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Horse Quiz Bowl > Health > Flashcards

Health Flashcards

1
Q

Define Anemia

A

Deficiency of hemoglobin or number of red blood cells

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2
Q

What is the only time iron defincienies occur?

A

If there is a loss of blood

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3
Q

What term is used for the lack of hemoglobin in the blood?

A

Anemia

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4
Q

Define the Caslicks’s operation in mares.

A

Where the upper part of the vulva is stitched to reduce infection in mares

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5
Q

What is a Caslick’s operation used for?

A

The surgical suturing of the upper vulva to prevent wind sucking into the vagina

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6
Q

What is considered the most dangerous and costly equine internal disease?

A

Colic

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of colic?

A

Parasites

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8
Q

Colic may occur as a result of a lack of what motility?

A

Gastrointestinal motility

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9
Q

What vice may cause horse to develop gaseous colic?

A

Cribbing

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10
Q

How many blister beetles may a horse consume before it becomes at risk of colic?

A

2-5 beetles

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of blister beetle contamination?

A

1) Colic 2) Fever 3) Increased pulse 4) Increased constipation 5) Sweating 6) Soft feces

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12
Q

Define an incarceration as it pertains to colic.

A

When a loop of intestine becomes entrapped within a normal or abnormal structure within the abdominal cavity

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13
Q

Name at least three ways to prevent colic.

A

1) Proper deworming management 2) Floating of teeth to allow proper chewing of food 3) Change food slowly 4) Keep food off the ground 5) Keeping your horse in shape

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14
Q

Name the different types of colic.

A

Spasmodic, impaction, incarceration, displacement, excessive fermentation

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15
Q

What does COPD stant for?

A

Chronic Obstructive pulmonary disease

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16
Q

What is COPD?

A

Commonly known as heaves, an inflammation of the bronchioles in the lungs

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17
Q

Heaves affects what area of a horse?

A

Lungs

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of a horse with heaves?

A

Chronic cough, increased expiratory effort, pronounced lifting of the abdomen when the horse exhales

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19
Q

What are the useful practices that can be used to help reduce the effects of COPD?

A

1) Soak hay in water before feeding 2) Keep horse on quality pasture land 3) Use feeds and bedding low in dust and mold

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20
Q

What three things comprise the most effective treatment of heaves?

A

Rest, elimination of dust, and provision of fresh air

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21
Q

True or False? EasternEquine Encephalitis, or EEE, occurs in humans.

A

False

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22
Q

What are the mortality rates of Eastern and Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis?

A

70-90%

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23
Q

What is EAV?

A

Equine Artiritis Virus

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24
Q

Name the clinical signs of equine encephalomyelitis following a one to three week incubation period?

A

1) High fever 2) Absence of feed intake 3) Stiffness 4) Uncoordination 5) Reeling gait 6) Compulsive walking 7) Circling 8) Drowsiness 9) Partial to complete loss of vision 10) Grinding of teeth 11) Inability to swallow 12) Hyperesthesia 13) Aggresion 14) Excitability 15) Frenzy after sensory stimulation

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25
Q

What animals are the primary reservoirs for the encephalomyelitis virus?

A

Wild Birds

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26
Q

What do the initials VEE stand for?

A

Venezualan Equine Encephalomyelitis

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27
Q

What is the mortality rate for EEE?

A

75-100%

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28
Q

What is the mortality rate for VEE?

A

40-80%

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29
Q

What disease does a Coggins test diagnose?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

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30
Q

What disease can be transmitted from one horse to another by hypodermic needles or improperly sterilized surgical instruments?

A

EIA(Equine Infectious Anemia)

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31
Q

Name the USDA approved agar immunodiffusion test to diagnose equine infectious anemia?

A

Coggins Test

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32
Q

What are four common symptoms of Equine Infectious Anemia?

A

Fever, anemia, juandice, depression, edema, and chronic weight loss

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33
Q

Will an EIA infected horse be infected for the rest of its life?

A

Yes

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34
Q

What is the term for the presence of blood in the respiratory tract after exercise?

A

Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorage(EIPH)

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35
Q

What is the most widely used treatment for EIPH?

A

Lasix

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36
Q

What is the common name for horses with EIPH?

A

Bleeders

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37
Q

What is the most common infectious respiratory disease of horses?

A

Influenza

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38
Q

Name two common features of Equine Influenza?

A

Extremely rapid spread of infection and a frequent dry cough

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39
Q

In Equine Influenza, from incubation up to three days, a horse may develop an elevated temperature in what range?

A

102.5-105F

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40
Q

Name two types of distinct Equine Influenza A viruses?

A

Equine-1 and Equine-2

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41
Q

Equine Influenza multiplies in what cells of the horse?

A

In the epithelial cells of the horse’s upper respiratory tract

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42
Q

How is Equine Influenza despersed?

A

By aerosol droplets when the horse exhales or coughs, equipment, clothing, vehicles, and skin surface of those handling infected horses

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43
Q

What does HI mean?

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition

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44
Q

What does VN mean?

A

Virus Nuetralization

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45
Q

CF stands for what?

A

Complement Fixation

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46
Q

What are the onlyl large populations that have not been exposed to equine influenza?

A

New Zealand and Australia

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47
Q

Excessive tearing, night blindness, and an increased sensitivity to light are suggestive of a deficiency of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

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48
Q

What does ENB stand for?

A

Equine Night Blindness

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49
Q

Partial or complete blockage of the esophagus causing inability to swallow is known as?

A

Choke

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50
Q

What is the term used to describe a blockage of the intestinal tract by either normal or foreign material?

A

Impaction

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51
Q

What is the habit of force-swallowing gulps of air?

A

Cribbing

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52
Q

What is the difference between cribbing and windsucking?

A

Cribbers attempt to swallow air and windsuckers are successful in swallowing air

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53
Q

Name two stable vices that a horse might develop from boredom and confinement.

A

Wood chewing, pawing, weaving, and cribbing

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54
Q

What condition may result from a deficiency of calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D?

A

Rickets

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55
Q

Some horses, particularly young foals and confined animals practice coprophagy.

A

Eating of feces

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56
Q

What is geophagia?

A

Eating of dirt

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57
Q

Vitamin C deficiency typically results in what symptoms?

A

Impaired wound healing, weak, brittle bones, and hemorrhage

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58
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in most species results in what factors?

A

Rickets in the yound and inadequate bone mineralization in the adult

59
Q

What is thrush?

A

Destruction of the frog by anaerobic bacteria

60
Q

Describe thrush.

A

A degenerative condition of the frog. A black discharge, the offensive odor of which identifies the condition is emitted from the frog.

61
Q

What is an eczema that affects the fetlock and heel areas predisposed by repeated exposure to sweat, mud, and filth?

A

Scratches

62
Q

Where is weight distributed on the hoof when ringbone, sidebone or heel bruising occurs?

A

Outside

63
Q

What is a sore or bucked shin?

A

An enlargement on the front of the cannon between the knee and fetlock joints

64
Q

What is it called when a horse is suffering from inflammation of the sensitive laminae of its feet?

A

Founder

65
Q

What is the term used to describe a pus pocket or an infection of the sensitive structures of the foot?

A

Abscess

66
Q

What is an infection that penetrates the white line of the sole and travels under the hoof wall between the sensitive and insensitive laminae until it abscesses at the coronet?

A

Gravel

67
Q

What is inflammation of the proximal sesamoid bones that is serious because it usually results in chronic lameness?

A

Sesamoiditis

68
Q

What is an extension backwards of the flexor tendon caused by stretching or tearing?

A

Bowed tendon

69
Q

What is the name for hoof digesting fungi?

A

White line disease

70
Q

What is white line disease?

A

An infection in the hoof wall of hoof digesting fungi

71
Q

What area of the country is white line disease most common in?

A

Humid areas

72
Q

What is another name for enlarged painful growth plates?

A

Epiphysitis

73
Q

What is DOD?

A

Developmental orthopedic disease

74
Q

Name one of the major factors predisposing the growing animal to any of the developmental orthopedic disease.

A

1) Rapid growth 2) Trauma to the bone growth plates or articular cartilages 3) Genetic predisposition 4) Nutritional imbalances

75
Q

DOD(Develepmental orthopedic disease) occurs as a result of what?

A

A failure of growing cartilage to become properly ossified or converted to bone

76
Q

If the edges of a wound may only be closed under tension, then what method whould be used?

A

Tension sutures, using either buttons or plastic tubing to spread the pressure over a larger area

77
Q

What is an incised wound?

A

A wound with clean, straight edges, and often bleeds freely

78
Q

Name three types of closed wounds?

A

Bruises, contusions, sprains, muscle, and tendon rupture

79
Q

What are the main goals in treating a wound?

A

1) Control hemorrhage 2) Turn the contaminated wound into a clean one 3)To promote rapid wound and healing

80
Q

List five items that are some of the more essential to be included in a first aid kit.

A

Telfa-type, nonstick bandages, sheets of cotton bandage, leg quilts and wraps, twitch, elasticon tape, eye stain and wash, elastic bandage and scissors, antiseptic soap, and a type of phenylbutazone paste

81
Q

What is a cold poultice used for?

A

To decrease inflammation

82
Q

Founder is the horseman’s term for what disease?

A

Laminitis

83
Q

What is the most severe hoof ailment?

A

Laminitis

84
Q

Name four possible causes of founder?

A

1) Grain 2) Water 3)Grass 4) Road 5) Post parturient foaling

85
Q

What is the leading cause of founder?

A

Gastrointestinal disturbances

86
Q

What are the three phases of founder?

A

Developmental, acute, chronic

87
Q

Contact with black walnut shavings can cause what?

A

Founder

88
Q

What word means to fall in or fall helplessly lame?

A

Founder

89
Q

Ture of False? A foundered horse’s toe should be lowered to help alleviate the pain.

A

True

90
Q

What factors may incite founder?

A

Grain overload, colic, retained placenta, exhaustion, contact with black walnut shavings, lush grass, excessive concussion, excessive cold water

91
Q

Name three suggestions for overheated horses.

A

1) The entire body should be sprayed with water to reduce it temperature 2) The horse should be moved to a cool stall or shade 3) The owner should use fans 4) Ice packs should be applied to the horse’s head and legs 5) The horse should be allowed to have a few swallows of cool, clean water every few minutes. 6) Call veternarian. The horse may need intravenous fluids.

92
Q

Name three suggestions to prevent hyperthermia in horses.

A

1) Strenuous exercise should be limited to late evenings or early mornings when the temperature is cooler 2) Stabled horse should have adequate ventilation 3) Blankets and sheets should be remobed from the stabled horse during extreme heat 4) Adequate shade for outside horses 5) Long haired horses should be clipped 6) Clean, fresh water should be provided at all times

93
Q

If a horse is experiencing hyperthermia,what has happened?

A

Overheated

94
Q

What is the respiration rate of a horse suffering from hyperthermia?

A

More than 30 breaths/minute

95
Q

Name four clinical ways to detect dehydration.

A

Dryness of mucous membranes and eyes, Decreased jugular vein distensibility, Rate of capillary refill, Skin elasticity, Physical performance, Decreased urine output, Dry feces

96
Q

What is laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

A partial paralysis of the muscles in the larynx which reduces the size of the windpipe. So called because of the noise made by the horse during exercise.

97
Q

What is the common term for horses with laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Roaring

98
Q

What is a vector?

A

Animals that carry infectious organisms from the reservoir to the animals that will be exposed and may develop the disease

99
Q

Name three suggestions for overheated horses.

A

1) The entire body should be sprayed with water to reduce it temperature 2) The horse should be moved to a cool stall or shade 3) The owner should use fans 4) Ice packs should be applied to the horse’s head and legs 5) The horse should be allowed to have a few swallows of cool, clean water every few minutes. 6) Call veternarian. The horse may need intravenous fluids.

100
Q

Name three suggestions to prevent hyperthermia in horses.

A

1) Strenuous exercise should be limited to late evenings or early mornings when the temperature is cooler 2) Stabled horse should have adequate ventilation 3) Blankets and sheets should be remobed from the stabled horse during extreme heat 4) Adequate shade for outside horses 5) Long haired horses should be clipped 6) Clean, fresh water should be provided at all times

101
Q

If a horse is experiencing hyperthermia,what has happened?

A

Overheated

102
Q

What is the respiration rate of a horse suffering from hyperthermia?

A

More than 30 breaths/minute

103
Q

Name four clinical ways to detect dehydration.

A

Dryness of mucous membranes and eyes, Decreased jugular vein distensibility, Rate of capillary refill, Skin elasticity, Physical performance, Decreased urine output, Dry feces

104
Q

What is laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

A partial paralysis of the muscles in the larynx which reduces the size of the windpipe. So called because of the noise made by the horse during exercise.

105
Q

What is the common term for horses with laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Roaring

106
Q

What is a vector?

A

Animals that carry infectious organisms from the reservoir to the animals that will be exposed and may develop the disease

107
Q

What is the general term for inflammation of the skin?

A

Dermatitis

108
Q

What is the ter used for a localized collection of pus in the tissues of the body, often accompained by swelling and inflammation?

A

Abscess

109
Q

What is the term for a condition of increased sensitivity ot a specific protein, which may result in a rash, hives, sneezing, or respiratory difficulties?

A

Allergy

110
Q

What term refers to any inflammatory disease of the lungs, which can be caused by bacteria or virus or a combination of the two?

A

Pneumonia

111
Q

What is a condition in which there is an unusually high level of fat in the blood?

A

Hyperlipemia

112
Q

What is the inability of the blood to clot in a normal amount of time?

A

Hemophilia

113
Q

What is a tumor of the pigment-forming cells called?

A

Melanoma

114
Q

What does CID stand for?

A

Combined Immunodeficiency

115
Q

Which genetic disease is characterized by attacks of muscle weakness?

A

HYPP(Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)

116
Q

What does AVA stand for?

A

Arterio Venous Anasomaosis

117
Q

Define the condition called entropion.

A

The condition that occurs within 1 or 2 days after birth where the foal’s eyes start to water because the eyelids and lashes are turned in.

118
Q

How can rabies be transmitted to horses?

A

By the bite from a carnivore such as skunks, raccoons, foxes, dogs or by bats

119
Q

If a horse is to survive a stall fire the fire must be extenguished in approximately what time limit?

A

30 seconds

120
Q

What is the infection of the eye that was originally observed to reoccur opproximately as often as a new moon?

A

Equine periodic opthalmia or EPO

121
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

An accumulation of fluid withint he compartments of the brain, resulting in crushing of normal brain tissue

122
Q

What is an atrophy of the muscles of the shoulder due to paralysis of the supracapsular nerve called?

A

A sweeeney

123
Q

What is proud flesh?

A

The formation of excessive granulation

124
Q

What is pneumovagina?

A

Windsucking

125
Q

Name three common problems of the older horse.

A

Heaves, arthritis, liver, and kidney problems, pituitary and thryroid tumors

126
Q

An organ or tissue projecting through an abdominal opening is called what?

A

Hernia

127
Q

What disease has geographic association with rivers?

A

Ptomac Horse Fever

128
Q

How many days does it take to show signs of Potamac Horse Fever?

A

10-14 days after infection

129
Q

What equine disease has also been referred to as “equine abortion virus”?

A

Rhinopneumonitis

130
Q

What is another term for Rhinopneumonitis?

A

Equine Herpes Virus

131
Q

Equine Herpes Virus may cause respiratory infection wth mild fever and/or nasal discharge or may cause abortions and is also known as what?

A

Rhinopneumonitis

132
Q

What are the primary indications for equine herpesvirus vaccines?

A

1) prevention of Equine Herpesviruse type 1 abortion in mares
2) prevention of respiratory disease in foals, weanlings, yearlings, and young performance and show horses

133
Q

When should pregnant mares be vaccinated with an approved, inactivated EHV-1 vaccine?

A

In the fifth, seventh, and ninth months

134
Q

What is the oldest described horse disease?

A

Strangles

135
Q

What is an acute contagious bacterial infection lovated in the salivary glands called?

A

Strangles

136
Q

What disease is also known as distemper or barn fever?

A

Strangles

137
Q

What are the three earliest signs of Streptococcus Equi?

A

Fever, depression, and loss of appetite

138
Q

What is used to treat strangles?

A

Antibiotics

139
Q

What is bastard strangles?

A

Presence of abscesses at locations other than the submandibular or throatlatch area

140
Q

What disease has the scientific name, clostridium tetani?

A

Tetanus (lockjaw)

141
Q

True or False? Tetanus may be spread from horse to horse.

A

False

142
Q

What term describes a preventative injection of bacteria or virus that have been modified or inactivated to immunize a horse against certain disease?

A

Vaccination

143
Q

What vacccinations are included for a typical program for horses that are shown or mixed with other horses during the year?

A

1) Eastern and Western encephalomyelitis 2) Tetanus 3) Influenza 4) Rhinopneumonitis 5) Potomac Horse Fever 6) Rabies

144
Q

How soon before traveling should vaccinations be done?

A

At least two weeks

Horse Quiz Bowl (17 decks)

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