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Recalls > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

BAP and CAP are examples of what media

A

Enriched / non-selective / nutritive

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2
Q

MAC is both _____ & _____ media

A

Differential and selective

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3
Q

What type of media is MSA

A

Selective media

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4
Q

Inhibit growth of other organisms while promoting growth of desired organism

A

Selective media

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5
Q

CM of Burkholderia pseduomallei

A

Ashdown medium

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6
Q

CM of Salmonella typhi

A

Bismuth sulfite agar

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7
Q

CM of Bordetella pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou (potato blood glycerol)

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8
Q

CM of Legionella spp

A

BCYE (Buffered charcoal-yeast extract agar)

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9
Q

CM of Campylobacter spp.

A

Campy-blood agar

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10
Q

CM of Yersinia spp

A

CIN (Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar)

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11
Q

CM of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Cetrimide agar

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12
Q

CM of Bordetella perussis

A

Charcoal cephalexin blood agar

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13
Q

CM of Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp.

A

Chocolate agar

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14
Q

CM of Haemophilus spp.

A

Chocolate blood agar with horse blood

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15
Q

CM of Gram-positive cocci

A

CNA (Columbia colistin-nalidixic acid)

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16
Q

CM of Clostridium difficile

A

CCFA (Cyloserine-cefotixin fructose agar)

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17
Q

CM of Francisella tularensis

A

Cystine blood glucose agar

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18
Q

CM of Aspergillus spp.

A

Czapek’s agar

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19
Q

CM of Leptospira

A

Fletcher’s semi-solid medium

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20
Q

CM of Salmonella & Shigella vs. other enteric bacilli

A

Hektoen enteric (HE) agar

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21
Q

CM of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Loeffler’s serum medium / Pai medium

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22
Q

CM of lactose vs. non-lactose fermenting enteric bacill

A

MacConkey agar

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23
Q

CM of E.coli 0157:H7

A

MacConkey sorbitol agar

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24
Q

CM of Staphylococci

A

Mannitol salt agar

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25
Q

CM of Mycobacteria

A

Middlebrook 7H10

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26
Q

Mueller Hinton Agar has a depth of

A

4 mm

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27
Q

CM of Bordetella pertussis

A

Regan-Lowe agar

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28
Q

CM of Campylobacter spp.

A

Skirrow agar

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29
Q

CM of N.gonorrhoeae and N. meningitis

A

Thayer-Martin agar

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30
Q

CM of anaerobes and aerobes

A

Thioglycollate broth

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31
Q

CM of Vibrio spp.

A

TCBS (thiosulfate citrate-bile salt sucrose)

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32
Q

CM of S. agalactiae

A

Todd-Hewitt broth

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33
Q

CM of Salmonella and Shigella

A

XLD (Xylose lysine desoxycholate) agar

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34
Q

Special stain for Mycolic acid (e.g. Mycobacteria)

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

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35
Q

Special stain for yeast cells

A

India ink (negative stain)

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36
Q

Special stain for endospores

A

Schaeffer-Fulton

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37
Q

Special stain for nucleic acid

A

Acridine orange

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38
Q

Special stain for flagella

A

Leifson

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39
Q

Special stain for polar bodies (Y. pestis)

A

Wayson

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40
Q

Special stain for Rickettsia

A

Gimenez stain

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41
Q

Special stain for Spirochetes

A

Dieterle silver stain

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42
Q

Special stain for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Fite-Faraco (counterstain: Hematoxylin)

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43
Q

Biosafety level: Equipped with handwashing sinks

A

1

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44
Q

Biosafety level: SARS-CoV-2, BSL 2

A

2

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45
Q

Biosafety level: Organisms are primarily transmitted by infectious AEROSOL, SARS-CoV-2, BSL-3

A

3

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46
Q

Biosafety level: EXOTIC AGENTS, maximum containment

A

4

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47
Q

Biosafety cabinet that filters EXHAUSTED air ONLY

A

1

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48
Q

70% recirculated 30% exhausted

A

2 (A1)

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49
Q

30% recirculated 70% exhausted

A

2 (B1)

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50
Q

BSC for handling SARS-CoV-2 testing

A

2 (A2)

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51
Q

100% exhausted NO recirculation

A

2 (B2)

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52
Q

BSC that is completely enclosed, centrifuge can be installed

A

3

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53
Q

HEPA

A

High-Efficiency Particulate Air

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54
Q

HEPA pore size

A

0-3 mm

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55
Q

Class 2 BSCs are also called

A

Vertical laminar flow BSCs

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56
Q

BSC for RADIOISOTOPES, toxic chemical and carcinogens

A

Class 2B

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57
Q

CSF specimen level of prioritization

A

1

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58
Q

For superficial abscess, swab along leading __________

A

Edge of the wound

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59
Q

Specimens for microbiology testing should be transported to the laboratory within

A

15 minutes (<15)

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60
Q

Draw blood at time of _____ episodes. How many sets

A

Febrile (before the fever spikes)
2 sets (left and right arms)

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61
Q

Incubate CSF at

A

37C

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62
Q

O & P examination. How many specimens

A

3 specimens
- every other day (outpatient)
- everyday (inpatient)

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63
Q

Transport stool in the laboratory within

A

2 hours

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64
Q

For sputum sample, gargle with

A

Water

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65
Q

Specimen of choice for Bordetella pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

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66
Q

Acetamide utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa; blue color

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67
Q

Acetate utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Escherichia coli; blue color

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68
Q

Bacitracin susceptibility is a test for __________ which uses _____ amount of bacitracin

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, 0.04 U

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69
Q

Bile esculin is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Enterococcus faecalis; blackening of agar slant

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70
Q

Bile solubility is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Streptococcus pneumonia; lysed colonies

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71
Q

Bile solubility test reagent to lyse the colony of S. pneumoniae

A

Sodium desoxycholate

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72
Q

Positive result for CAMP test

A

Arrowhead-shaped

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73
Q

In catalase test, 30% H2O2 will yield

A

H2O and O2

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74
Q

Citrate utilization is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Enterobacter aerogenes; blue color

75
Q

Slide coagulase test detects

A

Bound coagulase

76
Q

Tube coagulase test detects

A

Free coagulase

77
Q

Coagulase is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Staphylococcus aureus; clot (tube test)

78
Q

Decarboxylased ORNITHINE will lead to

A

Putrescine

79
Q

Decarboxylased LYSINE will lead to

A

Cadaverine

80
Q

Good growth at both 35C and 42C

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

81
Q

Decarboxylased ORNITHINE will lead to

A
82
Q

Indole production is a test for __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Escherichia coli; cherry red color

83
Q

Indicator for MRVP test

A

MR

84
Q

MRVP principle

A

Butylene Glycol Pathway

85
Q

MRVP: Bright red color (pH 4.4)

A

Methyl red

86
Q

MRVP: red color

A

Voges-Proskauer

87
Q

In motility testing, growth along the stab line means

A

Negative / non-motile

88
Q

MUG test is a test for __________ which leads to a positive result of __________

A

Escherichia coli; electric blue fluorescence

89
Q

Negative result for MUG test

A

Lack of fluorescence

90
Q

ONPG test positive result

A

Yellow

91
Q

Optochin (P disk) susceptibility test is used to detect __________ with a positive result of __________

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae; ZOI of 14mm or more

92
Q

Ethylenehydrocupreine hydrochloride (5 ug) is a test principle for

A

Optochin (Taxo P) susceptibility test

93
Q

Positive result of Kovac’s method (oxidase test)

A

Dark purple

94
Q

X and V factor requirement

A

Growth around XV disk

95
Q

V factor requirement

A

Growth around V; no growth around X; light growth around XV

96
Q

Halo of growth around XV disk. What microorganism

A

Haemophilus influenzae

97
Q

No requirement for either X and V factor. What microorganism

A

Haemophilus aprophilus

98
Q

Virulence factor that acts as an acceptor of Factor H

A

M protein
*FHM

99
Q

Taxo A SUSCEPTIBLE; PYR (+)

A

Group A (S. pyogenes)

100
Q

SXT RESISTANT; the ONLY CAMP (+) and HIPPURATE (+)

A

Group B (S. agalactiae)

101
Q

SXT RESISTANT; 6.5% NaCl (+); Bile Esculin (+); PYR (+)

A

Enterococcus

102
Q

Taxo P SUSCEPTIBLE; Bile SOLUBLE

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

103
Q

Woolsorter’s disease. What type of anthrax

A

Pulmonary anthrax

104
Q

VP (+) Enterobacteriaceae

A

*KESHP

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia
Pantoea

105
Q

H2S (+) Enterobacteriaceae

A

*PECS

Proteus
Edwardsiella
Citrobacter
Salmonella

106
Q

NONMOTILE enterobacteriaceae

A

*ShKY

Shigella
Klebsiella
Yersinia

107
Q

PAD (+) enterobacteriaceae

A

*PPM

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

108
Q

++–

A

Escherichia coli

109
Q

–++

A

Klebsiella

110
Q

Indole positive Klebsiella

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

111
Q

Flat, dry, PINK colonies with darker pink area of precipitated bile salts on MAC

A

Escherichia coli

112
Q

YELLOW on XLD; forms blue-black with GREEN METALLIC SHEEN on EMB

A

Escherichia coli

113
Q

Burnt chocolate cake odor

A

Proteus

114
Q

Swarming on MAC

A

Proteus

115
Q

Red with BLACK CENTER on XLD

A

Salmonella

116
Q

Flat colonies with JAGGED EDGES on MAC

A

Shigella sonnei

117
Q

Colorless on XLD

A

Shigella

118
Q

“Molar tooth”

A

Actinomyces israelli

119
Q

“Medusa head” with flat, irregular, swirling projections

A

Bacillus anthracis

120
Q

Gliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

121
Q

Dark purple color; AMMONIUM CYANIDE odor

A

Chromobacterium violaceum

122
Q

Gray colonies

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

123
Q

Resembles C. diphtheriae

A

C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis

124
Q

“Ground glass” on CCFA

A

Clostridium difficile

125
Q

DOUBLE ZONE of beta-hemolysis

A

Clostridium perfringens

126
Q

May PIT or corrode the agar surface

A

Eikenella corrodens

127
Q

“Fried egg” appearance

A

Mycoplasma hominis

128
Q

Gray, translucent, smooth, glistening, may have dry CLAYLIKE consistency

A

Neisseria elongata

129
Q

“Mushroom odor”

A

Pasteurella multocida

130
Q

Grape-like or corn tortilla like odor

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

131
Q

“Strawberry-like odor”

A

Pseudomonas fragi

132
Q

Salmon-pink pigment

A

Rhodococcus

133
Q

Raised, beta-hemolytic pigmented CREAMY YELLOW colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

134
Q

Grayish white, translucent, MATTE or GLOSSY, LARGE ZONE of beta-hemolysis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

135
Q

Which of the following can transmit plague bacillus

A

Xenopsylla cheopis

136
Q

Glucose (+) What Neisseria spp.

A

N. gonorrhoeae

137
Q

Glucose (+) Maltose (+) What Neisseria spp.

A

N. meningitidis

138
Q

Glucose (+) Maltose (+) Lactose (+) What Neisseria spp.

A

N. lactamica

139
Q

Glucose (+) Maltose (+) Fructose (+) SUCROSE (+) What Neisseria spp.

A

N. sicca

140
Q

Helicobacter is urease ___

A

(+) positive

141
Q

Hippurate (+) ; grows at 42C (campylobacter/helicobacter)

A

Campylobacter jejuni

142
Q

Oxidase (-) Bordetella

A

B. parapertussis

143
Q

Urease (+) in 4 hours. What bordetella

A

B. bronchiseptica

144
Q

X and V factor

A

Haemophilus influenzae

145
Q

V factor only; WITH porphyrin

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

146
Q

NO X and V factor; WITH porphyrin

A

Haemophilus aphrophilus

147
Q

TB-DOTS screening test recommended by DOH

A

DSSM (direct sputum smear microscopy)

148
Q

Best confirmatory test for TB

A

Molecular (GeneXpert, NAAT, PCR)

149
Q

Gold standard confirmatory test for TB

A

Culture

150
Q

Number of specimens submitted for DSSM

A

2

151
Q

Size of AFB smear

A

2 x 3 cm

152
Q

Number of fields examined in AFB smear

A

300

153
Q

No AFB/300 fields

A

Negative

154
Q

1-9 AFB/100 fields

A

Doubtful

155
Q

10-99 AFB/100 fields

A

1+

156
Q

1-10 AFB/field in at least 50 fields

A

2+

157
Q

> 10 AFB/field in at least 20 fields

A

3+

158
Q

Fastest way of killing tuberculosis

A

Boiling (10 minutes)

159
Q

Formation of acid and gas in lactose broth; demonstration of gram-negative bacilli in the agar culture

A

Completed test

160
Q

Results of water bacteriology are reported as

A

MPN (most probable number)

161
Q

Positive quality control organism for water bacteriology

A

Escherichia coli

162
Q

Milk-borne disease for cows

A

Salmonella typhi

163
Q

Milk-borne disease for humans

A

Bacillus anthracis

164
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs fungi

A

Malassezia furfur

165
Q

(+) UV light fluorescence fungi

A

Microsporum canis

166
Q

Club-shaped macroconidia

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

167
Q

(+) hair penetration test; “V-shaped” fungi

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

168
Q

Balloon-shaped microconidia

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

169
Q

Rose-gardener’s disease

A

Sporothrix schenckii

170
Q

Capsule stained by india ink

A

Cryptococccus neoformans

171
Q

Germ-tube; cornmeal agar

A

Candida albicans

172
Q

“Farmer’s lung”

A

Aspergillus spp.

173
Q

Produce a false-positive reaction in a serologic test for Histoplasma capsulatum

A

1 = Blastomyces
2 = Coccidioides immitis

174
Q

Anticoagulant for viral CULTURE

A

Heparin

175
Q

Anticoagulant for viral PCR

A

EDTA

176
Q

Aplastic anemia. What virus

A

Parvovirus B19

177
Q

Site of latency is the dorsal root ganglia. What virus

A

Varicella-Zoster

178
Q

Caused of viral diarrhea in ADULTS

A

Norwalk virus

179
Q

Cause of gastroenteritis in INFANTS and CHILDREN during WINTER SEASONS

A

Rotavirus

180
Q

Coryza, conjunctivitis, cough, red rash. What virus

A

Paramyxovirus

181
Q

Hand-foot-mouth disease. What virus

A

Coxsackie virus

182
Q

Aseptic meningitis. What virus

A

Enterovirus

183
Q

Hairy cell leukemia (HTLV-2) is caused by what virus

A

Retrovirus

184
Q

CNS virus causing acute encephalitis (RABIES)

A

Rhabdovirus

Recalls (8 decks)

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