Ab Screen & ID Flashcards

1
Q

what does an ab screen detect

A

unexpected allo or auto abs

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2
Q

what kind of sample is used in an ab screen

A

sera or plasma

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3
Q

what are the 3 testing phases of an ab screen

A

IS, 37 C, and AHG (Coombs)

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4
Q

what kind of cells are ab screening cells

A

group O

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5
Q

what kind of ab screen uses pooled ab screening cells

A

donor testing

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6
Q

what kind of ab screen uses 2 or 3 cell ab screening cell

A

pt testing

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7
Q

what is the standard ab screening cells used today

A

3 cell screening

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8
Q

why are 3 cell screening cells used

A

guarantees homozygosity in the blood groups

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9
Q

what are the 4 currently acceptable ab screening test methods

A

tube, gel, solid phase red cell adherence, and microwell

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10
Q

what is the standard ab screening test method

A

tube

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11
Q

what kind of reagent is used in an ab screen

A

monospecific with anti IgG

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12
Q

what does enhancement media contain in an ab screen

A

22% albumin, LISS, PEG

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13
Q

what is the normal serum: cell ratio in an ab screen

A

2:1

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14
Q

what does Coombs control cells contain

A

IgG coated RBC

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15
Q

what is the function of ab potentiators

A

reagents that speed up the ag-ab rxn

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16
Q

what does albumin do in enhancement media

A

reduce the zeta potential between RBCs to increase 2nd stage agglutination

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17
Q

how long do samples have to incubate using albumin enhancement media

A

30 min to 1 hr

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18
Q

what is the ionic strength of LISS

A

0.3M

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19
Q

is LISS stronger or weaker than normal saline

A

stronger

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20
Q

what is added to LISS to prevent RBC lysis at low ionic strength

A

glycine

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21
Q

what does LISS enhance

A

ab uptake

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22
Q

what is the incubation time for using LISS

A

10-15 mins

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23
Q

____ volume of serum and LISS is required

A

equal

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24
Q

if extra serum is added to LISS what happens

A

decreases test sensitivity

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25
Q

if extra LISS is added to serum what happens

A

increases nonspecific pos rxn

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26
Q

what potentiating media is water soluble polymer used to increase AB uptake

A

PEG

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27
Q

how long is the incubation time using PEG

A

15 mins

28
Q

do you read at 37C using PEG

A

no

29
Q

what kind of abs may not be detected when using PEG

A

IgM

30
Q

what kind of inhancement media is positively charged polymer hexadimethrine bromide

A

polybrene

31
Q

what kind of inhacement media is rapid and sensitive method for ab ID

A

polybrene

32
Q

is the indirect or direct method used with polybrene

A

direct

33
Q

how does aggregation of RBC happen using polybrene

A

cross linking of ab molecules

34
Q

how is aggregation of RBC dispersed in polybrene

A

neutral salt solution

35
Q

what does PEG do to the abs

A

concentrated the ab in the test environment

36
Q

once the neg charge is removed on RBC using proteolytic enzymes what happens to the zeta potential

A

reduces

37
Q

what kind of immunoglobulins react in the IS phase

A

pentameric IgM

38
Q

why is the RT phase used when the IS phase is positive

A

to allow for more time for the IgM abs to react

39
Q

what testing phase does monomeric IgG and IgG react

A

AHG phase

40
Q

what does it mean if you get a pos auto control

A

unexpected auto/allo ab or a pos DAT

41
Q

why will ABO abs not be detected in an Ab screen

A

because the regents are O cells

42
Q

what must you look for in an Ab panel to confirm an Ab ID

A

at least 3 positive and 3 neg cells

43
Q

def? the lowest conc of ab against a particular ag

A

ab titer

44
Q

Antibodies are excluded using RBCs that are homozygous for the corresponding antigen because:

A

Antibodies may show dosage

45
Q

A request for 8 units of RBCs was received for patient LF . The patient has a negative antibody screen, but 1 of the 8 units was 3+ incompatible at the AHG phase. Which of the following antibodies may be the cause?

A

anti-Kp a

46
Q

The physician has requested 2 units of RBCs for patient DB, who has two antibodies, anti-L and anti-Q. The frequency of antigen L is 45%, and the frequency of antigen Q is 70% in the donor population. Approximately how many units will need to be antigen-typed for L and Q to fill the request?

A

12

47
Q

Anti-Sd a has been identified in patient ALF . What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A

urine

48
Q

Patient JM appears to have a warm autoantibody. She was transfused 2 weeks ago. What would be the next step performed to identify any alloantibodies that might be in her serum?

A

Warm differential adsorption

49
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the acquired immune response?

A

Phagocytosis

50
Q

Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

51
Q

Which of the following cells is involved in antigen recoga. nition following phagocytosis?

A

T lymphs

52
Q

The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to:

A

Process antigen and present it.

53
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced in the primary immune response?

A

IgM

54
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced in the secondary immune response?

A

IgG

55
Q

Which of the following MHC classes encodes complea. ment components?

A

Class II

56
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at binding complement?

A

IgM

57
Q

Which portion of the immunoglobulin molecules con(adaptive) tains complement binding sites?

A

Heavy chain constant region

58
Q

Which complement pathway is activated by the forma2. tion of antigen-antibody complexes?

A

classical

59
Q

Which of the following is known as the “recognition unit” in the classical complement pathway?

A

C1q

60
Q

Which of the following is known as the “membrane attack complex” in the classical complement pathway?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

61
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is capable of crossing the placenta and causing hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

IgG

62
Q

Which of the following refers to the effect of an excess amount of antigen present in a test system?

A

postzone

63
Q

Which of the following refers to the presence of an excess amount of antibody present in a test system?

A

Prozone

64
Q

Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy chain constant region?

A

Affinity for antigen

65
Q

Molecules that promote the update of bacteria for phagocytosis are:

A

Opsonins.

66
Q

Select the term that describes the unique confirmation of the antigen that allows recognition by a corresponding antibody.

A

Epitope

67
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the net negative charge surrounding red blood cells?

A

Zeta potential