Microbiology Flashcards
(184 cards)
1
Q
BAP and CAP are examples of what media
A
Enriched / non-selective / nutritive
2
Q
MAC is both _____ & _____ media
A
Differential and selective
3
Q
What type of media is MSA
A
Selective media
4
Q
Inhibit growth of other organisms while promoting growth of desired organism
A
Selective media
5
Q
CM of Burkholderia pseduomallei
A
Ashdown medium
6
Q
CM of Salmonella typhi
A
Bismuth sulfite agar
7
Q
CM of Bordetella pertussis
A
Bordet-Gengou (potato blood glycerol)
8
Q
CM of Legionella spp
A
BCYE (Buffered charcoal-yeast extract agar)
9
Q
CM of Campylobacter spp.
A
Campy-blood agar
10
Q
CM of Yersinia spp
A
CIN (Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar)
11
Q
CM of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A
Cetrimide agar
12
Q
CM of Bordetella perussis
A
Charcoal cephalexin blood agar
13
Q
CM of Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp.
A
Chocolate agar
14
Q
CM of Haemophilus spp.
A
Chocolate blood agar with horse blood
15
Q
CM of Gram-positive cocci
A
CNA (Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid)
16
Q
CM of Clostridium difficile
A
CCFA (Cyloserine-cefotixin fructose agar)
17
Q
CM of Francisella tularensis
A
Cystine blood glucose agar
18
Q
CM of Aspergillus spp.
A
Czapek’s agar
19
Q
CM of Leptospira
A
Fletcher’s semi-solid medium
20
Q
CM of Salmonella & Shigella vs. other enteric bacilli
A
Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
21
Q
CM of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A
Loeffler’s serum medium / Pai medium
22
Q
CM of lactose vs. non-lactose fermenting enteric bacill
A
MacConkey agar
23
Q
CM of E.coli 0157:H7
A
MacConkey sorbitol agar
24
Q
CM of Staphylococci
A
Mannitol salt agar
25
CM of Mycobacteria
Middlebrook 7H10
26
Mueller Hinton Agar has a depth of
4 mm
27
CM of Bordetella pertussis
Regan-Lowe agar
28
CM of Campylobacter spp.
Skirrow agar
29
CM of N.gonorrhoeae and N. meningitis
Thayer-Martin agar
30
CM of anaerobes and aerobes
Thioglycollate broth
31
CM of Vibrio spp.
TCBS (thiosulfate citrate-bile salt sucrose)
32
CM of S. agalactiae
Todd-Hewitt broth
33
CM of Salmonella and Shigella
XLD (Xylose lysine desoxycholate) agar
34
Special stain for Mycolic acid (e.g. Mycobacteria)
Ziehl-Neelsen
35
Special stain for yeast cells
India ink (negative stain)
36
Special stain for endospores
Schaeffer-Fulton
37
Special stain for nucleic acid
Acridine orange
38
Special stain for flagella
Leifson
39
Special stain for polar bodies (Y. pestis)
Wayson
40
Special stain for Rickettsia
Gimenez stain
41
Special stain for Spirochetes
Dieterle silver stain
42
Special stain for Mycobacterium leprae
Fite-Faraco (counterstain: Hematoxylin)
43
Biosafety level: Equipped with handwashing sinks
1
44
Biosafety level: SARS-CoV-2, BSL 2
2
45
Biosafety level: Organisms are primarily transmitted by infectious AEROSOL, SARS-CoV-2, BSL-3
3
46
Biosafety level: EXOTIC AGENTS, maximum containment
4
47
Biosafety cabinet that filters EXHAUSTED air ONLY
1
48
70% recirculated 30% exhausted
2 (A1)
49
30% recirculated 70% exhausted
2 (B1)
50
BSC for handling SARS-CoV-2 testing
2 (A2)
51
100% exhausted NO recirculation
2 (B2)
52
BSC that is completely enclosed, centrifuge can be installed
3
53
HEPA
High-Efficiency Particulate Air
54
HEPA pore size
0-3 mm
55
Class 2 BSCs are also called
Vertical laminar flow BSCs
56
BSC for RADIOISOTOPES, toxic chemical and carcinogens
Class 2B
57
CSF specimen level of prioritization
1
58
For superficial abscess, swab along leading __________
Edge of the wound
59
Specimens for microbiology testing should be transported to the laboratory within
15 minutes (<15)
60
Draw blood at time of _____ episodes. How many sets
Febrile (before the fever spikes)
2 sets (left and right arms)
61
Incubate CSF at
37C
62
O & P examination. How many specimens
3 specimens
- every other day (outpatient)
- everyday (inpatient)
63
Transport stool in the laboratory within
2 hours
64
For sputum sample, gargle with
Water
65
Specimen of choice for Bordetella pertussis
Nasopharyngeal swab
66
Acetamide utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Pseudomonas aeruginosa; blue color
67
Acetate utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Escherichia coli; blue color
68
Bacitracin susceptibility is a test for __________ which uses _____ amount of bacitracin
Streptococcus pyogenes, 0.04 U
69
Bile esculin is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Enterococcus faecalis; blackening of agar slant
70
Bile solubility is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Streptococcus pneumonia; lysed colonies
71
Bile solubility test reagent to lyse the colony of S. pneumoniae
Sodium desoxycholate
72
Positive result for CAMP test
Arrowhead-shaped
73
In catalase test, 30% H2O2 will yield
H2O and O2
74
Citrate utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Enterobacter aerogenes; blue color
75
Slide coagulase test detects
Bound coagulase
76
Tube coagulase test detects
Free coagulase
77
Coagulase is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Staphylococcus aureus; clot (tube test)
78
Decarboxylased ORNITHINE will lead to
Putrescine
79
Decarboxylased LYSINE will lead to
Cadaverine
80
Good growth at both 35C and 42C
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
81
Decarboxylased ORNITHINE will lead to
82
Indole production is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________
Escherichia coli; cherry red color
83
Indicator for MRVP test
MR
84
MRVP principle
Butylene Glycol Pathway
85
MRVP: Bright red color (pH 4.4)
Methyl red
86
MRVP: red color
Voges-Proskauer
87
In motility testing, growth along the stab line means
Negative / non-motile
88
MUG test is a test for __________ which leads to a positive result of __________
Escherichia coli; electric blue fluorescence
89
Negative result for MUG test
Lack of fluorescence
90
ONPG test positive result
Yellow
91
Optochin (P disk) susceptibility test is used to detect __________ with a positive result of __________
Streptococcus pneumoniae; ZOI of 14mm or more
92
Ethylenehydrocupreine hydrochloride (5 ug) is a test principle for
Optochin (Taxo P) susceptibility test
93
Positive result of Kovac's method (oxidase test)
Dark purple
94
X and V factor requirement
Growth around XV disk
95
V factor requirement
Growth around V; no growth around X; light growth around XV
96
Halo of growth around XV disk. What microorganism
Haemophilus influenzae
97
No requirement for either X and V factor. What microorganism
Haemophilus aprophilus
98
Virulence factor that acts as an acceptor of Factor H
M protein
*FHM
99
Taxo A SUSCEPTIBLE; PYR (+)
Group A (S. pyogenes)
100
SXT RESISTANT; the ONLY CAMP (+) and HIPPURATE (+)
Group B (S. agalactiae)
101
SXT RESISTANT; 6.5% NaCl (+); Bile Esculin (+); PYR (+)
Enterococcus
102
Taxo P SUSCEPTIBLE; Bile SOLUBLE
Streptococcus pneumoniae
103
Woolsorter's disease. What type of anthrax
Pulmonary anthrax
104
VP (+) Enterobacteriaceae
*KESHP
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia
Pantoea
105
H2S (+) Enterobacteriaceae
*PECS
Proteus
Edwardsiella
Citrobacter
Salmonella
106
NONMOTILE enterobacteriaceae
*ShKY
Shigella
Klebsiella
Yersinia
107
PAD (+) enterobacteriaceae
*PPM
Proteus
Providencia
Morganella
108
++--
Escherichia coli
109
--++
Klebsiella
110
Indole positive Klebsiella
Klebsiella oxytoca
111
Flat, dry, PINK colonies with darker pink area of precipitated bile salts on MAC
Escherichia coli
112
YELLOW on XLD; forms blue-black with GREEN METALLIC SHEEN on EMB
Escherichia coli
113
Burnt chocolate cake odor
Proteus
114
Swarming on MAC
Proteus
115
Red with BLACK CENTER on XLD
Salmonella
116
Flat colonies with JAGGED EDGES on MAC
Shigella sonnei
117
Colorless on XLD
Shigella
118
"Molar tooth"
Actinomyces israelli
119
"Medusa head" with flat, irregular, swirling projections
Bacillus anthracis
120
Gliding motility
Capnocytophaga
121
Dark purple color; AMMONIUM CYANIDE odor
Chromobacterium violaceum
122
Gray colonies
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
123
Resembles C. diphtheriae
C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis
124
"Ground glass" on CCFA
Clostridium difficile
125
DOUBLE ZONE of beta-hemolysis
Clostridium perfringens
126
May PIT or corrode the agar surface
Eikenella corrodens
127
"Fried egg" appearance
Mycoplasma hominis
128
Gray, translucent, smooth, glistening, may have dry CLAYLIKE consistency
Neisseria elongata
129
"Mushroom odor"
Pasteurella multocida
130
Grape-like or corn tortilla like odor
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
131
"Strawberry-like odor"
Pseudomonas fragi
132
Salmon-pink pigment
Rhodococcus
133
Raised, beta-hemolytic pigmented CREAMY YELLOW colonies
Staphylococcus aureus
134
Grayish white, translucent, MATTE or GLOSSY, LARGE ZONE of beta-hemolysis
Streptococcus pyogenes
135
Which of the following can transmit plague bacillus
Xenopsylla cheopis
136
Glucose (+) What Neisseria spp.
N. gonorrhoeae
137
Glucose (+) Maltose (+) What Neisseria spp.
N. meningitidis
138
Glucose (+) Maltose (+) Lactose (+) What Neisseria spp.
N. lactamica
139
Glucose (+) Maltose (+) Fructose (+) SUCROSE (+) What Neisseria spp.
N. sicca
140
Helicobacter is urease ___
(+) positive
141
Hippurate (+) ; grows at 42C (campylobacter/helicobacter)
Campylobacter jejuni
142
Oxidase (-) Bordetella
B. parapertussis
143
Urease (+) in 4 hours. What bordetella
B. bronchiseptica
144
X and V factor
Haemophilus influenzae
145
V factor only; WITH porphyrin
Haemophilus parainfluenzae
146
NO X and V factor; WITH porphyrin
Haemophilus aphrophilus
147
TB-DOTS screening test recommended by DOH
DSSM (direct sputum smear microscopy)
148
Best confirmatory test for TB
Molecular (GeneXpert, NAAT, PCR)
149
Gold standard confirmatory test for TB
Culture
150
Number of specimens submitted for DSSM
2
151
Size of AFB smear
2 x 3 cm
152
Number of fields examined in AFB smear
300
153
No AFB/300 fields
Negative
154
1-9 AFB/100 fields
Doubtful
155
10-99 AFB/100 fields
1+
156
1-10 AFB/field in at least 50 fields
2+
157
>10 AFB/field in at least 20 fields
3+
158
Fastest way of killing tuberculosis
Boiling (10 minutes)
159
Formation of acid and gas in lactose broth; demonstration of gram-negative bacilli in the agar culture
Completed test
160
Results of water bacteriology are reported as
MPN (most probable number)
161
Positive quality control organism for water bacteriology
Escherichia coli
162
Milk-borne disease for cows
Salmonella typhi
163
Milk-borne disease for humans
Bacillus anthracis
164
Spaghetti and meatballs fungi
Malassezia furfur
165
(+) UV light fluorescence fungi
Microsporum canis
166
Club-shaped macroconidia
Epidermophyton floccosum
167
(+) hair penetration test; "V-shaped" fungi
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
168
Balloon-shaped microconidia
Trichophyton tonsurans
169
Rose-gardener's disease
Sporothrix schenckii
170
Capsule stained by india ink
Cryptococccus neoformans
171
Germ-tube; cornmeal agar
Candida albicans
172
"Farmer's lung"
Aspergillus spp.
173
Produce a false-positive reaction in a serologic test for Histoplasma capsulatum
1 = Blastomyces
2 = Coccidioides immitis
174
Anticoagulant for viral CULTURE
Heparin
175
Anticoagulant for viral PCR
EDTA
176
Aplastic anemia. What virus
Parvovirus B19
177
Site of latency is the dorsal root ganglia. What virus
Varicella-Zoster
178
Caused of viral diarrhea in ADULTS
Norwalk virus
179
Cause of gastroenteritis in INFANTS and CHILDREN during WINTER SEASONS
Rotavirus
180
Coryza, conjunctivitis, cough, red rash. What virus
Paramyxovirus
181
Hand-foot-mouth disease. What virus
Coxsackie virus
182
Aseptic meningitis. What virus
Enterovirus
183
Hairy cell leukemia (HTLV-2) is caused by what virus
Retrovirus
184
CNS virus causing acute encephalitis (RABIES)
Rhabdovirus
