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Recalls > Blood banking > Flashcards

Blood banking Flashcards

1
Q

ISBT 001

A

ABO

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2
Q

ISBT 004

A

Rh

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3
Q

pH-dependent and glucose-dependent antibody found on Glycophorin A

A

Anti-M

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4
Q

Found in patient dialyzed with formaldehyde-sterilized equipment

A

Anti-N

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5
Q

Also found on Glycophorin A and is reactive with Vicia graminea

A

Anti-N

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6
Q

Found on Glycophorin B

A

Anti-S and anti-s

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7
Q

Antibody seen in Hydatid disease

A

Anti-P1

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8
Q

Antibody seen in PCH. It binds to RBCs at cold temperature and causes RBCs lysis via complement at 37C

A

Anti-P

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9
Q

Also known as Donath-Landsteiner antibody

A

Anti-P

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10
Q

Anti-PP1Pk is also known as

A

Anti-Tj(a)

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11
Q

IgG1 and IgG3 are of greatest clinical significance

A

Anti-D

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12
Q

Rh null phenotype

A

—/—

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13
Q

Rh null is associated with

A

Stomatocytosis

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14
Q

The name Lutheran was a misinterpretation of donor’s name

A

Lutteran

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15
Q

2nd to D in immunogenicity

A

Kell (anti-K)

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16
Q

McLeod phenotype and CGD is associated with what antibody

A

Anti-K

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17
Q

Resistant to malaria (P. vivax and P. knowlesi)

A

Fy (a-b-)

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18
Q

Marker for African Black race

A

Fy (a-b-)

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19
Q

Frequent in Chinese population

A

Fy (a+b-)

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20
Q

Subtype associated with P. knowlesi and P. vivax

A

Fy6

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21
Q

Notorious antibody

A

Anti-Jk

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22
Q

Associated with delayed HTR

A

Anti-Jk

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23
Q

Methyldopa is associated with what blood group

A

Kidd

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24
Q

Marker for Mongolian ancestry

A

Diego (Anti-Di)

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25
Q

Antigens are expressed / located in the RBCs and kidneys. What blood group

A

Diego

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26
Q

Antigens are located on RBC acetylcholinesterase

A

Cartwright

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27
Q

Sex linked; higher in females (89%) What blood group

A

Xg

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28
Q

Higher in the Mennonite population. What blood group

A

Scianna

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29
Q

What blood group is associated with HLA

A

Chido-Rodgers

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30
Q

Antibodies neutralized by pooled plasma

A

Anti-Ch and Anti-Rg

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31
Q

C4A

A

Rodgers

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32
Q

C4B

A

Chido

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33
Q

Blood group associated with CD55 or DAF (decay accelerating factor)

A

Cromer

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34
Q

Antigens reside on complement receptor 1 (CR1)

A

Knops

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35
Q

Associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae (cold AIHA)

A

Autoanti-I

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36
Q

Associated with infectious mononucleosis

A

Anti-i

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37
Q

Newest blood group system

A

RHAG

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38
Q

Sodium phosphate anticoagulant is introduced by

A

Braxton Hicks

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39
Q

He determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation

A

Lewisohn

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40
Q

Citrate-Dextrose is introduced by

A

Rous and Turner

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41
Q

Acid-Citrate-Dextrose (ACD) was introduced in _____ by __________

A

1943; Loutit and Mollison

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42
Q

Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose (CPD) was introduced in _____ by __________

A

1957; Gibson

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43
Q

In the 1st recorded transfusion, blood was given to

A

Pope Innocent VII

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44
Q

They introduced P blood group in 1927 by injecting rabbits with human RBCs and divided those cells into 2 groups

A

Landsteiner and Levine

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45
Q

IgM are of greatest significance. What antibody (ies)

A

Most = Anti-Lu (a)
Usually = Anti-Le (b)

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46
Q

IgM are of greatest significance. What antibody (ies)

A

Anti-Rh
Anti-S and anti-s
Anti-K
Anti-Fy
Anti-Jk

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47
Q

Destroyed by enzymes

A

MNS, Duffy, Chido-Rodgers, Cartwright, Xg

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48
Q

Enhanced by enzymes

A

ABO
Rh
Kidd
P
I
Lewis

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49
Q

A1A2. What is the phenotype

A

A1

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50
Q

Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy seen with “weak or missing antibodies”

A

O

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51
Q

Resolution for ABO discrepancy seen with “weak or missing antibodies “

A

Lower the temperature to 4C for 15 minutes

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52
Q

Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy caused by an “acquired B antigen”

A

A

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53
Q

Conditions that may cause “Rouleaux formation”

A

Plasma expanders
Elevated fibrinogen
Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

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54
Q

Probable blood group for ABO discrepancy caused by “Rouleaux formation”

A

AB

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55
Q

Agglutination with A1 and B cells in reverse type is due to

A

Rouleaux (“stack of coins” or pseudoagglutination)

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56
Q

Resolution for “Rouleaux formation”

A

Saline replacement

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57
Q

Identify the blood type of this newborn patient:

Forward typing:
Anti-A = 0
Anti-B = 4+

Reverse typing:
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0

A

Group B

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58
Q

Donor deferral: Purplish blue lesions (Kaposi’s sarcoma)

A

Indefinite deferral

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59
Q

Donor deferral: White spots in mouth (thrush)

A

Indefinite deferral

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60
Q

Donor deferral: Multiple needle puncture marks (drug abuse)

A

Indefinite deferral

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61
Q

Volume of blood drawn from blood donor

A

450 mL

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62
Q

Volume of anticoagulant in blood donation

A

63 mL

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63
Q

For Apheresis RBC donation, males should weight

A

130 lbs

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64
Q

For Apheresis RBC donation, females should weight

A

130 lbs

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65
Q

Qualified body weight for blood donation

A

50 kg (110 lbs)

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66
Q

Pulse rate qualification in blood donation

A

50-100 BPM

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67
Q

Blood pressure qualification in blood donation

A

Systolic = 90 to 160
Diastolic = 60 to 100
(90 over 60 to 160 over 100)

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68
Q

Hemoglobin content in allogeneic donation

A

More than or equal to 12.5 g/dL

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69
Q

Hemoglobin content in autologous donation

A

More than or equal to 11.0 g/dL

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70
Q

Value of Platelet count (plateletpheresis)

A

More than or equal to 150 x 10^9 / L

71
Q

Value of total protein (plasmapheresis)

A

More than or equal to 6.0 g/dL

72
Q

Donor deferral: Cancer

A

Indefinite/permanent

73
Q

Donor deferral: Viral hepatitis, High risk behavior for AIDS

A

Indefinite/permanent

74
Q

Donor deferral: Recipient of human (pituitary) derived growth hormone

A

Indefinite/permanent

75
Q

Donor deferral: Recipient of insulin from cows (Mad Cow disease risk)

A

Indefinite/permanent

76
Q

Donor deferral: Malaria refugee/ immigrant

A

3 years

77
Q

Donor deferral: Hepatitis B and Rabies vaccine

A

1 year

78
Q

Donor deferral: Tattoo, major operations, dental surgery

A

1 year

79
Q

Donor deferral: Blood transfusion

A

1 year

80
Q

Donor deferral: Syphilis, gonorrhea, sexual contact with prostitute or other persons in a high-risk group for AIDS

A

1 year

81
Q

Donor deferral: Travel to Palawan

A

1 year

82
Q

Donor deferral: 1st or 2nd trimester abortion/miscarriage

A

No deferral

83
Q

Donor deferral: Recent blood donation

A

3 months

84
Q

Donor deferral: Rubella (German measles) vaccine

A

1 month

85
Q

Donor deferral: Chickenpox

A

1 month

86
Q

Donor deferral: Smallpox vaccine

A

2-3 weeks

87
Q

Donor deferral: Live attenuated vaccines

A

2 weeks

88
Q

Donor deferral: Rubeola (measles) vaccine, oral polio vaccine, yellow fever vaccine, and typhoid vaccine

A

2 weeks

89
Q

Donor deferral: Aspirin intake for plateletpheresis

A

3 days

90
Q

Donor deferral: Aspirin intake for whole blood donation

A

No deferral

91
Q

Donor deferral: Feldene intake

A

2 days

92
Q

Donor deferral: After alcohol intake

A

12 hours

93
Q

Donor deferral: Synthetic vaccines/killed vaccines/recombinant vaccines

A

No deferral

94
Q

Donor deferral: Influenza and HPV vaccine

A

No deferral

95
Q

MMR (Measles-Mumps-Rubella) vaccine deferral period

A

4 weeks

96
Q

Collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of CRYSTALLOID or COLLOID

A

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

97
Q

ACD (acid-citrate-dextrose) storage time

A

21 days

98
Q

CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) storage time

A

21 days

99
Q

CPD2 (citrate-phosphate-double-dextrose) storage time

A

21 days

100
Q

CPDA-1 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) storage time

A

35 days

101
Q

CPDA-2 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) storage time

A

35 (or 42) days

102
Q

Adsol (AS-1), Nutricel (AS-3), Optisol (AS-5) storage time

A

42 days

103
Q

SAG-M (Saline-Adenine-Glucose-Mannitol) storage time

A

42 days

104
Q

Packed and washed RBC storage temperature

A

1-6C

105
Q

Shelf-life of PRBC

A

24 hours (open system)

106
Q

PRBC is used for

A

Oxygen increase

107
Q

Washed RBCs are used for

A

IgA-negative persons, PNH

108
Q

Shelf-life of frozen RBCs

A

10 years

109
Q

Shelf life of FFP if stored at -18C

A

1 year

110
Q

Shelf life of FFP if stored at -65C

A

7 years

111
Q

FFP are used to treat

A

Liver disease, DIC

112
Q

Cryoprecipitate storage temperature

A

-18C or colder

113
Q

Shelf life of FFP

A

1 year

114
Q

Cryoprecipitate is used to treat

A

Hemophilia A
vWD
FXIII deficiency

115
Q

Factor IX concentrate storage temperature

A

1-6C

116
Q

Factor IX concentrate is used for treatment of

A

Hemophilia B

117
Q

Granulocyte concentrate storage temperature

A

RT without agitation

118
Q

Shelf life of granulocyte concentrate

A

24 hours

119
Q

Shelf life of platelet stored at RT without agitation

A

5 days

120
Q

Shelf life of platelet stored at 1-6C

A

2 days

121
Q

% of RBC recovery in deglycerolized RBCs

A

80% (or 85%)

122
Q

Composition of cryoprecipitate in FVIII

A

80 (to 100) units

123
Q

What are neocytes

A

Young RBCs; blood cells newly released by bone marrow; reticulocytes

124
Q

IgG antibody in ABO are produced by

A

O mothers

125
Q

ABO Bilirubin at birth

A

Normal range

126
Q

Rh bilirubin at birth

A

Elevated

127
Q

ABO microspherocytes

A

Present

128
Q

Rh microspherocytes

A

Absent

129
Q

ABO phototherapy

A

Yes (mild to moderate HDN)

130
Q

Rh phototherapy

A

Yes

131
Q

Lactic acid, plasma potassium, and plasma hemoglobin are (increased/decreased) in RBC storage lesions

A

Increased

132
Q

Glucose, ATP, pH, 2,3-DPG are (increase/decrease) in RBC storage lesions

A

Decreased

133
Q

Color of Anti-A reagent

A

Blue

134
Q

Color of Anti-B reagent

A

Yellow

135
Q

Color of Anti-A, B reagent

A

Colorless

136
Q

Color of Anti-D reagent

A

Colorless

137
Q

Color of AHG reagent

A

Green

138
Q

Color of LISS reagent

A

Colorless

139
Q

Color of bovine serum albumin reagent

A

Colorless

140
Q

Color of 2-5% RBC suspensiom

A

Tomato red or cherry red

141
Q

Developed the gel test

A

Dr. Yves Lapierre

142
Q

Major advantage of gel technology

A

Standardization

143
Q

Major disadvantage of gel technology

A

Needs special equipment, sample restrictions

144
Q

Reagents used in gel technology

A

Dextran acrylamide (gel), LISS

145
Q

Incubation time of gel technology

A

15 minutes (to 1 hour)

146
Q

Centrifugation time of gel technology

A

10 minutes

147
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: Red cells forming a well-delineated PELLET in the bottom of the microtube

A

0

148
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: Layer of RBC agglutinates ate the TOP accompanied by PELLET in the BOTTOM

A

mf

149
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: RBC agglutinates observed in the LOWER HALF of the gel columns with cells also in the bottom

A

1+

150
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: RBC agglutinates DISPERSED THROUGHOUT the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom

A

2+

151
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: Few agglutinates staggered below the thicker band and majority of agglutinates are observed in the TOP HALF of the gel column

A

3+

152
Q

Gel tube technology reaction: SOLID BAND of agglutinated red cells at the TOP of the gel column

A

4+

153
Q

Process of removing antibody from the RBC MEMBRANE

A

Elution

154
Q

Process of removing antibodies in the SERUM

A

Adsorption

155
Q

Transfusion reaction wherein there is a 1C increase in the temperature

A

FNHTR

156
Q

FNHTR prevention/treatment

A

Leukoreduced RBCs
Washed RBCs

157
Q

Prevention/treatment for blood transfusion caused by allergic reaction

A

Washed RBCs

158
Q

Transfusion reaction wherein patient has IgA deficiency with anti-IgA antibodies

A

Anaphylactic (severe allergic)

159
Q

Prevention/treatment for anaphylactic reaction

A

Washed RBCs
Deglycerolized RBCs

160
Q

Transfusion reaction that has signs and symptoms resembling respiratory distress (within 6 hours)

A

TRALI (NCPE)

161
Q

Associated with hypoxemia and pulmonary edema

A

TRALI (NCPE)

162
Q

Prevention/treatment for TRALI

A

Leukoreduced RBCs
Male only plasma

163
Q

Transfusion reaction caused by T lymphocyte proliferation

A

TA-GVHD

164
Q

Prevention/treatment for TA-GVHD

A

Irradiated RBCs

165
Q

Transfusion reaction caused by anti-platelet antibodies

A

PTP

166
Q

Transfusion reaction associated with BNP ratio of 1.5

A

TACO

167
Q

Dark purple or black discoloration in the unit is due to

A

Bacterial contamination

168
Q

Most common isolate found in RBC units

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

169
Q

Most frequently recovered bacteria from donated blood and contamination of platelets

A

S. epidermidis and B. cereus

170
Q

Transfusion reaction associated with citrate toxicity (causes hypocalcemia)

A

PCITR

171
Q

Acute transfusion reactions occur WITHIN ___ hours of transfusion

A

24 hours

172
Q

Delayed transfusion reactions occur AFTER ___ hours of transfusiom

A

24 hours

173
Q

Newly discovered blood transfusion-transmitted virus

A

TTV (1997)

Recalls (8 decks)

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