Clinical Chemistry Flashcards

(299 cards)

1
Q

Random errors

A

12S, 13S, R4S

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2
Q

1 control value exceeds the mean +/- 2s

A

12S / Warning rule

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3
Q

1 control value exceeds the mean +/- 3s

A

13S

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4
Q

1 control value exceeds +2s and ANOTHER value exceeds -2s

A

R4S

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5
Q

2 CONSECUTIVE control values exceeds the same mean +/- 2s

A

22S

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6
Q

8 consecutive values fall on 1 SIDE of the mean

A

8x

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7
Q

Errors that occurs BY CHANCE

A

Random errors

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8
Q

Errors that are consistent in ONE DIRECTION

A

Systematic

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9
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Pipetting errors, mixing, timing (variation in handling techniques)

A

Random

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10
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Variation in operators

A

Random

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11
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Environmental conditions

A

Random

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12
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Fluctuations in line voltage

A

Systematic

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13
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Technologist interactions

A

Systematic

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14
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Dispensing of reagents

A

Random

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15
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Aging reagents

A

Systematic

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16
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Aging calibrators

A

Systematic

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17
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Calibrator reconstitution

A

Random

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18
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:
Temperature analyzer

A

Random

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19
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Instability of instrument

A

Random

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20
Q

RANDOM OR SYSTEMATIC:

Wear and tear of instruments and instrument components

A

Systematic

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21
Q

ABRUPT change in the mean

A

Shift

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22
Q

Main cause of shift

A

Improper calibration of instrument

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23
Q

Drift of values to ONE SIDE of the mean

A

Trend

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24
Q

Main cause of trend

A

Deterioration of reagents

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25
Variables: CHAXI
Concentration Horizontal Abscissa X-Axis Imdependent
26
Variables: AVOYD
Absorbance Vertical Ordinate Y-Axis Dependent
27
F-test
SD and Precision
28
T-test
Mean and Accuracy
29
Interlab QC; long-term monitoring; monthly or quarterly
External QC
30
Intralab QC; short-term monitoring; daily
Internal QC
31
Solution that uses 1 ANALYTE for CALIBRATION or REFERENCE
Standard
32
Solution that uses 2 ANALYTES to ENSURE CORRECT RESULTS
Control
33
Isolates specific or individual wavelength of light
Monochromator
34
Measures LIGHT TRANSMITTED by a solution to determine the concentration
Spectrophotometer
35
Determines the amount of LIGHT BLOCKED by a particulate matter in a turbid solution
Turbidimetry
36
Determines the amount of LIGHT SCATTERED by a particulate matter in a turbid solution
Nephelometry
37
Measure the amount of LIGHT EMITTED by a molecule AFTER EXCITATION by EMR, over a zero background
Fluorometry
38
Measures the electrical potential / DIFFERENCES BETWEEN 2 ELECTRODES in terms of voltage at constant current
Potentiometry
39
Samples flow through a COMMON vessel or pathway
Continuous Flow Analysis
40
Each sample-reagent mixture is handled SEPARATELY in its own reaction vessel
Discrete Analysis
41
Multiple tests one sample at a time; most popular and versatile type of automation
Discrete analysis
42
Uses acceleration and deceleration of ROTOR to transfer the reagents and sample
Centrifugal Analysis
43
Vertical when not spinning horizontal when spinning
Horizontal Head centrifuge / Swinging bucket centrifuge
44
Speed of swinging bucket centrifuge
1,650 g
45
Fixed angle centrifuge with speed of 9000
Angle-head centrifuge
46
Has continuous ETCHED RINGS on top; exact volume obtained when LAST DROP IS BLOWN OUT
Blowout pipet
47
The simplest pipet
Pasteur pipet
48
Relies on PISTON FOR SUCTION creation to draw sample into a DISPOSABLE TIP
Air displacement pipet
49
Reagent water for preparation of STANDARD SOLUTIONS
Type 1
50
GENERALLY USED reagent water for chemistry, microbiology, hematology, and immunology; also used for WASHING GLASSWARES
Type 2
51
Reagent water for urinalysis, parasitology, and histology
Type 3
52
Bleach inactivates HBV for how many minutes?
10
53
Bleach inactivates HIV for how many minutes?
2
54
Diurnal variation: Increase in the MORNING (AM)
🌞*ACIA ACTC Cortisol Iron Aldosterone
55
Diurnal variation: Increase in the AFTERNOON (PM)
🌛*GAPT Growth hormone ACP PTH TSH
56
Affected by posture; increases from supine to sitting / standing
Albumin Calcium Enzymes
57
*I CLAAAAAMPP Iron, Catecholamines, CK, LD, ALT, AST, ALP, ACP, Ammonia, Magnesium, Potassium, Phosphate _____ when sample is HEMOLYZED
Increases
58
If antecubital veins are unsuitable for venipuncture, what are the alternative sites?
Wrist and hand
59
When BP cuff is used as a tourniquet, it should be inflated at ___ mmHg
60 mmHg
60
Blood specimens on serum separator gel tubes must be processed within _____
30 minutes
61
Normal BMI
18.5 - 24.9
62
BMI of underweight / malnourished
< 18.5
63
BMI of obese
30 and above
64
SI unit for length
Meter (m)
65
SI unit for mass
Kilogram (kg)
66
SI unit for Themodynamic temperature
Kelvin (K)
67
SI unit for amount of substance
Mole (mol)
68
10^6
Mega
69
10^3
Kilo
70
10^9
Giga
71
10^12
Tera
72
10^-3
Milli
73
10^-6
Micro
74
10^-9
Nano
75
10^-12
Pico
76
Celsius to Farenheit
F = (C x 1.8) + 32
77
Farenheit to Celsius
C = (F - 32) x 5/9
78
Conversion factor of glucose
0.0555
79
BUN to Urea
2.14
80
Conversion factor of BUN
0.357
81
Conversion factor of creatinine
88.4 umol/L
82
Conversion factor of uric acid
0.0595
83
Conversion factor of triglycerides
0.0113
84
Conversion factor of sodium, potassium, chloride
1
85
Conversion factor of cholesterol
0.026
86
Conversion factor of TPAG
10 (g/dL) 0.01 (mg/dL)
87
Conversion factor of bilirubin
17.1 umol/L
88
Conversion factor of thyroxine
12.9 nmol/L
89
Effect of high WBC count on blood glucose determination
Decreased
90
Uses arsenomolybdate reagent
Nelson-Somogyi
91
Uses phosphomolybdate reagent
Folin-Wu
92
Results produced by REDUCTION methods for glucose are _____ higher than those of ENZYMATIC methods
5-15 mg/dL
93
To establish Diabetes Mellitus, symptoms (3P's) should be accompanied by RBS level of:
200 mg/dL
94
Beta-cells destruction
Type 1 DM
95
Insulin resistance
Type 2 DM
96
Detectable C-peptide levels
Type 1 DM
97
DM with Autoantibodies
Type 1 DM
98
Common DM
Type 1 DM
99
Uses oral agents as medication
Type 2 DM
100
Uses insulin absolute as medication
Type 1 DM
101
Glycogen storage disease with G6PD deficiency
Von Gierke
102
Most common phospholipid found in cell membranes
Lecithin
103
Apo A1
HDL
104
Apo B100
LDL, VLDL
105
Apo B48
Chylomicrons
106
Reverse cholesterol transport
HDL
107
Endogenous triglycerides
VLDL
108
Exogenous triglycerides
Chylomicrons
109
Least dense
Chylomicrons
110
Most dense
HDL
111
Lipoprotein that carries TRIGLYCERIDES
CM, VLDL
112
Lipoprotein that carries CHOLESTEROL
LDL
113
Lipoprotein that carries PROTEIN and PHOPHOLIPIDS
HDL
114
Bad cholesterol
LDL
115
Good cholesterol
HDL
116
SPE Migration Pattern of lipoproteins
Chylomicrons (origin) LDL VLDL HDL (anode)
117
Lipoprotein ultracentrifugation pattern
Chylomicrons (top) VLDL LDL HDL (bottom)
118
Floating B-lipoprotein
B-VLDL
119
Sinking Pre-B-lipoprotein
Lp(a)
120
Borderline value for total cholesterol
200-239 mg/dL
121
>240 value of TOTAL cholesterol
Higher risk for CHD
122
SERUM cholesterol value with MODERATE RISK for age 20-29
>200 mg/dL
123
SERUM cholesterol value with HIGH RISK for age 20-29
>220 mg/dL
124
<40 HDL
High risk for cardiovascular disease
125
>60 HDL
Low risk for cardiovascular disease
126
Borderline value for LDL Cholesterol
130-159 mg/dL
127
Cholesterol determination 1-STEP method
Liebermann-Burchard (Pearson/Stern/Mac-Gavack)
128
Cholesterol determination 2-STEP method
Bloors
129
< 3% CV
Cholesterol
130
< 5% CV
Triglycerides
131
< 4% CV
LDL, HDL
132
Fredrickson classification: high CHYLOMICRONS
Type 1 (Familial LPL Deficiency)
133
Fredrickson classification: high VLDL
Type 4 (Familial hypertriglyceridemia)
134
Fredrickson classification: high CM & VLDL
Type 5
135
Fredrickson classification: high LDL, abnormal LDL receptor gene
Type 2 (Familial hypercholesterolemia)
136
Negative APRs
Prealbumin Albumin Transferrin
137
Indicator of nutrition; binds thyroid hormone and retinol-binding protein
Prealbumin
138
Major contributor to oncotic (osmotic pressure)
Albumin
139
Binds copper
Ceruloplasmin
140
Protease inhibitor
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
141
The principal use of serum protein electrophoresis is to detect
Monoclonal spike
142
Beta-gamma bridging
Liver cirrhosis
143
Monoclonal spike
Multiple myeloma
144
Alpha 1 globulin flat curve
AAT (alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency)
145
Alpha 2 globulin spike
Nephrotic syndrome
146
Alpha 1, Alpha 2 globulin spikes
Acute inflammation
147
Polyclonal gammopathy
Chronic inflammation
148
Low albumin, very high alpha2-macroglobulin (10-fold or more)
Nephrotic syndrome
149
Protein based on phenolic amino acid oxidation with the HIGHEST SENSITIVITY
Folin-Ciocalteu
150
Biochemical marker for bone resorption
Cross-linked C Telopeptide
151
Useful marker of nutrition
Fibronectin
152
Most concentrated NPN
Urea
153
2nd most concentrated NPN
Amino acid
154
Least concentrated NPN
Ammonia
155
Ammonia is associated with what kidney function
Excretion
156
Osmolarity is associated with what kidney function test
Tubular function
157
Inexpensive urea assay, LACKS specificity
Colorimetric: diacetyl
158
More expensive urea assay; GREATER specificity
Enzymatic: NH3 formation
159
Simple and nonspecific creatinine assay
Colorimetric: end point
160
Uric acid assay that assess problems with turbidity
Colorimetric
161
SPECIFIC uric acid assay which requires mercury arc vapor lamp
Enzymatic UV
162
Azotemia caused by renal diseases, acute and chronic renal failure
Renal azotemia
163
Azotemia caused by urinary tract obstruction, renal calculi, bladder or prostate tumors, severe UTI
Post-renal azotemia
164
_____ is the single marker to diagnose renal failure; _____ test is used to assess the renal tubular integrity
Creatinine; B2-microglobulin
165
Exogenous substance used as ALTERNATIVE test for creatinine clearance to screen for kidney dysfunction
Cystatin C
166
Proteins such as albumin, cholinesterase, coagulation proteins, cholesterol, bile salts and glycogen are associated with what liver function
Synthetic
167
Bilirubin, ammonia, and drugs are associated with what liver function *BAD
Detoxification
168
Bile acids and bilirubin are associated with what liver function
Excretion
169
Test for PATENCY of billiary ducts and hepatocellular metabolism of bilirubin
Direct and total bilirubin ratio
170
Test for OVERALL patency of billiary ducts
Serum bile acid
171
Test for abnormality of bile-duct epithelium
ALP "obstructive" enzymes
172
Test for capacity to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile
Serum bilirubin level
173
Test for hepatocellular damage and necrosis
Serum AST levels
174
Bilirubin fraction covalently attached to albumin; also known as "Biliprotein"
Delta bilirubin
175
Characterized by PARTIAL deficiency of UDPGT
Criggler-Najar syndrome Type II / Arias syndrome
176
Principle of Malloy and Evelyn method & Jendrassik and Grof method
Van den Berg reaction
177
Accelerator for Malloy and Evelyn method
Methanol
178
Accelerator for Jendrassik and Grof method
Caffeine-Sodium benzoate
179
Enzyme activity: Substrate and coenzyme _____, product and altered coenzyme _____
Decreases; increases
180
Enzyme classifications *OTHLIL
Oxydoreductase Transferase Hydrolase Lyase Isomerase Ligase
181
LDH and G6PD are under what category of enzymes
Oxidoreductase
182
AST, ALT, GGT are under what category of enzymes
Transferase
183
Kinases (CK and HK) are under what category of enzyme
Transferase
184
Esterases (ACP, ALP, CHS, 5-NT, LP) are under what category of enzyme
Hydrolase
185
Trypsin and pepsin are under what category of enzyme
Hydrolase
186
Amylase and Galactosidase are under what category of enzyme classification
Hydrolase
187
ALDOLASE and DECARBOXYLASE are under what enzyme classification
Lyase
188
Enzymes involved in INTRAMOLECULAR ARRANGEMENT are called
Isomerases
189
Synthases / joining of two molecules
Ligase
190
CK-MB onset of elevation
4-6 hours
191
1st to elevate in AMI, but NOT cardiac-specific
Myoglobin
192
CARDIAC-specific marker of AMI
Troponin
193
1st to elevate in acute pancreatitis, but NOT pancreas-specific
Amylase
194
Late marker, but PANCREAS-SPECIFIC
Lipase
195
P-nitrophenylphosphate (PNPP) is the MOST SPECIFIC substrate used in what ALP method
Bowers and McComb
196
Thymolphthalein monophosphate is a substrate used in what ACP method
Roy and Hillman
197
End product of AST enzymatic method
Oxaloacetate
198
The formation of MALTOSE is observed in what enzymatic method of AMS
Coupled-enzyme
199
Reference method of LPS (lipase) that measures the titration of fatty acids with NaOH
Cherry Crandal
200
Forward/direct reaction of LDH (*FLP = lactate to pyruvate)
Wacker
201
Reverse/indirect reaction of LDH
Wrobkeuski La Due
202
Forward/direct method for CK
Tanzer-Gilvarg
203
Reverse/indirect method for CK
Oliver-Rosalki
204
Bile duct obstruction, Osteitis deformans, Billiary cirrhosis, Osteogenic sarcoma (*BOBO) is _____ elevation of _____
Pronounced (5x); ALP
205
Pregnancy. _____ elevation of _____
Slight (3x) ALP
206
Megaloblastic anemia and renal infaction. _____ elevation of _____
Pronounced (5x); LDH
207
Myocardial infarction, pulmonary infarction, and hemolytic conditions. _____ elevation of _____
Moderate (3-5x); AST
208
Cholangitis. _____ elevation of _____
Slight (3x); LDH
209
Acute hepatocellular damage, myocardial infarction, and acute pancreatitis (*AMA) indicates _____ elevation of _____
Pronounced; AST
210
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is _____ elevation of _____
Pronounced; CK
211
Major extracellular cation
Sodium
212
Major regulator of water balance, osmolality, and osmotic pressure for electrolytes
Sodium
213
Major intracellular cation
Potassium
214
Countercurrent ion of sodium
Potassium
215
Major extracellular anion
Chloride
216
Counterion of sodium that maintains electroneutrality
Chloride
217
Electrolytes involved in MYOCARDIAL rhythm and contractility
*PoMaCa Potassium (K) Magnesium (Mg) Calcium (Ca)
218
Electrolytes involved in volume and OSMOTIC REGULATION
Sodium (Na) Potassium (K) Chloride (Cl)
219
Electrolytes that serves as COFACTORS in enzyme activation
*ZiMaCa Magnesium Calcium Zinc
220
Electrolytes involved in ACID-BASE balance
Chloride (Cl) Bicarbonate (HCO3) Potassium (K)
221
Electrolytes involved in BLOOD COAGULATION
Calcium (Ca) Magnesium (Mg)
222
Electrolytes involved in NEUROMUSCULAR excitability
*PoMaCa Potassium (K) Magnesium (Mg) Calcium (Ca)
223
Included in the electrolyte profile
Na, K, Cl, HCO3
224
Increased Anion Gap
*SEDULA & MUDPILES Starvation Exogenous poisons (sallicylates) Diabetic ketoacidosis Uremic acidosis Lactic acidosis Alcoholic ketosis
225
Normal Anion Gap
*HERD Hyperalimentation Early renal failure Renal tubular acidosis Diarrhea
226
Decreased Anion Gap
*CHEE Cationic myeloma patients Hypercalcemia Hyperlipidimia Erroneous report
227
Diabetes insipidus causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____
Hypernatremia; increased water loss
228
Potassium deficiency, diuretics, and severe burns causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____
Hyponatremia; increased sodium loss
229
Renal failure causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____
Hyponatremia; increased water retention
230
Excess water intake, SIADH, and pseudohyponatremia causes _____ (hypernatremia/hyponatremia) due to _____
Hyponatremia; water imbalance
231
Most common cause of hyperkalemia
Decreased renal excretion
232
Addison's disease (hyperkalemia/hypokalemia)
Hyperkalemia
233
Sample hemolysis, thrombocytosis, prolonged tourniquet use or excessive fist clenching causes _____ hyperkalemia
Artifactual
234
Henderson Hasselbach Equation
pH = pKa + log (HCO3/H2CO3)
235
Method for measurement of pH and pCO2
Potentiometry
236
Method for measurement of pO2
Amperometry
237
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Alcoholism
Metabolic acidosis
238
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Vomiting
Metabolic alkalosis
239
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Diarrhea
Metabolic Acidosis
240
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Hyperkalemia
Metabolic acidosis
241
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Emphysema
Respiratory acidosis
242
Determine the acid-base balance disorder: Hyperventilation
Respiratory acidosis (⬆️ CO2 loss)
243
Compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis
Hyperventilation
244
Compensatory mechanism in metabolic alkalosis
Hypoventilation
245
Compensatory mechanism in respiratory acidosis
Increased HCO3 reabsorpion
246
Compensatory mechanism in respiratory alkalosis
Decreased HCO3 reabsorption
247
Acidemia occurs when the blood pH is
<7.35
248
Alkalemia occurs when blood pH is
>7.45
249
Amino acids (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion
Stimulate
250
Glucose loading (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion
Inhibit
251
Insulin deficiency (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion
Inhibit
252
Thyroxine deficiency (stimulate/inhibit) growth hormone secretion
Inhibit
253
Screening test for Acromegaly
Somatomedin-C
254
Confirmatory test for Acromegaly
Glucose suppression test (OGTT)
255
Increased T3 and T4 Increased T3 uptake Decreased TSH
Primary hyperthyroidism
256
Decreased T3 and T4 Decreased T3 uptake Decreased TSH
Secondary hypothyroidism
257
Increased T3 and T4 Increased T3 uptake Increased TSH
Secondary hyperthyroidism
258
Decreased T3 and T4 Decreased T3 uptake Increased TSH
Primary hypothyroisism
259
Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine; polarized light
Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
260
Fluorogenic substrate-labeled thyroxine
Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
261
Addition of luminol; measured by luminometer
Chemiluminescence
262
Similar to ELISA
Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
263
Mineralocorticoids, aldosterone. What adrenal cortex layer
Zona glomerulosa
264
First responder to stress by acting within seconds
Catecholamines
265
Increased cortisol, increased ACTH
Cushing's disease
266
Screening tests for Cushing's syndrome
Midnight salivary cortisol test Overnight dexamethasone suppression test 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
267
Confirmatory test for Cushing's syndrome
LOW-dose dexamethasone suppression test
268
Low testosterone, high LH and FSH
Primary hypogonadism / Klinefelter's syndrome
269
Low testosterone, low LH and FSH
Secondary hypogonadism
270
TRANSPORT of drug from the site of administration to the blood
Absorption
271
DELIVERY of the drug to the tissues
Distribution
272
HIGHEST CONCENTRATION of a drug obtained in the dosing interval
Peak concentration
273
Time required to reduce drug level to HALF of its initial value
Half-life
274
Procainamide is an example of _____ drug
Cardioactive
275
Phenobarbital (barbiturate) is an example of _____ drug
Anti-epileptic
276
Cyclosporine, tacrolimus, rapamycin are examples of _____ drug
Immunosuppresive
277
Aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen and salicylates are examples of _____ drug
Anti-inflammatory / analgesic
278
Methotrexate is an example of _____ drug
Chemotherapeutic
279
Theophyline and theobromine are what type of drug
Bronchodilator
280
Lithium is an example of _____ drug
Psychoactive / antidepressant
281
Treatment for petit mal (absence) and grand mal seizures
Valproic acid / valium
282
Treatment for various seizure disorders
Carbamazepine
283
Most commonly abused substance in the entire world
Alcohol
284
Mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech)
0.18-0.30
285
Unable to stand of walk, vomiting, impaired consciousness
0.27-0.40
286
Coma and possible death
0.35-0.50
287
Symptoms of alcohol intoxication begin
>0.05%
288
Legally intoxicated
>100 mg/dL
289
Presumptive evidence of driving under influence of alcohol
>0.10%
290
Not a natural opiate
Pentazocine
291
Vitamin B9
Folic acid
292
Vitamin C
Ascorbic acid
293
Beri-beri is deficiency of what vitamin
Vitamin B1 / Thiamine
294
Pellagra is deficiency of what vitamin
Vitamin B3 / Niacin
295
Megaloblastic anemia is associated with what vitamin deficiency
Vitamin B9 / Folic acid
296
Scurvy is associated with what vitamin deficiency
Vitamin C
297
Serum potassium critical value
>6.5 mEq/L
298
Serum bicarbonate critical value
<10 or >40 mEq/L
299
Cholesterol determination 3-STEP method
Abell-Kendall