Blood banking Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
ISBT 001
A
ABO
2
Q
ISBT 004
A
Rh
3
Q
pH-dependent and glucose-dependent antibody found on Glycophorin A
A
Anti-M
4
Q
Found in patient dialyzed with formaldehyde-sterilized equipment
A
Anti-N
5
Q
Also found on Glycophorin A and is reactive with Vicia graminea
A
Anti-N
6
Q
Found on Glycophorin B
A
Anti-S and anti-s
7
Q
Antibody seen in Hydatid disease
A
Anti-P1
8
Q
Antibody seen in PCH. It binds to RBCs at cold temperature and causes RBCs lysis via complement at 37C
A
Anti-P
9
Q
Also known as Donath-Landsteiner antibody
A
Anti-P
10
Q
Anti-PP1Pk is also known as
A
Anti-Tj(a)
11
Q
IgG1 and IgG3 are of greatest clinical significance
A
Anti-D
12
Q
Rh null phenotype
A
—/—
13
Q
Rh null is associated with
A
Stomatocytosis
14
Q
The name Lutheran was a misinterpretation of donor’s name
A
Lutteran
15
Q
2nd to D in immunogenicity
A
Kell (anti-K)
16
Q
McLeod phenotype and CGD is associated with what antibody
A
Anti-K
17
Q
Resistant to malaria (P. vivax and P. knowlesi)
A
Fy (a-b-)
18
Q
Marker for African Black race
A
Fy (a-b-)
19
Q
Frequent in Chinese population
A
Fy (a+b-)
20
Q
Subtype associated with P. knowlesi and P. vivax
A
Fy6
21
Q
Notorious antibody
A
Anti-Jk
22
Q
Associated with delayed HTR
A
Anti-Jk
23
Q
Methyldopa is associated with what blood group
A
Kidd
24
Q
Marker for Mongolian ancestry
A
Diego (Anti-Di)
25
Antigens are expressed / located in the RBCs and kidneys. What blood group
Diego
26
Antigens are located on RBC acetylcholinesterase
Cartwright
27
Sex linked; higher in females (89%) What blood group
Xg
28
Higher in the Mennonite population. What blood group
Scianna
29
What blood group is associated with HLA
Chido-Rodgers
30
Antibodies neutralized by pooled plasma
Anti-Ch and Anti-Rg
31
C4A
Rodgers
32
C4B
Chido
33
Blood group associated with CD55 or DAF (decay accelerating factor)
Cromer
34
Antigens reside on complement receptor 1 (CR1)
Knops
35
Associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae (cold AIHA)
Autoanti-I
36
Associated with infectious mononucleosis
Anti-i
37
Newest blood group system
RHAG
38
Sodium phosphate anticoagulant is introduced by
Braxton Hicks
39
He determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation
Lewisohn
40
Citrate-Dextrose is introduced by
Rous and Turner
41
Acid-Citrate-Dextrose (ACD) was introduced in _____ by __________
1943; Loutit and Mollison
42
Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose (CPD) was introduced in _____ by __________
1957; Gibson
43
In the 1st recorded transfusion, blood was given to
Pope Innocent VII
44
They introduced P blood group in 1927 by injecting rabbits with human RBCs and divided those cells into 2 groups
Landsteiner and Levine
45
IgM are of greatest significance. What antibody (ies)
Most = Anti-Lu (a)
Usually = Anti-Le (b)
46
IgM are of greatest significance. What antibody (ies)
Anti-Rh
Anti-S and anti-s
Anti-K
Anti-Fy
Anti-Jk
47
Destroyed by enzymes
MNS, Duffy, Chido-Rodgers, Cartwright, Xg
48
Enhanced by enzymes
ABO
Rh
Kidd
P
I
Lewis
49
A1A2. What is the phenotype
A1
50
Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy seen with "weak or missing antibodies"
O
51
Resolution for ABO discrepancy seen with "weak or missing antibodies "
Lower the temperature to 4C for 15 minutes
52
Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy caused by an "acquired B antigen"
A
53
Conditions that may cause "Rouleaux formation"
Plasma expanders
Elevated fibrinogen
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
54
Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy caused by "Rouleaux formation"
AB
55
Agglutination with A1 and B cells in reverse type is due to
Rouleaux ("stack of coins" or pseudoagglutination)
56
Resolution for "Rouleaux formation"
Saline replacement
57
Identify the blood type of this newborn patient:
Forward typing:
Anti-A = 0
Anti-B = 4+
Reverse typing:
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0
Group B
58
Donor deferral: Purplish blue lesions (Kaposi's sarcoma)
Indefinite deferral
59
Donor deferral: White spots in mouth (thrush)
Indefinite deferral
60
Donor deferral: Multiple needle puncture marks (drug abuse)
Indefinite deferral
61
Volume of blood drawn from blood donor
450 mL
62
Volume of anticoagulant in blood donation
63 mL
63
For Apheresis RBC donation, males should weight
130 lbs
64
For Apheresis RBC donation, females should weight
130 lbs
65
Qualified body weight for blood donation
50 kg (110 lbs)
66
Pulse rate qualification in blood donation
50-100 BPM
67
Blood pressure qualification in blood donation
Systolic = 90 to 160
Diastolic = 60 to 100
(90 over 60 to 160 over 100)
68
Hemoglobin content in allogeneic donation
More than or equal to 12.5 g/dL
69
Hemoglobin content in autologous donation
More than or equal to 11.0 g/dL
70
Value of Platelet count (plateletpheresis)
More than or equal to 150 x 10^9 / L
71
Value of total protein (plasmapheresis)
More than or equal to 6.0 g/dL
72
Donor deferral: Cancer
Indefinite/permanent
73
Donor deferral: Viral hepatitis, High risk behavior for AIDS
Indefinite/permanent
74
Donor deferral: Recipient of human (pituitary) derived growth hormone
Indefinite/permanent
75
Donor deferral: Recipient of insulin from cows (Mad Cow disease risk)
Indefinite/permanent
76
Donor deferral: Malaria refugee/ immigrant
3 years
77
Donor deferral: Hepatitis B and Rabies vaccine
1 year
78
Donor deferral: Tattoo, major operations, dental surgery
1 year
79
Donor deferral: Blood transfusion
1 year
80
Donor deferral: Syphilis, gonorrhea, sexual contact with prostitute or other persons in a high-risk group for AIDS
1 year
81
Donor deferral: Travel to Palawan
1 year
82
Donor deferral: 1st or 2nd trimester abortion/miscarriage
No deferral
83
Donor deferral: Recent blood donation
3 months
84
Donor deferral: Rubella (German measles) vaccine
1 month
85
Donor deferral: Chickenpox
1 month
86
Donor deferral: Smallpox vaccine
2-3 weeks
87
Donor deferral: Live attenuated vaccines
2 weeks
88
Donor deferral: Rubeola (measles) vaccine, oral polio vaccine, yellow fever vaccine, and typhoid vaccine
2 weeks
89
Donor deferral: Aspirin intake for plateletpheresis
3 days
90
Donor deferral: Aspirin intake for whole blood donation
No deferral
91
Donor deferral: Feldene intake
2 days
92
Donor deferral: After alcohol intake
12 hours
93
Donor deferral: Synthetic vaccines/killed vaccines/recombinant vaccines
No deferral
94
Donor deferral: Influenza and HPV vaccine
No deferral
95
MMR (Measles-Mumps-Rubella) vaccine deferral period
4 weeks
96
Collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of CRYSTALLOID or COLLOID
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
97
ACD (acid-citrate-dextrose) storage time
21 days
98
CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) storage time
21 days
99
CPD2 (citrate-phosphate-double-dextrose) storage time
21 days
100
CPDA-1 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) storage time
35 days
101
CPDA-2 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) storage time
35 (or 42) days
102
Adsol (AS-1), Nutricel (AS-3), Optisol (AS-5) storage time
42 days
103
SAG-M (Saline-Adenine-Glucose-Mannitol) storage time
42 days
104
Packed and washed RBC storage temperature
1-6C
105
Shelf-life of PRBC
24 hours (open system)
106
PRBC is used for
Oxygen increase
107
Washed RBCs are used for
IgA-negative persons, PNH
108
Shelf-life of frozen RBCs
10 years
109
Shelf life of FFP if stored at -18C
1 year
110
Shelf life of FFP if stored at -65C
7 years
111
FFP are used to treat
Liver disease, DIC
112
Cryoprecipitate storage temperature
-18C or colder
113
Shelf life of FFP
1 year
114
Cryoprecipitate is used to treat
Hemophilia A
vWD
FXIII deficiency
115
Factor IX concentrate storage temperature
1-6C
116
Factor IX concentrate is used for treatment of
Hemophilia B
117
Granulocyte concentrate storage temperature
RT without agitation
118
Shelf life of granulocyte concentrate
24 hours
119
Shelf life of platelet stored at RT without agitation
5 days
120
Shelf life of platelet stored at 1-6C
2 days
121
% of RBC recovery in deglycerolized RBCs
80% (or 85%)
122
Composition of cryoprecipitate in FVIII
80 (to 100) units
123
What are neocytes
Young RBCs; blood cells newly released by bone marrow; reticulocytes
124
IgG antibody in ABO are produced by
O mothers
125
ABO Bilirubin at birth
Normal range
126
Rh bilirubin at birth
Elevated
127
ABO microspherocytes
Present
128
Rh microspherocytes
Absent
129
ABO phototherapy
Yes (mild to moderate HDN)
130
Rh phototherapy
Yes
131
Lactic acid, plasma potassium, and plasma hemoglobin are (increased/decreased) in RBC storage lesions
Increased
132
Glucose, ATP, pH, 2,3-DPG are (increase/decrease) in RBC storage lesions
Decreased
133
Color of Anti-A reagent
Blue
134
Color of Anti-B reagent
Yellow
135
Color of Anti-A, B reagent
Colorless
136
Color of Anti-D reagent
Colorless
137
Color of AHG reagent
Green
138
Color of LISS reagent
Colorless
139
Color of bovine serum albumin reagent
Colorless
140
Color of 2-5% RBC suspensiom
Tomato red or cherry red
141
Developed the gel test
Dr. Yves Lapierre
142
Major advantage of gel technology
Standardization
143
Major disadvantage of gel technology
Needs special equipment, sample restrictions
144
Reagents used in gel technology
Dextran acrylamide (gel), LISS
145
Incubation time of gel technology
15 minutes (to 1 hour)
146
Centrifugation time of gel technology
10 minutes
147
Gel tube technology reaction: Red cells forming a well-delineated PELLET in the bottom of the microtube
0
148
Gel tube technology reaction: Layer of RBC agglutinates ate the TOP accompanied by PELLET in the BOTTOM
mf
149
Gel tube technology reaction: RBC agglutinates observed in the LOWER HALF of the gel columns with cells also in the bottom
1+
150
Gel tube technology reaction: RBC agglutinates DISPERSED THROUGHOUT the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom
2+
151
Gel tube technology reaction: Few agglutinates staggered below the thicker band and majority of agglutinates are observed in the TOP HALF of the gel column
3+
152
Gel tube technology reaction: SOLID BAND of agglutinated red cells at the TOP of the gel column
4+
153
Process of removing antibody from the RBC MEMBRANE
Elution
154
Process of removing antibodies in the SERUM
Adsorption
155
Transfusion reaction wherein there is a 1C increase in the temperature
FNHTR
156
FNHTR prevention/treatment
Leukoreduced RBCs
Washed RBCs
157
Prevention/treatment for blood transfusion caused by allergic reaction
Washed RBCs
158
Transfusion reaction wherein patient has IgA deficiency with anti-IgA antibodies
Anaphylactic (severe allergic)
159
Prevention/treatment for anaphylactic reaction
Washed RBCs
Deglycerolized RBCs
160
Transfusion reaction that has signs and symptoms resembling respiratory distress (within 6 hours)
TRALI (NCPE)
161
Associated with hypoxemia and pulmonary edema
TRALI (NCPE)
162
Prevention/treatment for TRALI
Leukoreduced RBCs
Male only plasma
163
Transfusion reaction caused by T lymphocyte proliferation
TA-GVHD
164
Prevention/treatment for TA-GVHD
Irradiated RBCs
165
Transfusion reaction caused by anti-platelet antibodies
PTP
166
Transfusion reaction associated with BNP ratio of 1.5
TACO
167
Dark purple or black discoloration in the unit is due to
Bacterial contamination
168
Most common isolate found in RBC units
Yersinia enterocolitica
169
Most frequently recovered bacteria from donated blood and contamination of platelets
S. epidermidis and B. cereus
170
Transfusion reaction associated with citrate toxicity (causes hypocalcemia)
PCITR
171
Acute transfusion reactions occur WITHIN ___ hours of transfusion
24 hours
172
Delayed transfusion reactions occur AFTER ___ hours of transfusiom
24 hours
173
Newly discovered blood transfusion-transmitted virus
TTV (1997)
