13 - Chemistry and Biology Flashcards

This deck explores fundamental concepts in chemistry and biology, including atomic structure, chemical reactions, cellular biology, and genetics. The goal is to provide a comprehensive understanding of biological processes and their significance in the diversity of life.

1
Q

Define:

element

A
  • Type of matter with specific chemical and physical properties.
  • Cannot be broken down into other substances.

Atoms are the individual units of each element. For example, hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O) are elements, while water (H2O) is not.

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2
Q

Explain:

What characteristic identifies an atom as a specific element?

A

The number of protons, known as the atomic number.

Example: Carbon has an atomic number of 6.

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3
Q

Identify:

3 main subatomic particles that make up an atom.

A
  1. Protons
  2. Electrons
  3. Neutrons

These particles define the structure and properties of an atom.

Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus, while electrons are in the electron cloud.

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4
Q

Define:

proton

A

Positively charged subatomic particle with a mass of approximately 1 amu.

Protons are found in the nucleus of an atom.

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5
Q

Define:

atom

A

The smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element.

Atoms are composed of subatomic particles and cannot be broken down into other substances.

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6
Q

Define:

atomic mass unit

(amu)

A

Standard unit of mass used for measuring particles as small as subatomic particles.

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7
Q

Define:

atomic number

A

It is the number of protons in an atom. It defines the atom as a specific element.

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8
Q

Describe:

What happens when an atom gains or loses electrons?

A

It becomes an ion; losing electrons creates a cation and gaining electrons creates an anion.

Ions carry a charge due to the imbalance of protons and electrons.

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9
Q

Define:

neutrons

A

Neutral subatomic particles located in the nucleus with protons.

They have a mass of about 1 amu.

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10
Q

Describe:

How is the atomic mass of an atom calculated?

A

It is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.

Electrons contribute negligibly to the atomic mass.

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11
Q

Define:

isotopes

A

Atoms with a different number of neutrons than the average number for that element.

Isotopes can be stable or unstable, with the latter undergoing radioactive decay.

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12
Q

Define:

periodic table

A

A chart organizing all elements by their physical and chemical properties based on atomic number.

Each element is represented by its atomic number, chemical symbol, abbreviation and atomic mass.

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13
Q

Explain:

How are atoms created?

A

Through nuclear fission or nuclear fusion.

Fission splits larger atoms, while fusion combines smaller atoms.

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14
Q

Describe:

The nucleus of an atom.

A

The dense center of an atom containing protons and neutrons.

Most of the mass of an element is found in the nucleus.

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15
Q

Explain:

The difference between metals and non-metals.

A
  • Metals are typically solid, good conductors and shiny.
  • Non-metals can be solid or gas, are poor conductors and are dull.

Most elements are metals.

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16
Q

Define:

halogens

A

Highly reactive non-metals found in Group 7 of the Periodic Table.

They include fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine.

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17
Q

Identify:

What defines the properties of an element?

A

The number of subatomic particles it contains.

Protons, neutrons and electrons determine unique characteristics.

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18
Q

Describe:

molecule

A

It is composed of at least two atoms joined by a chemical bond.

Atoms of elements build different molecules.

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19
Q

Define:

compound

A

A group of molecules.

For example, water is a compound, a group of individual H2O molecules.

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20
Q

Explain:

How do elemental personalities affect their bonding?

A

Elements can be shy or social; shy elements prefer to be alone, while social elements bond with others.

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21
Q

List:

The two types of chemical bonds.

A
  • Ionic
  • Covalent
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22
Q

Identify:

The difference between a pure substance and a mixture.

A
  • A pure substance is made up of only one compound or element.
  • A mixture has two or more compounds/elements that do not form chemical bonds.
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23
Q

Explain:

How can you determine if a bond is ionic?

A

If it conducts electricity when dissolved in pure water.

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24
Q

Explain:

What happens to the components in a mixture?

A

They keep their own chemical identities.

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25
Q

Identify:

4 key properties of a mixture.

A
  1. No chemical force between constituent particles.
  2. Ratio of components is not well-defined.
  3. Properties are similar to its constituents.
  4. Can be separated by normal physical methods.

Methods of separation include distillation, filtration and boiling.

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26
Q

Identify:

4 factors that affect the boiling point of a mixture.

A
  1. Pressure
  2. Molecular nature
  3. Molecular weight
  4. Impurities

As pressure decreases, boiling point decreases; higher molecular weight generally increases boiling point.

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27
Q

Identify:

The main characteristic of covalent bonds.

A

Electrons are shared by the constituent atoms in the molecule.

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28
Q

Identify:

2 types of mixtures based on particle distribution.

A
  1. Homogeneous mixture
  2. Heterogeneous mixture

Homogeneous mixtures have even distribution, while heterogeneous mixtures have uneven distribution.

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29
Q

Identify:

4 characteristics of homogeneous mixtures.

A
  1. Uniform composition
  2. Particles not visible to the naked eye
  3. Identical phase throughout
  4. No line of separation between components

An example is a sugar solution in water.

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30
Q

Identify:

4 characteristics of heterogeneous mixtures.

A
  1. Non-uniform composition
  2. Particles visible to the naked eye
  3. Different phases present
  4. Line of separation between components

An example is a mixture of sand and water.

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31
Q

Identify:

2 categories of properties of matter.

A
  1. Physical properties
  2. Chemical properties
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32
Q

Define:

physical properties

A

Properties that describe matter through visual inspection or measurement.

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33
Q

Identify:

What are some properties of matter?

A
  • Length
  • Volume
  • Mass
  • Color
  • Texture
  • Shape
  • Density
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34
Q

Identify:

The phase changes considered physical changes.

A
  • Melting
  • Freezing
  • Vaporization
  • Condensation
  • Sublimation
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35
Q

Explain:

What defines the chemical properties of matter?

A

How matter interacts with other substances during a chemical process.

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36
Q

Identify:

Examples of chemical properties.

A
  • Reactivity
  • pH
  • Corrosion
  • Conductivity
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37
Q

Describe:

color

Context: properties of matter

A

Physical property observed as the portion of the visible spectrum reflected.

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38
Q

Describe:

pH

A

Determined by the concentration of H+ ions released when dissolved in water.

The pH scale range is 0 to 14 and classifies substances as acidic, basic or neutral.

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39
Q

Identify:

How is density calculated?

A

By dividing mass by volume.

Density refers to how much mass of a substance is packed into a given volume.

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40
Q

Define:

reactivity

A

The ability of matter to interact with another substance to create something new.

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41
Q

Define:

corrosion

A

The reaction of oxygen with metal, altering its structure.

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42
Q

List:

The five types of chemical reactions.

A
  • Combination reactions
  • Decomposition reactions
  • Single-replacement reactions
  • Double-replacement reactions
  • Combustion reactions
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43
Q

Define:

reactants

A

Substance(s) that go into a chemical reaction, typically found to the left of the arrow in a reaction formula.

They are transformed into products during the reaction.

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44
Q

Explain:

Products in a chemical reaction

A

Substance(s) formed as a result of a chemical reaction, typically found to the right of the arrow in a reaction formula.

They differ chemically from the original reactants.

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45
Q

Identify:

The pH value that indicates a neutral substance.

A

7

Neutral substances have equal amounts of hydrogen (H⁺) and hydroxide (OH⁻) ions.

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46
Q

List:

The properties of acids.

A
  • pH less than 7
  • Turns litmus paper red
  • Tastes sour
  • Feels wet
  • Proton donors
  • Release H+ (hydrogen ions)

Common examples include vinegar and citrus fruits.

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47
Q

List:

The properties of bases.

A
  • pH greater than 7
  • Turns litmus paper blue
  • Tastes bitter
  • Feels slippery
  • Proton acceptors
  • Release OH- (hydroxide ions)

Common examples include ammonia and detergents. All alkaline substances are bases, but not all bases are alkaline (since some bases do not dissolve in water).

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48
Q

Define:

A neutralization reaction

A

The reaction of acids and bases to form water and salt.

This process results in a pH of 7 (pure water).

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49
Q

Explain:

The role of pH indicators.

A

They determine whether a substance is an acid or base using color changes.

Examples include litmus paper and phenolphthalein.

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50
Q

Define:

buffers

A

Solutions that resist changes in pH, composed of a weak acid and a weak base.

Buffers are crucial for maintaining optimal pH in biological processes.

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51
Q

Identify:

The most important neutral substance.

A

Water

Water flushes out toxins and promotes healthy cellular functions.

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52
Q

Identify

What can alter the pH of a person’s body?

A
  • Exercise
  • Certain foods

Fluctuations can affect enzyme functioning.

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53
Q

Define:

Solubility in chemistry

A

The maximum amount of solute that gets dissolved in a given quantity of a solvent at a specific temperature.

Solubility explains the nature and the rate at which a solute dissolves in a solvent.

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54
Q

List:

The three most common forms of matter.

A
  • Solid
  • Liquid
  • Gas

Matter has physical properties such as odor, shape, melting point and solubility.

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55
Q

Identify:

The difference between a solute and a solvent.

A
  • A solute is a substance that dissolves in a solvent.
  • A solvent is the liquid in which the solute dissolves.

Water is the most commonly used solvent in chemistry.

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56
Q

Define:

An aqueous solution

A

A solution in which the solvent is water.

Aqueous solutions are formed when a solute is dissolved in water.

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57
Q

Define:

precipitate

A

A solid that forms when an insoluble solute is mixed with a liquid or solvent.

A precipitate remains suspended or floating in the liquid.

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58
Q

Explain:

What defines a saturated solution?

A

A solution that contains the maximum amount of solute and cannot dissolve more.

Saturated solutions are in equilibrium with undissolved solute.

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59
Q

Identify:

The units used to express solubility.

A
  • Milligrams per liter (mg/L)
  • Grams per 100 milliliters of solvent (g/100ml)

These units help describe how much solute can dissolve in a solvent.

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60
Q

Explain:

What happens to the solubility of gases with increasing temperature?

A

It decreases.

Gas molecules regain energy and escape from the solvent as temperature rises.

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61
Q

Describe:

A solubility curve

A

A graph drawn to determine the solubility of solutes at different temperatures.

It visually represents how solubility changes with temperature.

62
Q

Identify:

3 factors affecting solubility.

A
  • Temperature
  • Pressure
  • Nature of interaction

These factors influence how well a solute dissolves in a solvent.

63
Q

Identify:

The basic unit of life.

A

Cell

All living beings are made up of one or more cells, which are the structural and functional units of life.

64
Q

Define:

eukaryotic

A

Refers to organisms composed of one or more cells containing a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

Animal cells have membrane-covered organelles, a nucleus, and mitochondria.

65
Q

Define:

organelles

A

Structures or parts within the cell.

They are responsible for specific functions such as protein synthesis, cellular respiration, packaging and secretion of proteins.

66
Q

Identify:

The function of the nucleus in an animal cell.

A

It is the control center of the cell.

The nucleus contains DNA and regulates most cell activities, including metabolism, growth and reproduction.

67
Q

Describe:

The function of lysosomes.

A

Digesting and recycling toxic substances and waste.

Lysosomes are organelles that handle waste management in the cell.

68
Q

Identify:

The organelle responsible for cellular aerobic respiration.

A

Mitochondria

Mitochondria convert oxygen and nutrients into energy.

69
Q

Describe:

An adaptive trait.

A

Any genetic characteristic that helps a plant or animal increase its chances of reproducing.

70
Q

Identify:

The role of ribosomes in a cell.

A

Protein synthesis.

Ribosomes help synthesize proteins needed by the cell and are often referred to as protein factories.

71
Q

Identify:

The main component of the plasma membrane.

A

Phospholipid bilayer.

It is a selectitvely permeable membrane that separates the cytoplasm from cell organelles.

72
Q

Explain:

The role of the nucleus in a cell.

A

It controls and regulates cellular activities, including growth and mitosis, and contains the cell’s DNA.

73
Q

Define:

Mitosis

A

A process where one cell divides or replicates to form two daughter cells.

This process copies cell’s DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), which holds the instructions for its functions.

74
Q

Describe:

Cytoplasm and its functions.

A
  • It is a jelly-like fluid filling the cell.
  • It helps cells maintain their shape (this is called turgidity) and suspends organelles.
  • Contains molecules and enzymes for breaking down waste and supporting metabolism, including glycolysis.
  • The cytosol, a part of the cytoplasm, supports cell shape but does not contain organelles.

It is the site of most cellular activities.

75
Q

Fill in the blank:

The ________ helps package and secrete proteins.

A

Golgi apparatus

The Golgi apparatus receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum.

76
Q

List:

The two types of endoplasmic reticulum.

A
  • Rough ER
  • Smooth ER

Rough ER has ribosomes and helps with protein synthesis, while Smooth ER synthesizes lipids and detoxifies.

77
Q

List:

The two major phases of the cell cycle.

A
  • Interphase
  • Cell division (also called M phase)
78
Q

Define:

Interphase

A

A growth, DNA synthesis and preparatory phase before mitotic division.

Interphase can take up to 95% of the cell cycle time.

79
Q

List:

The four stages of mitosis.

A
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase

Cytokinesis occurs during the latter half of telophase.

80
Q

Explain:

What happens during prophase?

A

Sorting and organization occur; the mitotic spindle forms.

The nuclear envelope dissolves to allow microtubule proteins to attach to sister chromatids.

81
Q

Describe:

What occurs during metaphase?

A

Sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate.

This alignment is facilitated by microtubule proteins from the mitotic spindle.

82
Q

Explain:

What happens during anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids are pulled apart as individual chromosomes.

The cell begins to stretch out during this phase.

83
Q

Explain:

What occurs during telophase?

A

Individual chromosomes are pulled towards opposite ends, and a new nuclear envelope forms.

The cell prepares to split during cytokinesis.

84
Q

Fill in the blank:

DNA is replicated during the _______ of the cell cycle.

A

S phase

DNA replication does not occur during any other part of interphase or M phase.

85
Q

Define:

Cytokinesis

A

The process that splits one cell into two identical daughter cells.

It occurs at the end of telophase.

86
Q

Define:

Cellular respiration

A

The metabolic process by which living cells acquire chemical energy from food.

It involves biochemical reactions that break chemical bonds within food molecules, such as glucose.

87
Q

Where does cellular respiration primarily take place in eukaryotic cells?

A

In the mitochondria.

This organelle is crucial for cellular energy production.

88
Q

List:

The two types of cellular respiration.

A
  • Aerobic respiration
  • Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, while anaerobic respiration occurs without oxygen.

89
Q

Define:

fermentation

A

A process that may follow glycolysis in anaerobic organisms. It produces small amounts of ATP and results in byproducts like lactic acid or ethanol.

90
Q

Define:

Photosynthesis

A

The process by which plants use light energy from the sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar, with oxygen as a by-product.

The prefix ‘photo’ means light and ‘synthesis’ means to put together.

91
Q

List:

The reactants of photosynthesis.

A
  • Water
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Sunlight

Reactants are the raw materials necessary for the chemical reaction to take place.

92
Q

List:

The products of photosynthesis.

A
  • Glucose
  • Oxygen

These are the substances produced by the chemical reaction during photosynthesis.

93
Q

Explain:

The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis.

A

It absorbs light energy, which is necessary for the process of photosynthesis.

Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plant cells.

94
Q

Explain:

The significance of glucose produced in photosynthesis.

A

It serves as food for the plant and stores chemical energy for later use.

Glucose must be broken down by cellular respiration to release its energy.

95
Q

Define:

An autotroph

A

An organism that can make its own food.

Plants are a primary example of autotrophs, but some protists and bacteria also perform photosynthesis.

96
Q

Define:

A heterotroph

A

An organism that must find food to survive.

Unlike autotrophs, heterotrophs cannot produce their own food.

97
Q

List:

The three core food groups in a balanced meal.

A
  • Proteins
  • Carbohydrates
  • Lipids
98
Q

List:

The four major classes of biological macromolecules.

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Lipids
  • Proteins
  • Nucleic acids

These macromolecules are essential for the survival and growth of living organisms.

99
Q

List:

The elements that make up proteins.

A
  • Carbon
  • Hydrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Nitrogen

(CHON)

Proteins may also contain sulfur and selenium.

100
Q

List:

The two major types of carbohydrates.

A
  • Simple carbohydrates
  • Complex carbohydrates

Simple carbohydrates include monosaccharides and disaccharides; complex carbohydrates include polysaccharides.

101
Q

Identify:

The primary function of carbohydrates.

A

Primary source of energy for all cells.

They are also involved in energy storage and assisting in lipid metabolism.

102
Q

List:

The elements that lipids mainly consist of.

A
  • Carbon
  • Hydrogen
  • Oxygen

(CHO)

Lipids contain fewer polar hydroxyl groups than carbohydrates.

103
Q

List:

The functions of lipids.

A
  • Help build cell membranes, store energy and send signals.
  • Help regulate body temperature.
  • Aid in absorbing fat-soluble nutrients.
  • As visceral fat, they protect organs like the heart, kidneys, and liver.
104
Q

Identify:

The function of nucleic acids.

A

Transmission of genetic information and protein synthesis.

Nucleic acids include DNA and RNA.

105
Q

List:

The two main types of nucleic acids.

A
  • DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
  • RNA (ribonucleic acid)

Both are composed of nucleotides.

106
Q

Define:

Genetics

A

The study of genes and DNA.

Genetics has expanded to include gene regulation, expression and applications in human diseases.

107
Q

Who is considered the father of genetics?

A

Gregor Mendel

Mendel studied inheritance of traits in pea plants in the 1800s.

108
Q

Define:

heredity

A

The passing of traits from one generation to the next.

109
Q

Define:

inherited traits

A

Traits that can be passed down through generations because they are coded for in DNA.

Inherited traits are also known as heritable traits.

110
Q

List:

Examples of inherited traits.

A
  • Hair color
  • Skin color
  • Height
  • Coat or feather color
  • Ability to resist disease or pests
  • Differences in protein function
111
Q

Explain:

Natural selection

A

The process by which organisms better fit for their environment survive and reproduce.

This concept was studied by Charles Darwin. It favors individuals with advantageous traits in a given environment.

112
Q

Define:

chromosomes

A

Linear segments of DNA that contain many genes.

113
Q

Explain:

The difference between diploid and haploid.

A
  • Diploid refers to having two copies of each chromosome.
  • Haploid refers to having one copy of each chromosome.
114
Q

Define:

A gene

A

A section of DNA that codes for a particular protein.

115
Q

Define:

alleles

A

Different versions of a same gene, but have different genetic variations at a particular locus.

116
Q

Identify:

The difference between dominant and recessive alleles.

A

Dominant alleles cover up the effect of recessive alleles.

117
Q

Define:

A genotype

A

The specific combinations of alleles an organism inherits for a particular gene.

118
Q

Define:

An organism

A

Any living thing.

This includes everything from microscopic bacteria to large mammals like the blue whale.

119
Q

List:

The key characteristics shared by all living organisms.

A
  • Order
  • Nutrition
  • Response to stimuli
  • Reproduction
  • Growth and development
  • Homeostasis

These characteristics define what it means to be a living organism.

120
Q

Define:

homeostasis

A

The ability of an organism to maintain constant internal conditions.

Maintaining homeostasis allows organisms to function optimally.

121
Q

Explain:

What evidence exists for the earliest known organisms?

A

Microbes preserved in stromatolites, dating back 3.5 billion years ago.

Stromatolites are layered, hard mounds formed by photosynthetic cyanobacteria.

122
Q

List:

The two main types of reproduction in organisms?

A
  • Asexual reproduction
  • Sexual reproduction

Asexual reproduction involves one parent, while sexual reproduction involves two parents.

123
Q

Define:

Taxonomy

A

The scientific study of naming, defining and classifying organisms based on shared characteristics.

Taxonomy helps scientists categorize the vast diversity of life.

124
Q

Who developed the original system of classification for organisms?

A

Carolus Linnaeus in 1758.

His system utilized seven taxonomic categories.

125
Q

List:

Linnaeus’s original taxonomic classification system.

A
  • Domain (Introduced by Carl Woese in 1981)
  • Kingdom (Most general, 6 kingdoms)
  • Phylum
  • Class
  • Order
  • Family
  • Genus
  • Species (Most specific, ~30 million species)

Dear King Philip Came Over For Good Soup” is a clever memory aid.

126
Q

List:

Three ways to describe the millions of organisms on Earth.

A
  • Unicelluar vs multicellular
  • Prokaryotes vs eukaryotes
  • Feeding style
127
Q

Define:

Unicellular organisms

A

They consist of a single cell that performs all the functions of the organism.

128
Q

Define:

Multicellular organisms

A

They are composed of multiple cells, each contributing to the proper functioning of the organism.

129
Q

Define:

Prokaryotes

A

Unicellular organisms that lack membrane-bound structures, including a nucleus.

Examples include bacteria and archaea.

130
Q

Define:

Eukaryotes

A

Organisms that have cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

Examples include animals, plants and fungi.

131
Q

List:

The feeding styles of organisms.

A
  • Producers
  • Consumers
    • Herbivores
    • Carnivores
    • Omnivores
    • Scavengers
    • Decomposers

These categories define how organisms obtain their energy from food sources.

132
Q

Define:

Human anatomy

A

The study of the structures of the human body.

It involves collecting data about larger structures like organs and body systems.

133
Q

List:

The major organs of the human body.

A
  • Heart
  • Brain
  • Stomach
  • Kidneys
  • Lungs

These organs are essential for survival; problems with them can be life-threatening.

134
Q

Identify:

What cells form when they group together?

135
Q

List:

The major human body systems.

A
  • Integumentary System
  • Immune System
  • Digestive System
  • Excretory System
  • Nervous System
  • Endocrine System
  • Circulatory System
  • Respiratory System
  • Skeletal System
  • Muscular System
  • Reproductive System

These systems work together to perform essential functions for survival.

136
Q

Describe:

The function of the circulatory system.

A

To transport fluid throughout the body, providing cells with oxygen and nutrients, and removing waste products.

It includes the heart, blood vessels, and blood.

137
Q

List:

The main components of the respiratory system.

A
  • Lungs
  • Nose
  • Pharynx
  • Trachea
  • Diaphragm

The respiratory system supplies blood with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide.

138
Q

Identify:

The primary role of the digestive system.

A

To break down food.

It includes organs like the mouth, esophagus, stomach and intestines.

139
Q

Fill in the blank:

The _______ system is responsible for removing waste from the body.

A

excretory

It includes the kidneys, bladder, ureters and urethra.

140
Q

Describe:

What does the nervous system control?

A

All other organ systems.

It comprises the brain, spinal cord, sensory organs and nerves. Stimuli travel as electrical impulses through nerves to the brain, which sends instructions back to the body on how to react.

141
Q

Describe:

The function of hormones in the endocrine system.

A

To regulate processes such as growth, reproduction and energy production.

Hormones are chemical messengers that work with the nervous system.

142
Q

Identify:

The largest organ of the body.

A

Skin

The integumentary system, which includes skin, protects internal organs.

143
Q

Define:

Immune system

A

The defense system of the body, made up of lymphatic vessels, responsible for screening the blood for pathogens.

It also includes white blood cells that patrol the body checking for invaders.

144
Q

Identify:

The function of the skeletal system.

A

To provide structure and support to the body, protect internal organs and store minerals.

It includes bones and joints.

145
Q

List:

What do tendons and ligaments do?

A
  • Tendons attach muscles to bones.
  • Ligaments attach bones to other bones.

They are crucial for movement.

146
Q

Define:

Evolution

A

A change in the genetics within a population over time.

This definition can be further refined as one learns more about population genetics.

147
Q

List:

The basic principles of Darwinian evolution.

A
  • Populations evolve rather than individuals.
  • Evolution occurs due to existing genetic variation.
  • Differential reproduction rates based on genotype.
  • Natural selection drives reproduction rates.

These principles highlight how environmental pressures influence evolution.

148
Q

Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

A

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace in 1858.

Natural selection is the agent which determines a differential rate of reproduction.

149
Q

Explain:

The concept of ‘survival of the fittest’ in the context of natural selection.

A

It refers to members of a population that are more successful at finding food and mates, escaping predation and thus having more descendants.

150
Q

Define:

Evolutionary adaptation

A

The mechanism by which an animal or plant alters itself to accommodate its changing environment.

151
Q

List:

The three types of adaptation.

A
  • Behavioral adaptation
  • Physiological adaptation
  • Structural adaptation
152
Q

Explain:

The relationship between natural selection and adaptation.

A

Natural selection is the process that facilitates the passing on of favorable adaptations to offspring.