?

A

A species that lives outside its native distributional range, but arrived there by human activity (deliberately or accidentally)

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17
Q

Some non-native species called ____ ____ have a substantial negative effect on the local ecosystem

A

invasive species

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18
Q

Exotic species

A

also known as a non-native species

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19
Q

Desmosomes is a type of:

A

anchoring junction

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20
Q

Desmosomes allow adhesion of:

A

cell to cell

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21
Q

Hemidesmosomes allow adhesion of:

A

cell to extracellular matrix

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22
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Chordata?
A. Post-anal tail
B. Notochord
C. Diploblastic
D. Pharyngeal gill slits
A

B. Diploblastic

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23
Q

Chordata is characterized as?

A

bilateral triploblastic deuterostomes

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24
Q

Triploblastic organisms have ___ germ layers:

A

three; endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

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25
Q

True or false: all bilaterians are triploblastic

A

True

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26
Q

What is a notochord?

A

cartilaginous rod that support the body of chordates when in embryonic stage

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27
Q

In most vertebrates, notochord is replaced by:

A

bone

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28
Q

What characteristics do chordates have? (4)

A
  1. notochord
  2. pharyngeal gill slits
  3. dorsal hollow nerve cord
  4. post-anal tail
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29
Q

Dorsal hollow nerve cord develops into:

A

spinal cord

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30
Q

What chordate structure goes on to form the basis of the nervous system?

A

dorsal hollow nerve cord

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31
Q

Pharyngeal gill slits go on to form the:

A

pharynx, gills, or other feeding systems

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32
Q

What happens to the post-anal tail during development?

A

lost during embryonic development of humans and many other chordates

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33
Q

____ are diploblastic

A

Cnidaria

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34
Q

Ingestion of ___ stimulates the release of cholecystokinin

A

Fats

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35
Q

What is the function of MHC II molecule?

A

display foreign antigens on the plasma membrane

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36
Q

Which cells display MHC II on their cell surface?

A

dendritic cells and macrophages (They are antigen-presenting cells APCs)

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37
Q

Contractile vacuoles excreting excess water is a type of ____ transport

A

active

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38
Q

Where are contractile vacuoles found?

A

organisms living in hypotonic environments where water passively diffuses along its conc. gradient

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39
Q

What is a method marine fish use to maintain homeostasis?

A

Constantly drink water

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40
Q

What is the purpose of a linkage map?

A

probability two genes get inherited together

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41
Q

If two genes show a recombination frequency that is anything less than 50%:

A

the genes are linked

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42
Q

What is a ribozyme?

A

Complex of RNA molecules that are capable of catalysis

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43
Q

What is the product of indeterminate cleavage?

A

Totipotent cell

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44
Q

True or false: Polarity of an egg is relevant to the type or products of cell cleavage that occurs.

A

False - polarity is irrelevant (whether animal or vegetal pole forms)

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45
Q

Totipotent cells can give rise to:

A

cells that can individually complete normal development

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46
Q

Determinate cleavage produces:

A

cells that have a decided fate, no longer totipotent

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47
Q

Pluripotent cells can differentiate into:

A

any of the 3 germ layers

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48
Q

Example of totipotent cells

A

zygote to morula

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49
Q

Pluripotent cells example

A

blastula to 3 germ layers

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50
Q

Multipotent cells can divide and differentiate into:

A

some of the 3 germ layers but not all (stem cell –> new brain cells)

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51
Q

____ cells can be produced through determinate cleavage

A

Pluripotent

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52
Q

Hemizygous

A

describes having only one copy of an allele instead of the typical two copies

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53
Q

What do yeast produce in an anaerobic environment that they do not produce in the presence of oxygen?

A

Ethanol

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54
Q

What is bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts break down the tissue in bones –> leads to increase in circulating calcium and phosphorous levels

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55
Q

Polycythemia

A

increase in number or red blood cells in the body

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56
Q

What occurs in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

Follicle develops into the corpus luteum

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57
Q

What accurately explains why along the same period, a non-metal has a smaller atomic radius than a metal?

A

Non-metals have a higher effective nuclear charge

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58
Q

Which of the following liquids would have the highest volatility?

A

A liquid with london dispersion forces

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59
Q

Volatility

A

Ability of a liquid to evaporate

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60
Q

As volatility increases, boiling point:

A

decreases

61
Q

Half life equation

A

Amount remaining = (original amt)(1/2)^t

t = number of half lives

62
Q 
If a fire breaks out in a lab, all of the following should be done EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Turn on the fire alarm
B. Leave as soon as possible
C. Notify teaching assistant
D. Turn off all instruments
A

D. Turn off all instruments

63
Q

Do diastereomers have unique physical properties?

A

Yes - therefore can separate them from one another by physical means

64
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

Heterozygous phenotype results in an intermediate between two phenotypes

65
Q

Codominance

A

contributions of both alleles will be seen. ex: blood types

66
Q

Pleiotropy

A

one gene affects many different traits

67
Q

Polygenic inheritance

A

multiple genes affect one trait with continuous variation

68
Q

Epistasis

A

Expression of one gene affects the expression of a second (ex: hair production –> hair color)

69
Q

Kupffer cells

A

macrophages of the liver; help in the breakdown of RBCs

70
Q

Langerhans cells

A

macrophages of the skin

71
Q

Microglial cells

A

Macrophages of the CNS

72
Q

ribozymes

A

RNA molecules that are capable of catalytic activity

73
Q

What part of the inner ear is directly responsible for transducing a sound wave into a neuronal signal?

A

Cochlea

74
Q

Stapes is part of the:

A

ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes)

75
Q

Tympanic membrane transfers:

A

vibrations of pulsatile sound waves from the outer ear to the middle ear (to the ossicles)

76
Q

What does the stapes connect to?

A

Oval window

77
Q

Where are microspores produced in an angiosperm?

A

Anther

78
Q

Microspores produced by angiosperms develop into:

A

male gametophytes

79
Q

True or false: ferns produce two types of spores

A

False - only one, bisexual gametophyte

80
Q

What are megaspores?

A

female gametophytes of heterosporous plants

81
Q

What does the pistil contain?

A

ovary (ovules inside), stigma, style

82
Q

What is the stamen?

A

Male plant sex organ - composed of an anther and a filament that supports the anther

83
Q

Pollen is made of:

A

generative cell inside a tube cell

84
Q

The microspore undergoes mitosis to form:

A

generative cell and tube cell

85
Q

What happens when pollen lands on stigma of another plant?

A
  1. tube cell elongates down the style towards the ovary
  2. pollen tube is formed
  3. male gametes meet female gametes to form a seed at the ovule
86
Q

Where is acetyl-coA produced in eukaryotes?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

87
Q

Which adrenal cortex hormone increases blood pressure?

A

Aldosterone

88
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Increases Na+ reabsorption in the excretory system which causes water to be reabsorbed. this increases blood volume and blood pressure

89
Q

Renin function

A

Increases blood pressure. Secreted by juxtaglomerular cells (not adrenal cortex)

90
Q

Adrenal cortex secretes:

A
  1. glucocorticoids (cortisol)
  2. mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
  3. small amount of sex hormones (androgens and estrogen)
91
Q

Secretin is produced by the:

A

Duodenum

92
Q

Purpose of secretin

A

stimulate pancreas to release bicarbonate to neutralize acidic chyme

93
Q

Liver produces:

A

glycogen

94
Q

If nondisjunction occurs during the first meiotic division of an oocyte, what are the possible number of chromosomes in the resulting zygote after this oocyte is fertilized?

A

45, 47

95
Q

Hybridization

A

occurs when some hybrids are more fit than purebreds

96
Q

balanced polymorphism

A

different phenotypes isolated within the same area

97
Q

Sympatric speciation occurs:

A

without geographical barrier

98
Q

Requirements for natural selection:

A
  1. more demand than supply
  2. Difference in levels of fitness due to variation in traits
  3. Variation in traits must be genetically heritable
  4. variation in traits must be significant for reproduction/survival
99
Q 
All of the following are ways to achieve sympatric speciation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Balanced polymorphism
B. Gamete isolation
C. Polyploidy
D. Hybridization
A

B. Gamete isolation

100
Q

Gamete isolation

A

gametes cannot recognize and fertilize each other - prevents 2 species from interbreeding after they have already been separated and formed different species

101
Q

An individual who is color-blind most likely has some deficiency in which part of the eye?

A

Cones

102
Q

Rods

A

Most sensitive to light but not sensitive to color. They allow us to see in the dark and help with peripheral vision

103
Q

The posterior pituitary stores and releases:

A

ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin

104
Q

The anterior pituitary produces and releases:

A

FLAT PiG (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, GH)

105
Q

What term best describes animals that mate only once in their lifetime?

A

Semelparity (Only mate once = Sad = Semelparity)

106
Q

Iteroparity

A

animals that will mate many times during their lifetimes

107
Q

Which organelle would pellet first during centrifugation?

A

Nucleus - this is because it is the largest and most dense organelle in the cell and will pellet first

108
Q

A student is examining a crystalline solid. Which of the following findings would be most expected during analysis of this substance?
A. Short range order of atoms
B. Sharp, well-defined melting temperature
C. Malleable shape deformation
D. Random lattice structure
E. Irregular breakage patterns

A

B. Sharp, well-defined melting temperature

109
Q

State functions

A

Enthalpy, volume, mass and Gibbs free energy

110
Q

___ is a path function

A

Work and heat

111
Q

If partial pressure of a gas is tripled, the solubility will:

A

also triple. They are directly related

112
Q

Rank the following in order of decreasing first ionization energy (highest first ionization energy to lowest first ionization energy):
N
Li
O

A

N > O > Li

Remember that N will have a higher first ionization energy than oxygen because its p shell is half filled, which is more stable than oxygen

113
Q

Transition metals can form brightly colored compounds because:

A

their d orbitals are unfilled or half filled

114
Q

Order for electromagnetic radiation

A

Mnemonic: Romans Invented Very Unusual X-ray Guns

Radio waves; Infrared; Visible light; Ultraviolet; X-ray; Gamma ray

Radio wave = lowest energy/longest wavelengths

115
Q

In the eye, what contains aqueous humor?

A

Anterior chamber, located between the cornea and the iris

116
Q

What relaxes when the lens flattens?

A

Ciliary muscle

117
Q

Iodoform test is used to detect the presence of:

A

methyl ketones

118
Q

Are more substituted amines more acidic or basic?

A

They are more basic because the alkyl groups are considered electron donating

119
Q

What is the difference between the thermodynamic and kinetic product of a given reaction?

A

Thermodynamic product forms slower and is more stable.

120
Q

Collenchyma tissue cells

A

provide extra support to the plant, especially in areas where the plant is actively growing

121
Q

Which type of isolation prevents fertilization because male and female genitalia are not compatible between different species?

A

Mechanical

122
Q

Which of the following is a target of glucocorticoids in order to raise the blood glucose level?

  1. Muscle cells
  2. Liver cells
  3. Fat cells
A

1, 2, and 3

123
Q

What movement of air corresponds to internal respiration?

A

From blood to body tissues

124
Q

All of the following statements about fixed action patterns are true EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Increases the animal’s fitness
B. Initiated by a releaser
C. Typically preserved amongst all members of a species
D. Pairs a conditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus
E. Once initiated, it cannot be stopped until the action is completed

A

D. Pairs a conditioned response with an unconditioned stimulus

125
Q

Fixed action pattern is a/n ______ response

A

Unconditioned - because it is an instinct and does not involve any learning on the animal’s part

126
Q

Both NK and CD8 cells release:

A

granzymes and perforin

127
Q

Which portion of the nephron is impermeable to water?

A

Ascending loop of Henle (because there are no aquaporins present)

128
Q 
All of the following structures are considered to be part of the endomembrane system EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Central vacuoles
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Plasma membrane
A

C. Mitochondria

129
Q 
What microstructure within long bones directly transports nutrients from the periosteum to osteons?
A. Osteoprogenitors
B. Lacunae
C. Volkmann's canals
D. Lamellae
E. Canaliculi
A

C. Volkmann’s canals

130
Q 
Which of following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?
A. Human forearm
B. Bat wing
C. Butterfly wing
D. Hornet wing
E. Shark fin
A

A. Human forearm

131
Q

What is the goal of genome annotation?

A

Determine all coding sequences and their functions in a genome

132
Q

What do nitrogen fixing bacteria convert?

A

Nitrogen gas into ammonium

133
Q

Shotgun sequencing

A

laboratory technique for determining the DNA sequence of an organism’s genome; utilizes restriction enzymes

134
Q

hemocytometer

A

gridded slide upon which a sample is deposited. Under a microscope, the grid is used to manually count the number of cells in a known area. Then, the sample count is extrapolated for the full volume of the sample

135
Q

Where does the majority of reabsorption take place in the nephron?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

136
Q

The embryonic archenteron develops into which of the following?

A

Digestive tract

137
Q

What are the net products of pyruvate oxidation from each glucose molecule?

A

2 CO2, 2 NADH, 2 acetyl-CoA

138
Q

For each acetyl-CoA, the Krebs cycle produces:

A

2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP

139
Q

Which of the following activates pancreatic proteases?

A

Enteropeptidase (activates trypsin which in turn activates chymotrypsin)

140
Q

As a zygote undergoes cleavage, what stage of development is the embryo in when it is a solid mass of around 16 cells?

A

Morula

141
Q

According to Hamilton’s rule of altruism, when would an animal exhibit an altruistic behavior?

A

If indirect fitness outweighs direct fitness

142
Q

The role of the collecting duct in the urinary system involves

A

Sodium reabsorption in response to aldosterone

143
Q

A defect in what structure of a plant would prevent an ovule from being produced?

A

Pistil

144
Q

Which reagents are used to test for the presence of alkenes and alkynes?

A

Br2/CCl4

145
Q

Tollen’s test tests for:

A

aldehydes

146
Q

Iodoform tests for:

A

presence of methyl ketones

147
Q

Silver nitrate in alcohol tests for:

A

Alkyl halides

148
Q

Bromine test

A

Tests for alkenes/alkynes

DAT Biology (27 decks)

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