Clinical Microscopy Flashcards

1
Q

Yellow quadrant in NFPA

A

Reactivity / stability hazard

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2
Q

White quadrant in NFPA

A

Specific hazard

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3
Q

Blue quadrant in NFPA

A

Health hazard

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4
Q

Red quadrant in NFPA

A

Flammability hazard

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5
Q

Yellow quadrant classification

A

*SUVSM

0 - Stable
1 - Unstable
2 - Violent
3 - Shock
4 - May detonate

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6
Q

OXY

A

Oxidizer

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7
Q

COR

A

Corrosive

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8
Q

Blue quadrant classification

A

*NSHED

0 - Normal
1 - Slight hazard
2 - Hazardous
3 - Extreme danger
4 - Deadly

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9
Q

Red quadrant flash point

A

*WABBB

0 - Will not burn
1 - Above 200F
2 - Below 200F
3 - Below 100F
4 - Below 73F

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10
Q

Degree of hazards (hazard index)

A

*No SMS Ex

0 - No / minimal hazard
1 - Slight hazard
2 - Moderate hazard
3 - Serious hazard
4 - Extreme / severe hazard

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11
Q

Type of extinguisher for ordinary combustibles

A

Water

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12
Q

Ordinary combustibles such as paper, cloth, plastics, and wood are what type of fire hazard

A

Type A

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13
Q

Flammable liquids such as gasoline, paints, and oils are what type of fire hazard

A

Type B

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14
Q

Electrical equipment belongs to what type of fire hazard

A

Type C

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15
Q

Best extinguisher for Type C fires

A

Halon

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16
Q

Best extinguisher for Type D fire

A

Sand

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17
Q

Detonation / arsenal fire belongs to what type of fire hazard

A

Type E

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18
Q

RACE

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish / Evacuate

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19
Q

PASS

A

Pull the pin
Aim at the base of the fire
Squeeze the nozzle
Sweep side to side

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20
Q

Placing bleach solution directly on urine spills may produce

A

Chlorine gas fumes

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21
Q

Most important part of handwashing

A

Friction

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22
Q

Wash fingers for at least

A

15 to 20 seconds

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23
Q

Wash hands in _____ position

A

Downward

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24
Q

Last step in handwashing

A

Turn off faucets

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25
Q

Variables in Cockgroft and Gault formula

A

Age, Body weight (kg) and Sex

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26
Q

Variables on MDRD Formula

A

BUN, Ethnicity, Serum Albumin

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27
Q

When do changes in physical, chemical, and microscopic characteristics of urine begin to occur

A

As soon as urine is voided

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28
Q

In Stamey-Mears test, what is placed in VB2

A

Midstream urine

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29
Q

Step by step documentation of handling and testing of legal specimen

A

Chain of custody

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30
Q

Urine volume required for drug testing

A

30 - 45 mL

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31
Q

In drug testing, urine temperature range of 32.5 - 37.7 must be maintained within

A

4 minutes

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32
Q

Added to toilet water reservoir to prevent specimen adulteration

A

Blueing agent

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33
Q

If urine temperature for drug testing is out of range what to do

A

Record and contact the supervisor immediately

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34
Q

Carotene causes what urine color

A

Dark yellow to amber

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35
Q

Phenazopyridine causes what urine color

A

Orange

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36
Q

Phenol and indican causes what urine color

A

Blue-green

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37
Q

Pink, red urine is caused by

A

RBCs (cloudy red); Hemoglobin (clear red)

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38
Q

Fuchsin and Rifampin causes what urine color

A

Pink, red

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39
Q

Porphyrins. What urine color

A

Portwine / burgundy / purplish-red

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40
Q

Brown / black urine is due to

A

Methemoglobin, homogentisic acid, melanin

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41
Q

Increase WBCs lead to what urine color

A

Milky white

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42
Q

No visible particulates, transparent

A

Clear

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43
Q

Few particulates, print EASILY seen through the urine

A

Hazy

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44
Q

Many particulates, print BLURRED through the urine

A

Cloudy

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45
Q

Print CANNOT be seen through the urine

A

Turbid

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46
Q

May precipitate or be clotted

A

Milky

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47
Q

Seen in acidic urine

A

Amorphous urates, radiographic contrast media

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48
Q

Seen in alkaline urine

A

Amorphous urates, carbonates

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49
Q

Soluble with heat

A

Amorphous urates, uric acid crystals

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50
Q

SOLUBLE in dilute acetic acid

A

RBC, amorphous phosphates, carbonates

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51
Q

INSOLUBLE in dilute acetic acid

A

WBCs, bacteria, yeast, spermatozoa

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52
Q

Soluble in ether

A

Lipids, lymphatic fluid, chyle

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53
Q

Milky urine from a 24-year old woman would most likely contain

A

WBCs

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54
Q

Cloudy urine following meals is most likely caused by

A

Amorphous phosphates (alkaline tide)

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55
Q

Urine component normally found in children

A

Fuschin

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56
Q

Reagent strip principle of Bilirubin

A

Diazo reaction

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57
Q

Reagent strip principle of ketones

A

Sodium nitroprusside reaction (Legal’s test)

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58
Q

Reagent strip principle of glucose

A

Double sequential enzyme reaction

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59
Q

Reagent strip principle of specific gravity

A

pKa change of polyelectrolyte

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60
Q

Reagent strip principle of Proteins

A

Protein (Sorensen’s) error of indicators

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61
Q

Reagent strip principle of pH

A

Double indicator system

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62
Q

Reagent strip principle of blood

A

Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

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63
Q

Reagent strip principle of Urobilinogen

A

Ehrlich reaction

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64
Q

Reagent strip principle of Nitrite

A

Greiss reaction

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65
Q

Reagent strip principle of Leukocytes

A

Leukocyte esterase

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66
Q

2,4-dichloroaniline diazonium salt is a multistix reagent used for

A

Bilirubin

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67
Q

Tetrabromphenol, citrate buffer at 3.0 is a multistix and chemstrip reagent used for

A

Protein

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68
Q

4-methoxybenzene-diazonium-tetrafkuoroborate is a chemstrip reagent used for

A

Urobilinogen

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69
Q

P-arsanilic acid, tetrahydrobenzo(H)-quinolin-3-ol is a multistix reagent used for

A

Nitrite

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70
Q

Indoxylcarbonic acid ester, diazonium salt is a multistix reagent used for

A

Leukocytes

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71
Q

Positive color of bilirubin reagent strip

A

Pink to violet

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72
Q

Negative color of protein reagent strip

A

Yellow

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73
Q

Uniform green/blue color of blood reagent strip indicates

A

Hemoglobin/myoglobin

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74
Q

Positive color of nitire reagent strip

A

Uniform pink

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75
Q

Positive color of leukocyte reagent strip

A

Purple

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76
Q

Positive color of ketones reagent strip

A

Purple

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77
Q

Sensitivity of protein chemstrip

A

5 mg/dL

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78
Q

Sensitivity of glucose multistix

A

100 mg/dL

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79
Q

Sensitivity of bilirubin multistix

A

0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL

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80
Q

Sensitivity of specific gravity multistix and chemstrip

A

1.000 to 1.030

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81
Q

High SG causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on protein

A

False-positive

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82
Q

Oxidizing agents and detergent causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on glucose

A

False-positive

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83
Q

Low temperature causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on glucose

A

False-negative

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84
Q

P-aminosalicylic acid causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on urobilinogen

A

False-positive

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85
Q

Formalin causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on urobilinogen

A

False-negative

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86
Q

Improperly preserved specimen causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on nitrite

A

False-positive

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87
Q

Non-reductase containing bacteria causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on nitrite

A

False-negative

88
Q

Large quantities of bacteria converting nitrite to nitrogen causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on nitrite

A

False-negative

89
Q

High SG causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on nitrite

A

False-negative

90
Q

Formalin causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on leukocytes

A

False-positive

91
Q

Trichomonas causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on leukocytes

A

False-positive

92
Q

Protein causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on leukocytes

A

False-negative

93
Q

Antibiotics causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on leukocytes

A

False-negative

94
Q

Ascorbic acid causes (false-positive/false-negative) results on leukocytes

A

False-negative

95
Q

Reagent strip reading of <30 mg/dL protein

A

Trace

96
Q

Reagent strip reading of 30 mg/dL protein

A

1+

97
Q

Reagent strip reading of 0.5% (500 mg/dL) glucose

A

2+

98
Q

SSA reading: Distinct turbidity with no granulation

A

1+

99
Q

SSA grading: Turbidity with granulation but NO flocculation

A

1+

100
Q

SSA grading: Turbidity with granulation AND flocculation

A

3+

101
Q

SSA grading: Clumps pf protein

A

4+

102
Q

SSA grading: 30-100 mg/dL

A

1+

103
Q

SSA grading: 100-200 mg/dL

A

2+

104
Q

SSA grading: Approximately 50 mg/dL

A

1+

105
Q

Radiographic contrast media causes (false-positive/false-negative) interference on SSA reaction

A

False-positive

106
Q

Tolbutamide and penicillins causes (false-positive/false-negative) interference on SSA reaction

A

False-positive

107
Q

Highly buffered alkaline urine causes (false-positive/false-negative) interference on SSA reaction

A

False-negative

108
Q

Normal albumin excretion rate

A

0-20 ug/min

109
Q

Albumin excretion rate for microalbuminuria

A

20-200 ug/min

110
Q

Clinical albuminuria AER

A

> 300 mg/day

111
Q

Bluish-green color in Benedict’s test

A

Trace

112
Q

Green color, green or yellow precipitate on Benedict’s test

A

1+

113
Q

Yellow-orange color, yellow-orange precipitate on Benedict’s test

A

3+

114
Q

5-20 normal crystals seen in urine. How to report

A

Moderate

115
Q

0-10 bacteria seen in urine. How to report

A

Rare

116
Q

10-50 bacteria seen in urine. How to report

A

Few

117
Q

Reporting for squamous epithelial cells

A

RFMoMa / LPF

118
Q

Reporting for transitional epithelial cells

A

RFMoMa / HPF

119
Q

Reporting for renal tubular epithelial cells

A

Average per 10 HPFs

120
Q

Reporting for oval fat bodies

A

Average per HPF

121
Q

Reporting for abnormal crystals and casts

A

Average per LPF

122
Q

Appearance of leukocytes in Sternheimer-Malbin stain

A

Pale pink

123
Q

Appearance of “glitter” cells in Sternheimer-Malbin stain

A

Pale blue

124
Q

Appearance of hyaline casts/waxy casts in Sternheimer-Malbin stain

A

Pale pink (or may not stain at all)

125
Q

Appearance of Trichomonas in Sternheimer-Malbin stain

A

Pale blue

126
Q

Sternheimer-Malbin stain is commercially known as

A

Kova stain or sedi-stain

127
Q

What is the clinical significance of a cylindroid

A

Same as cast

128
Q

Color of uric acid and cystine

A

Uric acid = yellow-brown
Cystine = colorless

129
Q

Birefringent hexagonal uric acid crystal

A

Uric acid

130
Q

Non birefringent hexagonal crystal (weak if crystal is thick)

A

Cystine

131
Q

Elevated in congenital erythropoietic porphyria

A

Uroporphyrin

132
Q

Major constituent of renal calculi; VERY HARD, dark in color with rough surface

A

Calcium oxalate

133
Q

Yellowish to brownish red and MODERATELY HARD calculi

A

Uric acid and urate

134
Q

Calculi described as yellow-brown, GREASY and resembles an old soap

A

Cystine

135
Q

Least common (least frequently encountered) calculi

A

Cystine

136
Q

Branching or staghorn calculi resembling antlers of a deer

A

Triple phosphate

137
Q

Pale and friable renal calculi

A

Phosphate

138
Q

Acceptable squamous epithelial cell for sputum sample

A

<10/lpf

139
Q

Acceptable WBC for sputum sample

A

> 25/lpf

140
Q

Appearance of undiluted CSF

A

Clear

141
Q

Appearance of diluted CSF with 1:10 dilution

A

Slightly hazy

142
Q

Appearance of diluted CSF with 1:100 dilution

A

Slightly cloudy

143
Q

Appearance of diluted CSF with 1:200 (or 1:20) dilution

A

Cloudy

144
Q

Appearance of diluted CSF with 1:200 dilution

A

Slightly bloody

145
Q

Appearance of diluted CSF with 1:10,000 diltution

A

Bloody/turbid

146
Q

In 3 CSF tube collection, CSF tube 1 is for

A

Chemistry/serology

147
Q

In 3 CSF tube collection, CSF tube 2 is for

A

Microbiology

148
Q

In 3 CSF tube collection, CSF tube 3 is for

A

Hematology (for cell count)

149
Q

In 3 CSF tube collection, CSF tube 4 may be given to

A

Serology (or Microbiology)

150
Q

CSF specimen storage

A

Room temperature = CM
37C = Microbiology

151
Q

1 CSF tube collection pattern

A

Microbiology ➡️ Hematology ➡️ Chemistry/Serology

152
Q

Physical examination of CSF sample may be done using tube no.

A

3

153
Q

UNEVEN distribution of blood on 3 tubes

A

Traumatic tap

154
Q

EVEN distribution of blood on 3 tubes

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

155
Q

TT vs. IH: WITH clot formation

A

Traumatic tap

156
Q

TT vs. IH: NO clot formation

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

157
Q

TT vs. IH: D-dimer positive

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

158
Q

Oligoclonal banding in CSF but not in serum

A

*MS NENG

Multiple Sclerosis
Neurosyphilis
Encephalitis
Neoplastic disorders
Guillain-Barre syndrome

159
Q

Oligoclonal banding in SERUM but not in CSF

A

Leukemia
Lymphoma
Viral infections

160
Q

Oligoclonal banding in BOTH serum and CSF

A

HIV

161
Q

Sperm concentration formula

A

(No. of sperms x dilution factor) / (total area of square x depth factor)

162
Q

Sperm count formula

A

Sperm concentration x specimen volume

163
Q

Round cell count formula (spermatid count)

A

(No. of spermatids x sperm concentration) / 100

164
Q

Viscosity graded as 0

A

Watery

165
Q

Sperm motility grading: Rapid, straight-line motility

A

4.0 (a)

166
Q

Sperm motility grading: Slower speed, some lateral movement

A

3.0 (b)

167
Q

Sperm motility grading: Slow forward progression, noticeable lateral movement

A

2.0 (b)

168
Q

Sperm motility grading: No forward progression

A

1.0 (c)

169
Q

Sperm motility grading: No movement

A

0 (d)

170
Q

Acrosomal cap size

A

1/2 of head
2/3 of nucleus

171
Q

Size of sperm head

A

3 um x 5 um

172
Q

Size of sperm neck

A

7 um

173
Q

Size of sperm tail

A

45 um

174
Q

Smoking and drinking alcohol would cause _____ in sperm count

A

Decrease

175
Q

Sperm moving linearly or in a large circle

A

Progressive

176
Q

Sperm with an absence of progression

A

Nonprogressive

177
Q

Sperm with decreased motility with normal count has a possible abnormality in

A

Viability (vitality)

178
Q

Sperm with decreased motility with clumping has a possible abnormality in

A

Male antisperm antibodies

179
Q

Eosin-nigrosin stain is a test used for

A

Sperm viability

180
Q

Synovial fluid in a plain red top tube (no anticoagulant) is used for

A

Chemical (or immunologic) evaluation

181
Q

Synovial fluid in a plain red top tube (with sodium fluoride) is used for

A

Glucose analysis

182
Q

Synovial fluid in a liquid EDTA is used for

A

Hematology / cell count (microscopic examinations)

183
Q

Powdered anticoagulants and _____ interfere with crystal identification in a synovial fluid specimen

A

Lithium heparin

184
Q

Synovial fluid in a sterile anticoagulant tube is used for

A

Microbiological studies

185
Q

Joint disorder findings: <1,000 / uL WBC count.

A

Non-inflammatory (I)

186
Q

Joint disorder findings: Cloudy yellow color, positive in autoantibodies

A

Immunologic Inflammatory (IIa)

187
Q

Joint disorder findings: Cloudy red color, positive for RBCs

A

Hemorrhagic (IV)

188
Q

Joint disorder findings: Milky specimen, positive for crystals

A

Crystal-induced inflammatory (IIb)

189
Q

Joint disorder findings: Cloudy yellow green color, positive for culture and gram stain

A

Septic (III)

190
Q

Milky pleural fluid with >110 mg/dL triglycerides

A

Chylous effusion

191
Q

Milky pleural fluid positive in Sudan III staining

A

Chylous effusion

192
Q

Milky pleural fluid with <50 mg/dL triglycerides

A

Pseudochylous effusion

193
Q

O.D. 650

A

Fetal lung maturity

194
Q

O.D. 450

A

HDN

195
Q

Neural tube defects

A

Alpha-fetoprotein
Acetylcholinesterase

196
Q

Principle of home-based pregnancy test kits

A

Enzyme immunoassay

197
Q

Effect of proteinuria on urine pregnancy test result

A

False-positive

198
Q

Effect of dilute urine on pregnancy test kit result

A

False-negative

199
Q

Normal stool color

A

Brown

200
Q

Brown stool is due to

A

Urobilin / stercobilin

201
Q

Black stool is due to

A

Upper GI bleeding
Ferrous sulfate
Charcoal
Bismuth

202
Q

Black tarry stool

A

Melena

203
Q

Gray stool is due to

A

Barium sulfate

204
Q

Pancreatic disorders, bile duct obstruction, steatorrhea causes _____ stool

A

Frothy

205
Q

Ribbon-like stool is due to

A

Intestinal constriction

206
Q

Rice watery stool

A

Cholera

207
Q

Reagents used in Split fat stain

A

36% acetic acid and Sudan III

208
Q

Reagents used in the Neutral fat stain

A

95% ethanol and Sudan III

209
Q

Disinfection of centrifuge is performed

A

Weekly

210
Q

Calibration of centrifuge is done every

A

3 months (quarterly)

211
Q

Devices used for centrifuge calibration

A

Tachometer
Stopwatch
Strobe light

212
Q

Principle used by automated strip readers

A

Reflectance photometry

213
Q

Volume required by Yellow IRIS instrument

A

2 mL

214
Q

Principle (s) applied in the mechanism of the slideless automated instrument for urine microscope

A

Fluorescence
Impedance
Light scatter

215
Q

How can bacteria be quantitated using automated slideless urinalysis analyzers

A

Use of histogram and scattergram

216
Q

How many categories are used in iQ200 for classification of urine sediment particles

A

12

217
Q

Measurement principle of semi-automated urine chemistry analyzer

A

Reflectance photometry