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Recalls > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Venipuncture order of draw

A

Yellow (SPS, blood culture tubes)
Light Blue (sodium citrate)
Red (serum with or without gel separator)
Green (heparin)
Lavender (EDTA)
Gray (sodium fluoride or oxalate)

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2
Q

Skin puncture order of draw

A

Tube for blood gas analysis
Slides
EDTA microcollection tube
Other microcollection tubes
Serum microcollection tubes

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3
Q

Tourniquet is wrapped around the arm about _____ above the selected site

A

3-4 inches (7.5-10 cm)

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4
Q

Tourniquet should not remain on the arm for longer than

A

1 min (or 2 mins)

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5
Q

Length of needle used in phlebotomy

A

1 (to 1.5) inch

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6
Q

Needle angle for venipuncture

A

15 (to 30) degrees, bevel up

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7
Q

Most common needle size and length for adult venipuncture

A

Gauge 21, 1 inch

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8
Q

Needle gauge for PEDIATRIC phlebotomy

A

Gauge 23 (or 22)

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9
Q

Needle gauge for bleeding donors

A

Gauge 16

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10
Q

Needle gauge for TUBERCULIN syringe

A

Gauge 25

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11
Q

Needle gauge for TRANSFER of blood from syringe to tube

A

Gauge 19

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12
Q

Size of BLOOD DROP for smear preparation

A

2-3 mm

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13
Q

Distance of blood drop from the frosted edge of the slide

A

1 cm (0.25 inch)

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14
Q

Distance where smears terminates near the end of slide (automated spreader)

A

0.5 inch

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15
Q

Angle between 2 slides when making blood smear

A

30-45 degrees

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16
Q

Slide angle for blood smear preparation if patient has POLYCYTHEMIA

A

25 degrees (decrease)

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17
Q

Size of square coverslip

A

22 x 22 mm

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18
Q

Wintrobe tube length

A

115 mm

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19
Q

Wintrobe tube bore

A

3 mm

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20
Q

Wintrobe tube is graduated at

A

0-100 mm

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21
Q

Length of capillary tube

A

7.0-7.5 cm (70-75mm)

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22
Q

Bore of capillary tube

A

1.0 (or 1.2) mm

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23
Q

Thickness pf clayseal in microhematocrit tube

A

4-6 mm

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24
Q

Centrifugation speed and time for microhematocrit method

A

10,000-15,000g for 5 mins

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25
Q

Microhematocrit tubes should be read within how many minutes

A

10 minutes after centrifugation

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26
Q

Trapped plasma increases hematocrit reading by how much

A

1-3%

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27
Q

Coefficient of variation for most hematology tests should be

A

<5%

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28
Q

Marks seen on a Thoma WBC pipet

A

0.5, 1, 11

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29
Q

Marks seen on a Thoma RBC pipet

A

0.5, 1, 101

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30
Q

Total are of the Levy chamber

A

9mm^2

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31
Q

Patient has a normal RBC count. How many RBCs will be seen per OIF

A

200-250

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32
Q

Dilution for RBC count using automated counting instrument

A

1:50,000

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33
Q

Factor used when performing WBC estimate using OIO

A

3,000

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34
Q

Factor used when performing WBC estimate using HPO

A

2,000

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35
Q

After charging, allow WBCs to settle in hemocytometer for ___ minutes

A

5 (or 10) minutes

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36
Q

Most commonly used dilution for WBC count

A

1:20

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37
Q

Dilution used when WBC count is <3.0 x 10^9/L

A

1:10 (or 1:11)

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38
Q

Dilution used when WBC count is >30.0 x 10^9/L

A

1:100 (or 1:101)

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39
Q

Dilution used when WBC count is between 100-300 x 10^9/L

A

1:200 (or 1:201)

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40
Q

WBC count is <1.0 x 10^9/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential

A

50

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41
Q

WBC count is >40 x 10^9/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential

A

200

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42
Q

WBC count is 100 x 10^9/L, how many WBCs are counted in the differential

A

300-400

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43
Q

WBC count should be corrected when there are how many nRBCs present

A

5 (or 10)

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44
Q

Life span of RBC

A

120 days

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45
Q

Average diameter of RBCs

A

6-8 um (or 7.2 um)

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46
Q

Size of microcytic RBCs

A

<6 um

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47
Q

How many hours does a neutrophil stay in the peripheral blood

A

7 hours

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48
Q

Life span of neutrophils

A

5 days

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49
Q

Maturation time of eosinophils

A

3.5 days

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50
Q

Half-life of eosinophil in the blood

A

8 (or 18) hours

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51
Q

Maturation time of basophils

A

7 days

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52
Q

Average diameter of platelets

A

2.5 um

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53
Q

Standard dilution for platelet count

A

1:100

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54
Q

Dilution if <50 platelets are counted on each side of hemacytometer

A

1:20

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55
Q

Dilution if >500 platelets are counted on each side of hemacytometer

A

1:200

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56
Q

After charging, allow platelets to settle in hemocytometer for ___ minutes

A

15 minutes

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57
Q

Area of square used for counting platelets using ammonium oxalate

A

1 mm^2

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58
Q

Number of platelets per OIF when doing platelet estimate

A

8-20

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59
Q

Factor used when doing a platelet estimate in the peripheral blood smear

A

20,000

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60
Q

Normal value for MPV

A

7.0 to 12.0 fL

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61
Q

Normal value for PDW

A

<20%

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62
Q

Normal template bleeding time

A

6-10 minutes

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63
Q

In DIC, D-dimer test will be positive after how many hours

A

4 hours

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64
Q

Specimens for PT and APTT must be centrifuged within

A

1 hour

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65
Q

Reference range for PTT

A

25 - 35 seconds

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66
Q

Reference range for PT

A

12.6 - 14.6 seconds

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67
Q

Reference range for thrombin time

A

21 seconds or less than

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68
Q

INR for DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS and myocardial infarction

A

2.0 to 3.0

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69
Q

INR for patients with PROSTHETIC HEART VALVES

A

2.5 to 3.5

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70
Q

INR for patients with PULMONARY EMBOLISM

A

3.0

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71
Q

Peripheral blood smear should be __________ the length of the slide

A

2/3 to 3/4

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72
Q

The shape of blood smear should be

A

Finger-shaped

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73
Q

Pressure in THICK smear should be

A

Decreased

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74
Q

Pressure in THIN smear should be

A

Increased

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75
Q

Angle, size of blood, speed of spreader in the THICK smear should be

A

Increased

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76
Q

Angle, size of blood, speed of spreader in the THIN smear should be

A

Decreased

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77
Q

Too pale or red RBCs and barely visible WBCs is caused by

A

Too acidic buffer or stain

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78
Q

Gray RBCs and too dark WBCs is caused by

A

Too alkaline buffer or stain

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79
Q

Holes in the smear means that

A

There is a dirt or grease on the slide

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80
Q

“Snowplow” effect on a blood smear must be examined using what objective

A

LPO

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81
Q

Tube layers of spun hematocrit

A

Fatty layer (top)
Plasma (2nd layer)
Buffy coat (3rd layer)
Packed RBCs (4th layer)
Clay (5th layer)
Wax (6th layer)

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82
Q

Cell cycle phase: Resting phase

A

Gap 0 (G0)

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83
Q

Cell cycle phase: Ready for DNA SYNTHESIS

A

Gap 1 (G1)

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84
Q

Cell cycle phase: DNA REPLICATION

A

Synthesis (S)

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85
Q

Cell cycle phase: Ready for CELL DIVISION

A

Gap 2 (G2)

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86
Q

Cell cycle phase: Ready to COMPLETE DIVISION

A

Mitosis (M)

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87
Q

Duration of Synthesis

A

8 (or 7.5) hours

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88
Q

Duration of Gap 2

A

4 (or 3.5) hours

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89
Q

KIT ligand, FLT3 ligand, GM-CSF, INTERLEUKINS 1, 3, 6, 11 has (positive/negative) influence on HSC stem cells and progenitors

A

Positive

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90
Q

Transforming growth factor-B, TNF-a, INTERFERONS has (positive/negative) influence on HSC stem cells and progenitors

A

Negative

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91
Q

Erythroid with a “WHEEL SPOKE” pattern of chromatin

A

Basophilic normoblast

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92
Q

Cell with a nucleus having “CHECKERBOARD” appearance

A

Polychromatic normoblast

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93
Q

Most reliable criterion to differentiate mature from immature cell

A

Nuclear chromatin

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94
Q

Embryonic Hemoglobins

A

Gower I
Gower II
Portland

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95
Q

Normal hemoglobins

A

HbF
HbA
HbA2

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96
Q

Abnormal hemoglobins

A

Bart
HbH

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97
Q

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

A

Gower I

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98
Q

2 alpha 2 epsilon

A

Gower II

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99
Q

2 zeta 2 gamma

A

Portland

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100
Q

2 alpha 2 GAMMA

A

HbF

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101
Q

2 alpha 2 BETA

A

HbA

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102
Q

2 alpha 2 DELTA

A

HbA2

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103
Q

4 gamma

A

Bart

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104
Q

4 beta

A

HbH

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105
Q

Hemoglobin solubility test / Dithionite test is a screening test for

A

Hemoglobin S

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106
Q

Dithionite test reagents

A

Sodium hydrosulfite (dithionite), saponin, filter paper

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107
Q

Dithionite test principle

A

Reduction

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108
Q

Positive result for dithionite test

A

Solution becomes turbid (black lines cannot be seen)

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109
Q

Negative result for dithionite test

A

Solution remains clear (black lines are visible)

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110
Q

Conditions with INCREASED ESR

A

*Macro HAM High VREeD

Macrocytosis
Hyperfibrinogenemia
Anemia
Multiple myeloma
High room temperature
Vibration
Refrigerated sample (not returned to room temp)
DM

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111
Q

Spur/thorn cell

A

Acanthocyte

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112
Q

Punched-out cell

A

Anulocyte

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113
Q

Target/mexican hat cell/leptocyte

A

Codocyte

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114
Q

Teardrop/pear-shaped cell

A

Dacryocyte

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115
Q

Bite cell

A

Degmacyte

116
Q

Sickle cell/menisocyte

A

Drepanocyte

117
Q

Burr cell/sea urchin/crenated cell

A

Echinocyte

118
Q

Rod/cigar-shaped cell

A

Elliptocyte

119
Q

Helmet cell

A

Keratocyte

120
Q

Ball/bronze cell

A

Spherocyte

121
Q

Mouth cell

A

Stomatocyte

122
Q

Half moon/crescent cell

A

Semi-lunar bodies

123
Q

Neutrophil granules formed during PROMYELOCYTE stage

A

Primary (azurophilic)

124
Q

Neutrophil granules formed during MYELOCYTE stage

A

Secondary (specific)

125
Q

Neutrophil granules formed during METAMYELOCYTE and BAND stages

A

Tertiary

126
Q

MYELOPEROXIDASE is seen in what neutrophil granules

A

Primary (azurophilic)

127
Q

LYSOZYME is seen in what neutrophil granules

A

Tertiary

128
Q

Primary granules of EOSINOPHILS consists of

A

Charcot-Leyden crystal protein

129
Q

Catalase and elastase are seen in what eosinophil granules

A

Small lysosomal granules

130
Q

CYCLOOXIGENASE is seen in what type of eosinophil granules

A

Lipid bodies

131
Q

Eosinophil granules that CARRIES PROTEIN from secondary granules to be released into the extracellular medium

A

Storage vesicles

132
Q

Basophil granules that carries histamine, platelet-activating factor, vascular endothelial growth factor and chondroitin sulfates

A

Secondary granules

133
Q

Not an obligate end cell

A

Lymphocyte

134
Q

Most fragile blood cell

A

Lymphocyte

135
Q

DECREASED NUCLEAR SEGMENTATION in neutrophils

A

Pelger-Huet anomaly

136
Q

GIANT LYSOSOMAL GRANULES in granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi disease

137
Q

Thrombocytopenia, GIANT PLATELETS, pale blue inclusion and LARGE Dohle body-like inclusions in WBCs

A

May-Hegglin anomaly

138
Q

Presence of PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME

A

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia)

139
Q

INCREASED LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) is seen in what condition

A

PV (polycythemia vera)

140
Q

DECREASED LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) is seen in what condition

A

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia)

141
Q

Transforms into ACUTE LEUKEMIA

A

CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia)

142
Q

Acute UNDIFFERENTIATED leukemia

A

M0

143
Q

Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) WITHOUT maturation

A

M1

144
Q

Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) WITH maturation

A

M2

145
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)

A

M3

146
Q

APL associated with DIC and numerous FAGGOT CELLS

A

M3

147
Q

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (AMML) also known as Naegeli’s leukemia

A

M4

148
Q

Acute monoblastic leukemia (AMoL) WITHOUT maturation

A

M5a

149
Q

Acute monoblastic leukemia (AMoL) WITH maturation

A

M5b

150
Q

Erythroleukemia / Di Guglielmo’s syndrome

A

M6

151
Q

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (AMegL)

A

M7

152
Q

Acute basophilic leukemia

A

M8

153
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) with SMALL, HOMOGENOUS cell and SCANTY cytoplasm

A

L1

154
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) with LARGE, HETEROGENOUS cell and LARGE nucleoli

A

L2

155
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) with LARGE, HOMOGENOUS cell and PROMINENT cytoplasmic vacuolation

A

L3 / Burkitt Type

156
Q

Cottage loaf nucleus

A

M3

157
Q

Both myeloid and monocytic cells are present; at least 20% of the total leukocytes

A

M4

158
Q

Erythroid and granulocytic precursors; megakaryocytic and monocytic proliferations

A

M6

159
Q

UNDIFFERENTIATED leukemia

A

Stem cell leukemia

160
Q

POORLY differentiated leukemia

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

161
Q

WELL differentiated leukemia

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

162
Q

Solid tumor counterpart of myeloma

A

Plasma cell leukemia

163
Q

PPE for enteric isolation

A

Gloves and gown

164
Q

PPE for protective isolation

A

Gown, gloves, mask

165
Q

An example of conditions that requires protective isolation

A

Leukemia

166
Q

Sheep RBC receptor, (+) E rosette assay

A

CD2

167
Q

Helper T cell

A

CD4

168
Q

Also known as CALLA (common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen)

A

CD10

169
Q

NK cells marker

A

CD 16, CD 56

170
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells marker

A

CD34

171
Q

Platelet structure that consists of surface coat (glycocalyx) and is responsible for ADHESION and AGGREGATION

A

Peripheral zone

172
Q

Platelet structure that MAINTAINS THE POSITION of the organelles

A

Sol-Gel Zone

173
Q

Sol-Gel Zone that is composed of ACTIN AND MYOSIN to form actomyosin / thrombosthenin

A

Microfilaments

174
Q

Sol-Gel Zone that is composed of TUBULIN which maintains platelet’s discoid SHAPE

A

Microtubules

175
Q

A contractile protein important in CLOT RETRACTION

A

Thrombosthenin

176
Q

Platelet structure that is composed of dense granules, alpha-granules, lysosomes and mitochondria

A

Organelle zone

177
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage with INDENTED nucleus

A

MK-II (promegakaryocyte)

178
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage with MULTILOBED nucleus

A

MK-III (megakaryocyte)

179
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage with a VARIABLE nucleoli

A

MK-II (promegakaryocyte)

180
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage with MODERATELY condensed chromatin

A

MK-II (promegakaryocyte)

181
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage with DEEPLY but VARIABLY condensed chromatin

A

MK-III

182
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage where ENDOMITOSIS ENDS

A

MK II (promegakaryocyte)

183
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage where there is NO ENDOMITOSIS

A

MK-III (megakaryocyte)

184
Q

Megakaryocytic differentiation stage that has an EOSINOPHILIC and GRANULAR cytoplasm

A

MK-III (megakaryocyte)

185
Q

Present in ALL megakaryocytic differentiation stages (MK-I, MK-II, MK-III)

A

Alpha and dense granules, demarcation system

186
Q

Associated with endomitosis

A

Thrombocytes

187
Q

Acquired platelet dysfunctions

A

*LUPA

Liver disease
Uremia
Pernicious anemia
Aspirin (drugs)

188
Q

Hereditary platelet dysfunctions

A

von Willebrand disease
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Thrombasthenia (Glanzmann’s, essential)

189
Q

Factor I

A

Fibrinogen

190
Q

Factor II

A

Prothrombin

191
Q

Factor III

A

Tissue factor

192
Q

Factor IV

A

Calcium

193
Q

Factor V

A

Labile factor / Proaccelerin

194
Q

Factor VII

A

Stable factor / Proconvertin

195
Q

Factor VIII

A

Anti-hemophilic factor A

196
Q

Factor IX

A

PTC (plasma thromboplastin component) / Anti-hemophilic factor B / Christmas factor

197
Q

Factor X

A

Stuart factor

198
Q

Factor XI

A

PTA (plasma thromboplastin antecedent) / Anti-hemophilic factor C

199
Q

Factor XII

A

Hageman factor / Contact factor

200
Q

Factor XIII

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor / Laki-Lorand factor

201
Q

PK

A

Prekallikrein / Fletcher factor

202
Q

HMWK

A

Fitzgerald factor

203
Q

Prothrombin (PT) group

A

II, VII, IX, X

204
Q

Fibrinogen group

A

I, V, VIII, XIII

205
Q

Contact group

A

XI, XII, PK, HMWK

206
Q

Calcium dependent, Vitamin K DEPENDENT *dede

A

Prothrombin group (II, VII, IX, X)

207
Q

Calcium INdependent, vitamin K INdependent

A

Contact group (XI, XII, PK, HMWK)

208
Q

Calcium dependent, vitamin K INDEPENDENT

A

Fibrinogen group (I, V, VIII, XIII)

209
Q

Completely consumed during coagulation

A

Fibrinogen group (I, V, VIII, XIII)

210
Q

First coagulation factor affected by COUMARIN

A

Factor VII
(VII ➡️ IX ➡️ X ➡️ 2)

211
Q

Factor VIII:C

A

Factor VIII procoagulant activity

212
Q

Initial vWD workup

A

CBC, PT, APTT

213
Q

Deficiencies of factors II, V, VII, X ; prolonged clotting time. What test

A

Prothrombin time (PT)

214
Q

Deficiencies of ALL factors EXCEPT VII, XIII ; prolonged clotting time. What test

A

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

215
Q

PT reagent composition

A

Thromboplastin + phospholipids + calcium chloride

216
Q

APTT reagent composition

A

Activator + phospholipid

217
Q

How many uL of PT reagent

A

200 uL

218
Q

PROLONGED (PT), PROLONGED (APTT) , PROLONGED (CT)

A

Fibrinogen

219
Q

PROLONGED (PT), PROLONGED (APTT) , NORMAL (CT)

A

II, V, X

220
Q

PROLONGED (PT), NORMAL (APTT) , NORMAL (CT)

A

VII

221
Q

NORMAL (PT), PROLONGED (APTT) , NORMAL (CT)

A

VIII, IX, XI

222
Q

NORMAL (PT), NORMAL (APTT) , NORMAL (CT)

A

XIII

223
Q

Platelet size threshold

A

2-20 fL

224
Q

High-angle forward scatter, 5-15 degrees

A

Technicon Angle 2

225
Q

Instrument POSITIVE errors

A

Bubbles in the sample
Electrical pulses
Aperture plugs

226
Q

Instrument NEGATIVE error

A

Excessive lysing of RBCs

227
Q

Giant platelets may be counted as

A

RBC or WBC

228
Q

Increased number of _____ makes accurate RBC and platelet count imposible

A

Schistocytes

229
Q

Agglutinated __________ may cause false-POSITIVE LEUKOCYTE counts

A

RBCs or platelets

230
Q

When 2 cells pass through an orifice simultaneously and counted as 1 cell, it is called

A

Coincidence

231
Q

Semi-automated coagulation instrument

A

Fibrometer
KC4 Delta
STart4

232
Q

Automated coagulation instrument

A

MDA, AMAX, STA-R, BCR, ACL

233
Q

Endpoint in electromechanical clot detection systems

A

Clot formation via clotting time

234
Q

Parameter affected by cold agglutinins

A

Decrease RBC, Increased MCV and MCHC

235
Q

Corrective action for cold agglutinins

A

Warm specimen to 37C and rerun

236
Q

Parameters affected if specimen is lipemic / icteric

A

Increase hemoglobin and MCH

237
Q

Parameters affected if specimen is hemolyzed

A

Decrease RBC and hematocrit

238
Q

Parameters affected in the presence of microcytes / schistocytes

A

Increase platelets, decrease RBC

239
Q

Parameters affected in the presence of nucleated RBCs and megakaryocyte

A

Increase WBCs

240
Q

Parameters affected if there is a presence of platelet clumps

A

Decrease platelets, increase WBC

241
Q

What is the corrective action for platelet clumps

A

Redraw specimen in SODIUM CITRATE, multiply result by 1.1

242
Q

Aggregates of 3-4 RBCs. What rouleaux grading

A

1+

243
Q

Aggregates of 5-10 RBCs. What rouleaux grading

A

2+

244
Q

Numerous aggregates with few free RBCs. What grading

A

3+

245
Q

1-2 RBC chains PER FIELD. What rouleaux grading

A

Slight

246
Q

3-4 RBC chains PER FIELD. What rouleaux grading

A

Moderate

247
Q

5 or more RBC chains PER FIELD. What rouleaux grading

A

Marked

248
Q

Polychromasia grading of 1%

A

Slight

249
Q

Polychromasia grading of 3%

A

1+

250
Q

Polychromasia grading of 5%

A

2+

251
Q

Polychromasia grading of 10%

A

3+

252
Q

Polychromasia grading of >11%

A

4+

253
Q

Macrocytosis grading of 25%

A

1+ (slight)

254
Q

Macrocytosis grading of 25-50%

A

2+ to 3+ (moderate)

255
Q

Macrocytosis grading of >50%

A

4+ (marked)

256
Q

1/3 of the cell diameter. What hypochromia grading

A

Normal

257
Q

1/2 of the cell diameter. What hypochromia grading

A

1+

258
Q

2/3 of the cell diameter. What hypochromia grading

A

2+

259
Q

3/4 of the cell diameter. What hypochromia grading

A

3+

260
Q

Thin rim of hemoglobin / ANULOCYTE. What hypochromia grading

A

4+

261
Q

> 2/3 of the cell diameter. What hypochromia grading

A

2+ to 3+ (moderate)

262
Q

150,000 - 199,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Low normal

263
Q

100,000 - 149,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Slight decrease

264
Q

50,000 - 99,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Moderate decrease

265
Q

0 - 49,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Marked decrease

266
Q

200,000 - 400,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Normal

267
Q

401,000 - 599,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Slight decrease

268
Q

600,000 - 800,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Moderate increase

269
Q

> 800,000 / uL platelet estimate

A

Marked increase

270
Q

“Normal / slight” what erythrocyte grading

A

0

271
Q

“Small / few” what erythrocyte grading

A

1+

272
Q

“Moderately” what erythrocyte grading

A

2+

273
Q

“Many” what erythrocyte grading

A

3+

274
Q

“Marked” what erythrocyte grading

A

4+

275
Q

0-2 / OIF codocytes, ovalocytes, stomatocytes

A

Within normal limits

276
Q

2-10/ OIF codocytes, ovalocytes, stomatocytes

A

1+

277
Q

10-20 / OIF codocytes, ovalocytes, stomatocytes

A

2+

278
Q

20-50 / OIF codocytes, ovalocytes, stomatocytes

A

3+

279
Q

> 50/ OIF codocytes, ovalocytes, stomatocytes

A

4+

280
Q

<1 / OIF acanthocytes, schisocytes

A

Within normal limits

281
Q

2-5 / OIF acanthocytes, schisocytes

A

1+

282
Q

5-10 / OIF acanthocytes, schisocytes

A

2+

283
Q

10-20 / OIF acanthocytes, schisocytes

A

3+

284
Q

> 20 / OIF acanthocytes, schisocytes

A

4+

285
Q

1+ (1-5/field), 2+ (6-10/field), 3+ (>10/field). These are reportings for

A

Spherocytes, Acanthocytes, Schistocytes

286
Q

1+ (3-10/field), 2+ (11-20/field), 3+ (>20field). These are reportings for

A

Codocytes, Ovalocytes, Stomatocytes

287
Q

Sickle cells, BASOPHILIC STIPPLING, Pappenheimer and Howell-Jolly bodies are reported as

A

Positive

Recalls (8 decks)

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