ophtha-all Flashcards

0
Q

Vitreous is also attached to (but less firmly )

A

Optic disk margin
Macula
Post peripheral surface of lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Anterior condensation of peripheral vitreous forms

A

Anterior hyaline membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Embryological origin of lens

A

from ectoderm from lens plate of 2 wk old embryo which becomes lens vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cells of posterior wall of lens vesicle will become

A

Primary lens fiber (which begins to fill in the cavity of vesicle to constitute the central region “central dark interval”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vitrectomy Thru pars plana

A

Closed vitrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At old age.. What metachromatic color has difficulty reaching the retina?

A

Blue and violet metachromatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is due to opaque particles in vitreous

A

Impairment of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Factors that contributes to transparency of lens

A

Regular parallel arrangement of fibers with the nuclei at periphery
Curvature of surfaces
Refractive capsule
Location of geometric center at middle
(And in addition, smooth, gradual blending of refractive indices-capsule,cortex and nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Extra capsular method procedure that utilizes probe frozen -20 C

A

Cryoextraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Second sight is due to

A

Lenticular myopia form change of index of refraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Metab changes in lens is due to

A

Increase in Na and Ca content or
Decrease in K, glutathione ans as orbit acid content
(Which may lead to cataract)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It is due to cast on retina by opacities floating in vitreous

A

Positive scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptom of vitreous opacities

A

Seeing spots in field of vision to actual diminution of vision of varying degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Volume of vitreous

A

4ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Caused by fine aggregates of vitreous protein due to age or myopia

A

Musca volitantes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Disparity of image size between 2 eyes

A

Anisokonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypothyroidism is asso with developmental cataract. What is its essential feature?

A

Low ration of Ca to P in bld

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management for cataract

A

Surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does cataract formed in changes in ciliary body

A

Catalytic changes in ciliary body which is responsible for increased formation of aqueous with the aid of carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In young, surgery should be done ASAP if..

A

Both eyes have poor vision

Strabismus sets in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is accommodation in aphakia

A

Completely lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lost of gel-like consistency or conversion of vitreous into liquid

A

Vitreous liquefaction (syneresis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

As the secondary vitreous increases in vol, the primary vitreous is forced forward to central position, the site of ?

A

Cloquet’s Canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type of senile cataract which tends to become hard and shrunken

A

Nuclear cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Embryological origin of primary vitreous

A

Protoplasmic processes of the lens vesicles and inner layer of optic cup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Aka linear extraction because of linear corneal incision

A

Capsulectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

IFN pa cities are more numerous and extensive, the fundus reflex is

A

Lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Any disturbance such as . . . Will cause lens opacities or cataract

A

Change in curvature
Insinuation of water between individual fibers
Deposition of substance in capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Source of hyaluronic acid and has phagocytic effect

A

Hyalocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Vigorous opacities is caused by

A

Inflammatory cells (post uveitis, endophthalmitis)
RBC (vitreous hemo)
Saponified Ca soaps (asteroid hyalitis)
Cholesterol crystals (synchisis scintillans)
Tumor cells (RB)
Foreign bodies ff pentrating injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Optical system of eye

A

Lens and cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lens has sparse or numerous cells?

A

Sparsely cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

By presbyope so who’d discovered that they can read small fine prints without aid of their old reading glass

A

“Second sight”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what age will the zonule become hard to break, or be broken?

A

Before 40 y/o, zonule fibers are hard to break

After 20 y/o, zonules may be broken with aid of alpha-chemo trypsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Type of cataract asso with local eye pathology (corneal infection, uveitis, glaucoma, vitreous hemo, retinal detachment, retinitis pigmentosa and tumors)

A

Complicated cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gel-like conversion of colloidal struc of vitreous (which occur on aged, myopic, in trauma and inflammation)

A

Vitreous liquefaction (syneresis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cells of anterior wall of lens vesicle will become

A

Sub capsular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is vision not threatened in vitreous detachment?

A

Yes. Unless asso with retinal tears, detachment or vitreous hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can u see in ophthalmoscope when the lens is completely opaque

A

No fundus reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In early nuclear sclerosis in cataract

A

Iris shadow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Extra capsular method procedure which uses lens capsule forces

A

Forcep extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dz procedure to determine the nature and position of the opacities in lens

A

Biomicroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Indication for surgical removal of cataract

A

Inability to perform usual work with aid of spectacles

Development of secondary glaucoma and uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lens has no blood vessels, nutrition is from..

A

Aqueous thru selective osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Vitreous has the firmest attachment to the pars plana and retinal periphery

A

Vitreous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Spherical protrusion of ant or post portion of lens producing visual impairment

A

Lentiglobus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cataract is caused by

A

Metab changes
Permeability disturbance
Changes in aqueous, vitreous and ciliary body
(Other: heredity, racia predisposition, malnutrition, light, heat, radiation and endocrine disturbance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lentiglobus vision is improved by

A

Refraction or lens extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Diagnosis of aphakia

A

Presence of deep anterior chamber
Tremor of iris (iridodenisis)
Absence of purkinje image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Extra capsular method procedure done in young, where ant capsule is removed ASAP and the hard nucleus is expressed out. Bigger corneal wound is made.

A

Capsulectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

S&s in lens dislocation

A

Blurring
Iridodenisis
Monocular Diplopia (if lens equator is seen at pupil)
Glaucoma (if ciliary body us irritated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Deep form of ectopia lentis is

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Occurs as asymmetrical defect of zonule so lens is displaced away from the defective zonule fibers (as seen in semi dilated pupil)

A

Lens dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Congenital absence of lens charac by small eyes (microphthalmic)

A

Aphakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does the lens nuclei located?

A

Equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If lens dislocation is due to trauma, lens is displaces toward…

A

Inferior (for zonules affected are superior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Systemic cataract may be due to

A

DM

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Method of cataract extraction where capsule breaks

A

Extracapsular extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Ophthalmic exam of fudge requires the need of high plus lens, approx..

A

+10 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Indentation or defect of lens equator asso with absence of zonule fibers

A

Lens coloboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A gradual and progressive dse charac by Any opacity of lens with visual impairment

A

Cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Method of cataract extraction where lens is removed with capsule intact

A

Intra capsular extraction (not possible if pt is <20 y/o)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What can u see in ophthalmoscope in pathological vitreous

A

Scattered floater or opacities may appear black against red fundus reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This occurs when vitreous liquefaction results to separation of surrounding tissue (esp retina)

A

Vitreous detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Crystalline biconvex structure

A

Lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mesenchymal cells enter the region of optic cup to contribute to ..

A

Primary vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

T/f. In Monocular aphakia, wearing spectacles will not restore the binocular vision

A

True. Because of disparity of image size (anisokonia) between 2 eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Seen as floater spots darting ms and out of field of vision (esp when gazes is focused in an illuminated background)

A

Musca volitantes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Condensation of fibrillation struc of vitreous or actual fibroblastic or glial proliferation from vascular elements. Pigments epith cells is also the source

A

Vitreous band and membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Vitreous band is commonly seen in

A

Diabetic retinopathy or ff long standing vitreous hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Lens begins to lose its transparency with aging process

A

Senile cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Is visual outcome of lens extraction in complicated cataracts can’t be predicted?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Young with cataract are prone to complications

A

Retinal detachment
Uveitis
Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lens dislocation is common in

A

Arachnodactyly or marfan’s syndrome

Charac by extreme length and thinned of bones, ms weakness and miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What can you see in ophthalmoscope in cataract

A

At distance may show black spots in fundus reflex against orange-red background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Type of cataract which is generally bilateral, opacity localized in ant or post pole and lamella may be involved

A

Hereditary type of developmental cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In microphakia, when the pupil is dilated, the edge of Lens is seen all around the circumference of pupil = highly myopic

A

Microphakia is hereditary, recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Gel-like subs and constitutes the main bilk of eyeball

A

Vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How does cataract formed in diabetics

A

Hyperglycemia increases reduced sugar (sorbitol) in aqueous and by osmosis, it withdraw some water from lens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

If lens dislocation is developmental type, lens is displaced..

A

Upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Cells of equator of lens vesicle will become

A

Secondary fibers (which grows to surround embryonic lens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Vitreous base extends __ mm anterior to ______

And from posterior to _____.

A

2mm anterior to Ora serrata on pars plana

And from posterior to Ora serrata on peripheral retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Ant capsule of lens is cut crosswise. The small knife is passed thru small puncture of cornea.

A

Discission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Part of lens

A

Central hard nucleus

Peripheral soft cortex enclosed by a capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Most common complaint in cataract

A

Cloudiness of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lens has passive/active metabolism

A

Active metabolism as shown by its high protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

It is due to much traction and/or prsessure in retina by partially detached vitreous body

A

Photopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the conenzymes found in glycolysis during anaerobic condi

A

ATP

DPN diphosphoridine nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Lens is held in position by

A

Zonular fibers (from ciliary body that fused with capsule at region of equator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Potential space between Lens and anterior hyaloid

A

Space of Berger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Formed by 9th wk by activity of vitreous and retinal cells

A

Secondary vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Extra capsular method procedure where special app is that can be introduced anterior and post to lens with their rotating sharp edge slowly tearing the lens capsule and subs into small bits then aspired out

A

Lensectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Extra capsular method procedure which uses metal suction tip

A

Phakoeresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In complicated cataract, the opacities begins..

A

Beneath the capsule (as a result of changes in capsular permeability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Type of senile cataract where in opacity involves outer layers

A

Cortical cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

“After-cataract” “membranous cataract”

A

Secondary cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When ciliary ms relaxes, zonules become tense, lens thinner = focused beyond retina = HYPEROPIA

A

When ciliary ms contract, zonules loosen, lens thicker = focused beyond retina = MYOPIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Extra capsular method procedure where ant capsule is ruptured. Lens subs is stirred by the same point instru used in penetrating cornea

A

Needling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Forms bulk of postnatal vitreous

A

Secondary vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Produce by margin of growing optic cup which later becomes suspension ligament of lens

A

Tertiary vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Type of senile cataract where in the oldest fibers in center of lens lose their transparency

A

Nuclear (sclerotic type)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The cortical or outer layer of vitreous contains Small no of cells called..

A

Hyalocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Light flashes esp on movement of eyeball

A

Photopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Small lens with tendency to be spherical (spherophakia)

A

Microphakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Some contraceptive drug have been found to induce cataract formation, such drug as ..

A

Thalidomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In old age with change in color perception, the Blue color becomes ___

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Color of lens

A

Pale yellow

Darkens with old age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Sole source of energy of lens

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Binocular vision is attained only with aid of contraindication tact lens or intra ocular lens

A

Unilateral cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The gel-like consistency, of oddity and viscosity of vitreous is due to

A

Due to a double fibrillation network system of collagen-like protein and hyaluronic acid which is suspended in large amt of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Type of cataract with opaque membrane due to incomplete absorption of lens ff trauma or incomplete surgical removal of lens

A

Secondary cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Type of senile cataract tends to swell and liquefy

A

Cortical cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Principal objective sign in cataract

A

Lens opacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Post peripheral surface of lens is called

A

Hyaloidocapsular ligament of Weigert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Thru corneal incision and aphakic pupil

A

Open vitrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Partial or complete failure of embryonic hyaloid vascular system to regress which produces white pupil in small eye

A

Persisted hyperplastic primary vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Most common symptom in vitreous detachment

A

Photopsia or floater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Most common type of hereditary type of developmental cataract

A

Ant axial embryonal cataract (appearing S&s multiplr fine opacities surrounded by faint halo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

In rubella cataract, surgery is done

A

After 3 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Microphakia is asso with

A

Ectopia lentis

Congenital weakness of zonules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

It affects pregnant mothers during first trimester (maternal illness during fetal life)

A

Rubella (lens is isolated for 3 yrs after birth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Lens used to focus rays of light in retina

A

Aphakia bifocal lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Flashing spots in field of vision

A

Positive scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

3 main symptom on pathology of vitreous

A

Positive scotoma
Photopsia
Impairment of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Change in color perception is due to

A

Accum of metabolizes of aa, tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Corneal and scleral scar, coloboma of iris and eccentric or irreg pupil may be present

A

Aphakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Extra capsular method procedure where it uses special type of app used to dislocate anteriorly, fragments it by ultra vibration and finally aspirated the resulting small particles out

A

Phacoemulsification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Most common microorganism in bacterial purulent inflammation

A

Staph aureus
P. Aeruginosa
Proteus
Coli form bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Type of uveitis caused by live microorganism invading the eye

A

Granulomatous uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Posterior synechiae

A

NG. Very thin

G. Heavy and hard to break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Choroid is supplied by

A

10-20 short ciliary a. (A branch of ophthalmic a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

COLOBOMA is located inferiorly/superiorly

A

Inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Beneficial effects of mydriasis

A
Breaks post synechiae (which is responsible for 75% of complications that end up in blindness)
Reduces volume of iris, consequently decongesting the iris mechanically (which diminishes the vascular exudation of inflammatory cells)
Reduces pain (cycloplegic effects)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Portions of iris, ciliary body, choroid or whole uvea is affected. It is charac by failure of optic cup to close completely during fetal life

A

COLOBOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Bilat post uveitis with retinal detachment in young

A

Harada’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Endophthalmitis may end up into phthisis

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Purulent or non purulent inflammation: caused by bacteria or fungus

A

Purulent inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Signs seen in uveitis with the aid of magnifying loupe or bio microscope (slit lamp)

A

Keratic precipitate
Deposition of cells on post surface of cornea
Aqueous flare or trnaslucency caused by increased albumin, aqueous cells, Koeppe’s and Bussaca’s pseudonodules
Iris true nodule and stromal granuloma
Post synechiae or adhesion between iris and cataract cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

It provides nourishment for pigment epith and outer layer of retina

A

Choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Usual known cause of endogenous uveitis. Nematode

A

Hookworm

Ascaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

First sign in fungus purulent inflammation

A

Hypopyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Mydriasis solutions

A

Soln of atropine 1%
Phenylephrine 10%
Scopolamine 1%

For 1-3 times/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Usual complaint in Aniridia

A

Photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

TB uveitis affects both ant and post uvea?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

The blood vessels layers are limited by 2 membranes, externally by ____ and internally by ____

A

Externally by suprachoroid

Internally by Bruch’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Choroidal exudates

A

NG. None

G. Large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Type of uveitis caused by introduction of inert substances, the composition of living organism, or whole dead organism into the eye

A

Non granulomatous uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Panophthalmitis is characterized by

A

Proptosis
Chemosis
Limitation of ocular movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Treatment for leprosy

A

Sulfone drugs (promin, promizole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Pigmentation

A

NG. None

G. Prominent at borders of chordal exudates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Does TB uveitis has tendency for recurrence?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Common cause of larvae migran syndrome

A

Larval hookworm and ascaris in dogs and cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Anterior uvea

A

Iris and ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Charac by acute ant uveitis with greasy kp, and pseudo or true iris nodule or circumscribed irreg choroidal exudates

A

TB uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Special type of uveitis with mild ant or post granulomatous uveitis and violent post uveitis with endophthalmitis

A

Larvae migran syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Gout attack lasts for ____ leaving come residual post synechiae, pupillary membrane and and later in bans keratopathy

A

4-10 d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Anterior uvea has 2 circumferential arterial network

A
  1. Major arterial circle of ciliary body and part of ant choroid
  2. Minor arterial circle of iris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Difference in color of iridis of 2 eyes

A

Heterochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Usual known cause of endogenous uveitis. Viral

A
Herpes simplex
Herpes zoster 
Measles 
Mumps
Lymphogranuloma venerum
Cytomegalic inclusion bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Pigment proliferation depends on amt of pigment. What has least pigmentation and greatest pigmentation?

A

Iris has least pigmentation.
Ciliary body more.
Choroid most.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

More severe inflammatory reaction

A

Ciliary body.

Hs greater number of blood vessels and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Ciliary injection

A

NG. Severe

G. Mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Special type of uveitis charac by small peripheral exudates with hemorrhage that ends up as sharply demarcated punched-out scars

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Most common org causing foci of infection

A

B-streptococcus hemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Secretes aqueous humor and controls accommodation

A

Ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

When there is pain in purulent inflammation which occurs during the first week in endogenous type and much later in exogenous type

A

Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

In acquired type of heterochromia. the light/dark colored type is abnormal.

A

Darker eye because of pigment proliferation.

It usually follows uveal inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Special type of uveitis confined to ant segment as granulomatous uveitis with whitish nodule in surface of iris

A

Leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

3 types of uveitis believed to be viral in etiology

A
  1. Behcet’s disease
  2. Harada’s disease
  3. Vogt-Koyanagi disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Least severe inflammatory reaction

A

Iris.

Has limited bld supply and few stromal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Aqueous

A

NG. Cells plenty

G. Cells few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Mydriasis is done within ____ otherwise synechiae will remain permanent

A

Done within first 7-10 d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

When infection extends to sclera and orbital struc producing proptosis, chemosis and limitation of ocular movement

A

Panophthalmitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Behcet’s disease

A

Appearance of ant uveitis
Hypopyon
Aphthous ulcer on mouth, tongue and genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

T/f. Uveitis is a recurring condition

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

To destroy cyst containing trophozoites which when released are responsible for recurrence

A

Photo coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Cause of uveitis common in Asia and Eastern Europe

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

The principles of treatment of uveitis can be resolved into

A
  1. Mydriasis
  2. Anti-inflammation
  3. Specific therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Virus that cause ant non-granulomatous type

A

Herpes simplex
Herpes zoster
Mumps
Lymphogranuloma venerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Usual known cause of endogenous uveitis. Fungal

A
Blastomyces
Monilia
Coccidiodomyces
Cryptococcus 
Histoplasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Usual known cause of endogenous uveitis. Protozoan

A

Amoeba

Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Vitreous opacities

A

NG. Thin with few cells

G. Heavy with plenty cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Most severe inflammatory reaction

A

Choroid.

Has marked vascularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

In Aniridia, what is present behind the limbus

A

Iris tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Course

A

Non granulomatous. Self-limiting (1-2wks)

Granulomatous. Protracted with remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

If there is consistent and prolonged Mydriasis, give

A

Sub conjunctival injection 0.5mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Most common microorganism in fungal purulent inflammation

A
Aspergillus
Candida
Sporotrichium
Cephalosporum
Cryptococcus 
Actinomyces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Regulates size of pupil

A

Iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Adhesion between iris and cataract cells

A

Synechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Absence of iris

A

Aniridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

In glaucoma, there is pain in purulent inflammation which occurs during ___ endogenous type and____ in exogenous type

A

In glaucoma, there is pain in purulent inflammation which occurs during 1st wk in endogenous type and much later in exogenous type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Specific type of uveitis that has protean manifestation.

A

TB uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Pigmented vascular middle coat of the eye extending from optic disc to pupil

A

Uvea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Specific type of uveitis with acute ant uveitis with greasy kp, and post granulomatous uveitis

A

Lens-induced uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Virus that cause posterior -granulomatous type

A

Cytomegalic inclusion body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Embryological origin of ciliary body and iris

A

Have Neuro ectodermal components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

In heterochromia, when aging, these 3 appears

A

Glaucoma
Uveitis
Cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Choroidal absence which may be partial or total where only macula is left.
With bight blindness but central vision is retained.

A

Choroideremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Cause of uveitis common in Middle East and japan

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

In hereditary type of heterochromia. the light/dark colored type is abnormal.

A

Light colored eye because if thinning of iris stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Accompanied by adjacent notching of lens and Astigmatic refractive errors

A

Ciliary body coloboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Cause of uveitis common in central US

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Embryological origin of uvea

A

Mesodermal in origin from tissues surrounding primary optic vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Posterior uvea

A

Choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

If condition in purulent inflammation does not improve in 4 days…

A

Vitrectomy (evacuation of vitreous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Suppuration in uvea, retina and vitreous setting up

A

Endophthalmitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Nodules

A

NG. None

G. Frequent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Endo or exogenous type of purulent inflammation:

Initially hypopyon

A

Exogenous type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

T/f: choroid has tendency to be isolated as well as macula

A

True. Because of segmental arrangement of choriocapillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Pain

A

NG. Present

G. None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Special type of uveitis with post choroidal exudate

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Onset

A

Non Granulomatous: acute

Granulomatous. Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

3 parts of uvea

A
  1. Choroid
  2. Ciliary body
  3. Iris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Usual form of foci of infection

A

Ant uveitis with fine kp and cells and post synechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Reflex pupillary dilation

A

Mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Keratin precipitates

A

NG. Small, pin-point

G. Big and greasy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Retinal edema

A

NG. Generalized

G. Localized over choroid all exudates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Anti-inflammation by locally applied steroid utilized in anterior uveitis. Local suspension, ointments , subconj, succinate ans subconj acetate is given every … To obtain adequate therapeutic level in aqueous.

A

Local suspension. 1-3 hrs
Ointment. 6-8 hrs
Subconj succinate. 3 d
Subconj acetate. 2 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Similar with harada’s disease but ends up with an ant granulomatous uveitis with accompanying vitiligo, poliosis, alopecia, dysacusia

A

Vogt-kayanagi disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Specific type of uveitis charac by acute ant uveitis with fibrin in anterior chamber I. Young asso with collagen disease

A

Rheumatoid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Endo or exogenous type of purulent inflammation:

Initially vitreous opacities

A

Endogenous type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

T/f: uveitis by itself does not cause blindness

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Most common org causing foci of infection in Philippines

A

Alpha strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Non purulent inflammation

A

Uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Specific type of uveitis charac with spontaneous or traumatic rupture of lens capsule

A

Lens-induced uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Special type of uveitis wc is an autoimmune disease with bilateral granulomatous uveitis which follows a perforating ocular injury affecting ciliary body in one eye.

A

Sympathetic ophthalmia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Special type of uveitis as acute ant granulomatous uveitis with gelatinous exudate and crystals in ant chamber

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Cause of uveitis common in Western Europe and America

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

In Aniridia, the structure behind the cornea is

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Anterior uvea is supplied by

A

2 long ciliary a (branch of ophthalmic a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Usual known cause of endogenous uveitis. Bacterial

A
TB
Leprosy
Syphilis 
Strep and staph
Klebsiella
Meningococcus
Gonococcus
Coliform bacilli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Special type of uveitis with ant granulomatous uveitis ans appears as macular edema

A

Amoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Non-granulomatous/granulomatous uveitis.

Residual damage

A

NG. None or very slightly

G. Always and marked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Choroid layers of blood vessels

A
  1. Outer layer of large veins leading to vortex veins (haller)
  2. Middle layer of medium veins and some arterioles (sattler)
  3. Inner layer of choriocapillaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Accumulation of leukocytes in anterior chamber

A

Hypopyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

S&s of uveitis

A
Ciliary injection
Fibrin in anterior chamber 
Small irreg pupil
Pupillary membrane 
Vitreous opacities
Choroids exudation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Any black area seen on the reflex in ophthalmoscope means …

A

Opacity in ocular media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Green vision

A

Chloropsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

If the iris is pushed backward, the anterior chamber is …

A

Deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Sudden/gradual onset of blindness is charac of crao, vitreous hemo, retinal detachment and optic nerve trauma

A

Sudden onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

The portion in space wherein objects can be seen when gazing at a certain fixed direction.

A

Visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Subjective signs

A
  1. Pain (orbital pain, headache)

2. Disturbances of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Rainbow colored halo

A

Glaucoma

Incipient cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

The peripheral vision is determined by measuring

A

Visual fields

Dark adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Ophthalmoscope studies the…

A

Retina
Choroid
Optic disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Presence of a fast component denotes a labyrinthine etiology. It is caused by poor central vision.

A

Ocular nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

The smallest print can be read by normal individual at a distance of __cm

A

25cm (13in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Temporal to the disc is the

A

Macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Headaches that are localized in___ regions are ocular in nature.

A

Frontal and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Foreign body sensation or sharp pain in the eye occurs when

A

When lid moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Soreness or tenderness is elicited by.

A

Pressing the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Xanthopsia is due to

A

Jaundice and carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

White vision is due to

A

Digitalis poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

If the headache is bilateral, it is asso with.

A

Uncorrected refractive errors or ms imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Caused by dilatation of superficial conjunctival blood vessels

A

Conjunctival congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Red vision

A

Erythropsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Visual pigment of rods

A

Rhodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

The most practical way for one to measure the accommodation of a patient is to test his vision for near by what Test?

A

Jaeger test cards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Defects In the 2 eyes that are not equal in size and shape are termed congruous/incongruous.

A

Incongruous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

The human eye as a sense organ is stimulated adequately by light alone and it sees that portion of energy spectrum whose wavelengths range from..

A

400-800 millimicra (mu)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Minute irregular curvature of cornea can be detected only by ..

A

Placido disk or keratometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Pain sensation in the eye can be tested by looking for ..

A

By looking for Ciliary tenderness and by checking for corneal sensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Sudden/gradual onset of blindness is charac of corneal opacities, cataract, optic atrophy and chronic intraocular inflammation.

A

Gradual progressive blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

The highest limit of the normal value in applanation tonometer

A

20mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Redness localized in lateral aspect

A

Inflammation of lacrimal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Violet vision

A

Ianthenopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Temporary dimness sensation is vestibular/ocular in origin and are elicited by turning of eyes vertically or horizontally.

A

Ocular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

The cones/rods are anatomically more separated and 2-4 cones/rods is connected to one ganglion cell.

A

Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Seeing double with only one eye noted when 2 diff retinal areas of an aye subserve 2 diff images

A

Monocular diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Visual pigment of cones

A

Iodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

The second most frequent abnormal neurologic finding in cerebellopontine angle tumor

A

Diminution of sensation of eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

An island of vision surrounded by a sea of blindness.

A

Visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Both eyes may have partial blindness at the same time.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Whirling and swaying sensation is vestibular/ocular in origin and are elicited by a sudden movement of the head.

A

Vestibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

The cones/rods are anatomically closely packed together and each cones/rods is connected to one ganglion cell.

A

cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

What do u call the reflex when the light is directed to the pupil of one eye, that the pupil will constrict

A

Direct light reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Any gray or bluish area seen on the reflex in ophthalmoscope means …

A

Retinal lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

The highest limit of the normal value in indentation or schiotz tonometer.

A

25mmHg or 5 scales reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Superior palpebral folds are generally present in the upper lid ___mm above margin

A

10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Generally, upper lid margin is ___mm below upper limbus, while the lower lid margin is just at level of lower limbus.

A

2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Filipinos at age __ have difficulty reading fine prints at a distance of __cm.

A

37yrs old

28-30cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Colored vision

A

Chromatopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Central vision is determined by measuring

A

Visual acuity

Color perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Erythropsia is due to

A

Vitreous hemorrhage

Aphakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

It is tested by touching the cornea with a wisp of cotton

A

Corneal sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Objective signs

A
  1. Redness
  2. Crust formation
  3. Secretion (watery secretions, discharges)
  4. Lumps
  5. Lid disturbances (malformation,malposition)
  6. Eyeball disturbance (abn size, malposition, maldirection, malfixation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Chloropsia and ianthenopsia is due to

A

Chorio-retinal pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Normally a person will start not seeing the colored objects within __sec.

A

40s. More than this period is abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

It is felt after excessive use of the eyes or when the patient tends to rub the eyes

A

Itching, smarting or burning sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

At the peripheral part of the chamber, the iris should be adherent to the cornea

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What do u call the reflex when the light is directed to the pupil of one eye, that the pupil will constrict and simultaneously the pupil of other eye will also constrict.

A

Consensual light reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Yellow vision

A

Xanthopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Poor near vision

A

Presbyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Redness localized nasally is due to

A

Inflammation of lacrimal sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Caused by dilatation of deeper blood vessels of anterior ciliary artery

A

Ciliary injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Among Asians the superior PAlpebral fold can be located lower or lost because

A

Of the absence of cutaneous insertions of elevator palpebral ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

This soln should be placed on the eyes after the examination to avoid an acute attack of glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Cyanopsia is due to

A

Initial cataract extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Blue vision

A

Cyanopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

The term hypotropia is not used.

A

Yes. If right eye is lower, it is recorded as left hypertropia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

The ophthalmoscope is put on. The lens is set at zero. The examiner directs the light at the patient’s eye from a distance of __cm.

A

5ocm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

If the headache is unilateral, it is due to ..

A

Inflam of orbit, lids or eye and glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What color has the longer wavelength?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Measured by checking the minimum size of a letter that the eye can recognized at a certain distance under daylight illumination.

A

Visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Whitish foamy secretion can be present in

A

Vit A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

What color has the shorter wavelength?

A

Violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

The distance between that point and the eye has an equivalent power of accommodation expressed in

A

Diopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

The presence of the lens can be verified by the appearance of at least 2 light reflexes in the pupillary area (purkinje images). One reflex coming from,, and the other from…

A

Anterior lens capsule and posterior lens capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

If the iris is pushed forward, the anterior chamber is …

A

Shallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Absence of a reflex occurs when the opacity in the ocular media is

A

So dense as not to allow the light to penetrate inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Defects In the 2 eyes that are equal in size and shape are termed congruous/incongruous.

A

Congruous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

The veins are larger in size than arteries. The veins may show pulsation but not the arteries.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Hemangioma of Irreg blue red patch of variable size formed by diffuse telangiectasis of mature vessel of dermis

A

Nevus flammeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Acute staph infection of asso gland of lids charac with circumscribed red, swollen and tender mass

A

Hordeolum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Skin deposition of lipid materials in inner part of upper and lower lid. Lesion is yellowish and slightly elevated plaque with sharply demarcated margins

A

Xanthelasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

What IOM is involved in ptosis

A

Superior rectus ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Most common malignant tumor of eyelid

A

BCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Small cylindrical benign growth in eyelid

A

Cutaneous horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

In ulcerative blepharitis, chronically, lid margins hypertrophies and thickens which cause upper lid to droop down giving ruse to sleepy appearance called

A

Tylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Endocrine exophthalmos is a pituitary disfunc wherein an ____ is released initiating cellular filtration of tissue within the orbit

A

EPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Hemangioma of soft red lesions which disappears spontaneously

A

Capillary hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Retrodisplacement of globe is seen in..

A

Horner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Local inflam which affects skin of lid

A

Contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

OO has 2 parts. What part is responsible in invol blinking?

A

Central orbital part of OO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Thyrotoxic exophthalmos is charac by

A

Slight exophthalmos
Lid retraction
Lid lag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Blinking is a protective mechanism, it involves the contraction of tarsal part of OO lasting

A

0.3 s every 5s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

The orbit extends anterior to the tarsus and can thank ligaments forming

A

Orbital septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Passive forward displacement or protrusion of eyeball from its normal place

A

Proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Symptomatology of orbital pathology

A
  1. Proptosis, exophthalmos
  2. Displacement of globe
  3. Congestion or edema of lids and conjunctiva
  4. Bruit and pulsation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Swelling of this hordeolum is at lid margin

A

External hordeolum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Contains orbital fat that serves as cushion for the eyeball

A

Peripheral surgical space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

BCC of lid spreads by

A

Hematogenous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Thermal burns, lid injuries and skin infection may result in

A

Ectropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

In ulcerative blepharitis, lashes may be lost due to destruction of hair follicles called

A

Madarosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Inability of lids to close due to paralysis of CN7

A

Lagophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Swelling of this hordeolum is away from lid margin

A

Internal hordeolum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

In lid, Incision of grayline splits into

A

Posterior part- tarsal plate and conjunctiva

Anterior part- orbicualris oculi, skin and hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Rare type in which the affected eyelid elevates when the pt opens his mouth while chewing or laterally moves his jaw. Ptosis reappears when mouth is closed.

A

Marcus-Gunn or jaw-winking phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Infection of lids by crab louse (pediculosis pubis or capitis)

A

Phthiriasis palpebrarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

A difference of __mm between eyes in exophthalmometry is abnormal

A

> 2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Orbital edema has no muscle paralysis.

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Space Between periorbita and bone

A

Subperiosteal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

True exophthalmos is less frequent than proptosis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

SCC of lid is common in m/f, lower/upper lid

A

M, upper lid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Form of verruca that is filiform

A

Verucca digitala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

SCC of lid spreads by

A

Lymphatic spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Infection of gasserian ganglion charac by unilateral vesicular eruption along distribution of 1st and 2nd division of CN5

A

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

In orbital vein obstruction, what can u find in ophthalmoscope

A

Venous stasis

Optic atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Notching of defect in continuity if lid margin

A

Coloboma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Solid tumors ans endocrine exophthalmos do not yield any degree of compressibility.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Innervating of eyelid

A

Upper lid and lateral portion of lower lid - C5-1 (ophthalmic n)
The rest is form maxillary div thru infraorbital n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Ulcerative blepharitis is caused by what organism

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

Hordeolum involving meibomian gland

A

Internal hordeolum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Loss of elasticity of skin of lids in aging

A

Blepharochalasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Each tarsus contains parallel rows of this gland which provides airtight closure of lids and provides rapid evaporation of tears.

A

Meibomian gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Red inflamed margins with yellow crust which may become adherent to base of lashes

A

Ulcerative blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Abnormal drooping of upper lid due to absence or weakness of levator palpebral ms or lesion to CN3

A

Congenital Ptosis or blepharoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Chronic inflammation of meibomian gland which is usually bilateral and preceded or asso with blepharitis

A

Meibomianitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Lymphatic drainage of eyelid

A

Medial 2/3 of lower lid and medial 1/3 of upper lid - submaxillary lymph vessel
Lateral 1/3 of lower lid and lateral 2/3 if upper lid - pre-auricular lymph vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Exaggerated contraction of orbital part of OO. A marked reflex of blinking.

A

Blepharoclonus

360
Q

Result of accidental inoculation or localization of virus in a ore-existing break in skin during period of view is (2-6d ff vaccination)

A

Lid vaccinia

361
Q

Ms of eyelid

A

Orbicularis oculi
Levator palpebral superiosis
Palpebral smooth ms of muller

362
Q

Decreased compressibility in orbitonometry indicates

A

Infiltrative or neoplastic lesion

363
Q

Dehiscence of orbital septum giving ties to localized swelling in lid when orbital fat prolapsed

A

Baggy eyelid

364
Q

Entire orbital cavity is lined with periosteum called the

A

Periorbita

365
Q

Forcible closure of lids which is usually bilateral caused by marked contraction of OO and corneal lesion

A

Blepharospasm

366
Q

OO has 2 parts. What part squeezes the eyelid shut?

A

Peripheral orbital part of OO

367
Q

Chronic/acute contact dermatitis with weeping eczema

A

Acute local dermatitis

368
Q

Reduced length and width of palpebral fissure

A

Blepharophimosis

369
Q

Blinking is absent in infant

A

True

370
Q

Form of verruca that is round

A

Verruca vulgaris

371
Q

Viral wart of lid that is slow growing and with mild infectivity

A

Verruca

372
Q

Orbital hemorrhage is characterized by

A

Axial proptosis w. Limitation of eye movement

Ecchymosis

373
Q

Hemangioma wherein the lesion is composed of simple endothelial line spaces larger than capillary hemangioma

A

Cavernous hemangioma

374
Q

Marked invol twitching of eyelid caused by eye strain, nervous tension and weakend body resistance

A

Myokymia

375
Q

Increased compressibility in orbitonometry indicates

A

Vascular tumor

376
Q

Func of eyelids

A
  1. Protect the globe for external injury and excessive light
  2. Distribute tears uniformly over anterior surface of face.
377
Q

Vertical fold of skin from inner eyebrow to root of nose

A

Epicanthus

378
Q

BCC/SCC starts as warty growth with keratotic covering gradually eroding until ulcer develops

A

SCC

379
Q

Chalazion can cause glaucoma

A

True

380
Q

BCC of lid is common in m/f, lower/upper lid

A

M, lower lid

381
Q

Bld supply of eyelids

A

Lacrimal and ophthalmic arteries

Branch form external carotid artery thru facial, superficial, temporal and infra orbital a.

382
Q

Central surgical space

A

Ms cone

383
Q

Embryological origin of eyelid

A

From fronto-nasal processes

384
Q

Hordeolum involving gland of zeiss and moll

A

External hordeolum

385
Q

BCC/SCC starts as elevated nodule with central dimple and pearly borders

A

BCC

386
Q

Form of verruca that is flat

A

Verucca plana

387
Q

Another row of eyelashes, usually towards the cornea

A

Distichiasis

388
Q

Chronic granulomatous inflammation of meibomian gland, charac by painless swelling of g without inflammatory signs

A

Chalazion

389
Q

Assessment of compressibility of orbital contents

A

Orbitonometry

390
Q

Redness limited to lid margins, aggravated by smoke, chemical fumes, and smog, and produce greasy scaling of skin

A

Squamous blepharitis

391
Q

Active forward displacement or protrusion of eyeball from its normal place

A

Exophthalmos

392
Q

Venous return of eyelid

A

Cavernous sinus or

Into IJV via SOV and IOV

393
Q

Blepharitis that is usually secondary to seborrheic dermatitis of scalp and eyebrows

A

Squamous blepharitis

394
Q

4 compartments

A
  1. Subperiosteal space
  2. Ms cone
  3. Peripheral surgical space
  4. Episcleral space
395
Q

Lid coloboma usually occurs in

A

Inner and middle 1/3 of upper lid

Outer and middle 1/3 of lower

396
Q

Intermittent proptosis, more prominent when bending the head down, blowing nose and during physical exertion

A

Orbital varices

397
Q

Small vesicles with clear content due to sweat gland obstruction

A

Sweat gland cyst

398
Q

Port wine stain

A

Nevus flammeus

399
Q

Yellowish white tumor on tarsal portion of lid. Mistaken for and asso with Chalazion

A

Meibomian gland Ca

400
Q

Chronic/acute contact dermatitis with dry skin, indurated and itchy

A

Chronic local dermatitis

401
Q

Provides passive ab against vaccinia organism

A

VIG vaccinia immunoglobulin

402
Q

Embryological origin of lower lid

A

Maxillary process

403
Q

Part of palpebral conj is adherent to bulbar conjunctiva

A

Symblepharon

404
Q

Inflammatory condi of lid charac by formation of nodules with umbilicated craters (with waxy materials)

A

Molluscum contagiosum

405
Q

Inflam sequela wherein eyelashes are misdirected to cornea

A

Trichiasis

406
Q

When upper and lower old are fused after inflammation subsides

A

Ankyloblepharon

407
Q

Form of verruca that is threadlike

A

Verucca filiformis

408
Q

Small pinhead sized yellowish white elevation due to sebaceous gland retention

A

Milium

409
Q

Space formed by recti ms and their intermuscular mem with tenon’s capsule

A

Ms cone

410
Q

Bruit/pulsation is seen earlier in aneurysm, while Bruit/pulsation is a later sign.

A

Bruit is seen earlier in aneurysm, while pulsation is a later sign.

411
Q

Orbit is pathway of cranial nerves..

A

CN 2-6

412
Q

Inflammation of lid margin

A

Blepharitis

413
Q

Space between periorbita and ms cone

A

Peripheral surgical space

414
Q

Infection of lid characterized by vesicle formation along lash line, edema tours lid margin and dermatitis may appear

A

Herpes febrilis

415
Q

Management if blepharitis, hordeolum and Meibomianitis

A

Warm moist compress

416
Q

Space between sclera and tenon’s capsule

A

Episcleral space

417
Q

Orbital edema is characterized by

A

Axial proptosis
Venous congestion
Restriction of ocular movements

418
Q

Scarring of conj and lid margin cause by inflammation, injuries and operation is ff by

A

Entropion

419
Q

Entire orbital contents are completely enclosed except

A

At palpebral fissure

420
Q

Blinking is diminished in what condition

A

Hyperthyroidism and Parkinson’s disease

421
Q

Characterized by pulsationg exophthalmos of rapid onset ff a basal fracture

A

Carotico-cavernous fistula

422
Q

Conjunctival growth covering the corneal marginal ulcer. Can grow from any direction besides nasal and temporal region.

A

Pseudo-pterygium

423
Q

Lymphomatous tumor of lacrimal, parotid and submaxillary gland

A

Mikulic’s disease

424
Q

Viral conjunctivitis caused by adenopharyngoconjunctival virus (APC8)

A

Epidemic conjunctivitis

425
Q

Flat diffused conjunctival pigmentation that occurs after age of 40. Sometimes asymptomatic

A

Melanosis

426
Q

Non developmental of conj from surface ectoderm. Gland appears as congenital cystic mass which extends posterior to orbital apex.

A

Cryptophthalmos

427
Q

A keratoconjunctivitis but only can affect bulbar conj

A

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

428
Q

Bacteria that predominates in conj pathology

A

Strep
Diphtheria
Staph

429
Q

Fungus infection of Canaliculi

A

Actinomycosis

430
Q

Bacteria that increase in cadaver

A
Beta hemolytic strep
E.coli
Klebsiella pneumonia
Pseudomonas aeroginosa 
Flavo bacterium
431
Q

Dilatation of superficial conjunctival blood vessels.

A

Conjunctival injection

432
Q

Other virus that cause viral conjunctivitis

A

Exenthematous virus (.small pox, chicken pox, measles, German measles)
Herpes virus
Myxovirus (mumps, influenza and new castle disease)

433
Q

Conjunctivitis commonly found on malnourished children and pulmonary TB

A

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

434
Q

Onward transmission of tears down the duct is due to

A

Forces of gravity and pumping of sac caused by elastic recoil of its wall after act of blinking

435
Q

Palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva is separated by

A

Fornix

436
Q

Viral conjunctivitis accompanied by marked febrile symptoms

A

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

437
Q

Obstruction of upper puncta does not cause epiphora

A

True

438
Q

Localized whitish nodule with necrotic excavated center surrounded by conj infection

A

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

439
Q

Negative/positive pressure exists in lacrimal sac when one blinks

A

Negative pressure

440
Q

3 mucin secretors

A

Conjunctival goblet cells
Crypts of Henle
Gland of Manz

441
Q

Reduces intensity of symptoms and duration of condition by enhancing the immune response even if after onset

A

Oral Methisoprinol

442
Q

Most common neoplasm of lacrimal gland

A

Mixed tumor

443
Q

Dryness of eye does not occur even if lacrimal glands are removed.

A

True. As long as basic secretors are normal

444
Q

Trachoma is common in palpebral/bulbar conj

A

Palpebral conj

445
Q

Bilateral enlargement of lacrimal gland with chronic inflammatory lesion of uveal tract that occurs in asso with bilateral inflammatory swelling with facial palsy (heerfordt’s syndrome)

A

Uveo-parotitis

446
Q

Dacryo-adenitis may occur as complication of..

A

Mumps, measles, influenza, thyroid fever

447
Q

Lymphatic drainage of conjunctiva

A

Lateral: pre-auricular or superficial parotid lymph node
Medial: submaxillary lymph node

448
Q

Test for patent drainage

A

Dropping of saccharine or chloramphenicol soln on conj cul-de-sac. If pt experience bitter taste after 5-15min, passage is open

449
Q

Viral conjunctivitis that has conjunctival hemorrhage in upper bulBar conjunctiva

A

Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

450
Q

Single clue signifying pathology of conj

A

Foreign body sensation

451
Q

Reflex secretors

A

Main lacrimal gland in upper temporal portion of orbit

Adjacent accessory palpebral gland

452
Q

3 oil secretors

A

Meibomian gland (25 in upper tarsus; 20 in lower)
Gland of zeiss - at palpebral margin of each eyelid
Gland of molls - at roots of eyelashes

453
Q

Viral conjunctivitis caused by coxsackie 24 or EV70

A

Acute hemorrhage conjunctivitis

454
Q

Basic secretors has no afferent nerve supply

A

True

455
Q

Test to determine adequate lacrimal secretion

A

“Schirmer’s filter paper test”

A filter paper (5x35mm) bent around 5mm at one end and is anchored by hanging over the lower eyelid margin covering the lower puncta. After 5 min, 10mm should be wet.

456
Q

Lacrimal app is responsible in formation of pre-corneal film which is formed by

A

Deep mucoid
Middle watery
Superficial oily

457
Q

Only superficial tissue of body where blood vessels can be seen

A

Conjunctiva

458
Q

Always involved primarily on true hypersecretion

A

Reflex secretors

459
Q

Other symptoms of conjunctival pathology

A
Conjunctival injection
Lacrimation or discharge
Formation of papilla or follicle 
Hemorrhage 
Ulceration
Growth
460
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis most produce ____ and this cells are found in discharge

A

Most produce chemosis

Eosinophils found in discharge

461
Q

Bld supply of conjunctiva

A

Palpebral branch of nasal and lacrimal artery at lids

Anterior ciliary artery at limbus

462
Q

If secondary dacryocystitis is due to infection of adjacent bone, what is the management?

A

Excision of inflamed sac

463
Q

Inclusion blenorrhea is common in palpebral/bulbar conj

A

Lower palpebral conj

464
Q

Streptothrix infection in upper canaliculus with dilatation of canaliculus with purulent discharge that oozes from puncta

A

Actinomycosis

465
Q

Innervation of conjunctiva

A

Sensory - nasociliary, lacrimal, frontal, infraorbital, ciliary nerve
Sympa- ophthalmic a.

466
Q

Fleshy mass in bulbar conj that invades the cornea at horizontal meridian

A

Pterygium

467
Q

3 organisms producing ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Chlamydia oculogenitalia
Staph aureus
Neisseria gonorrheae

468
Q

Viral conjunctivitis is self limiting for how many weeks

A

1-2wks

469
Q

Filipino are known to be immune in trachoma and are affected that ends with what stage?

A

Follicular stage

470
Q

Conjunctiva has no lymph nodes

A

Yes. But have lymph vessels.

471
Q

Tears enter the lacrimal sac partly by..

A

Capillary attraction and suction

472
Q

Lower puncta comes forward and away from marginal strip of tear fluid and epiphora results

A

EVersion of lower puncta

473
Q

Purulent discharge in conjunctiva is produced by

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

B-streptococcus

474
Q

Fibers of OO which surrounding the lacrimal sac

A

Horner’s ms

475
Q

Discharge of blenorrhea

A

Mucopurulent discharge

476
Q

Dilatation of deeper ciliary blood vessels near the limbus.

A

Ciliary injection

477
Q

Chlamydia conjunctivitis

A

Trachoma

Inclusion blenorrhea

478
Q

Only this secretors are present during sleep.

A

Basic secretors

479
Q

Inclusion blenorrhea is caused by

A

Chlamydia oculogenitalia

480
Q

Triangular yellowish mass at bulbar conjunctiva with base towards the limbus. Aggravated by exposure to wind, dust, and sun.

A

Pinguecula

481
Q

Reflex efferent pathway for sympa

A

CN7

482
Q

Eversion of lower puncta is due to

A

Senile laxity of lids
Chronic blepharitis
Ectropion

483
Q

Lacrimal passages

A

Lacrimal puncta
Canaliculi - upper and lower empties in lateral wall of sac
Lacrimal sac
Lacrimonasal duct

484
Q

Bacteria that increase in debilitated persons

A

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

Enterobacter sp

485
Q

Can arise from chronic dacryocystitis if infection extends beyond the limits of sac and give rise to abscess.

A

Acute primary dacryocystitis

486
Q

Fundamental part of secretory system of lacrimal app

A

Basic secretors

487
Q

Hereditary form in chronic primary dacryocystitis is common

A

True

488
Q

Epiphora is due to

A

Hyper secretion - due to emotional influence, local irritants in eyes, nose
Drainage interference - due to displacement of lower puncta, obstruction of lower puncta, Canaliculi, sac or duct

489
Q

Depression between follicles in upper .1/3 of upper palpebral conj and lower 1/3 of lower palpebral conj

A

Crypts of Henle

490
Q

Excessive tearing

A

Epiphora

491
Q

In chronic primary dacryocystitis, infection may spread into tissues around the lacrimal sac

A

Peridacryocystitis

492
Q

3 basic secretors

A

Mucin secretors
Lacrimal secretors
Oil secretors

493
Q

Viral conjunctivitis that produces pseudo-membrane in lower and upper palpebral conj

A

Epidemic conjunctivitis

494
Q

Inflammation of lacrimal sac

A

Dacryocystitis

495
Q

Fold of mucosa which guards the ostium

A

Hasner’s valve

496
Q

Reflex afferent pathway

A

CN5

497
Q

Chronic primary Dacryocystitis is common in male

A

Female

498
Q

3 lacrimal secretors

A

Microscopic acinotubular gland of Krause (40-50 in upper; 6-8 in lower)
Wolfring gland (3 in upper tarsus; 1 in lower tarsus)
Occasional gland in plica semilunaris or caruncle

499
Q

In addition to purulent discharge, may produce membranous material

A

Strep conjunctivitis

500
Q

Pterygium: bulbar/palpebral conj?

A

Bulbar conj

501
Q

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis has immunologic reaction to

A

Tuberculoprotein

502
Q

Nevi: bulbar/palpebral conj

A

Bulbar conj

503
Q

Drainage of tears is assisted by

A

Pars marginalis of OO or ciliary bundle of riolan

504
Q

Venous drainage of conjunctiva

A

Drains thru post tarsal venous plexuses of eyelid

505
Q

Dacryocystitis in infant is due to

A

Incomplete canalizations of lower part of lacrimal duct and/or
Differentiation of valve of hasner in inferior meatal area of nose

506
Q

Mucopurulent discharge

A
Hemophilus aegyptius 
h. Influenza
Staph aureus 
p. Aeroginosa 
E. Coli
Proteus mabilis
507
Q

Pinguecula: bulbar/palpebral?

A

Bulbar conj

508
Q

Acute conjunctivitis with marked chemosis ans watery discharge on exposure to certain grasses, plants and trees

A

Atopic conjunctivitis

509
Q

Mucoid discharge is common in (canthus)

A

Lateral canthus (thus called angular conjunctivitis)

510
Q

Mucoid discharge is produced by

A

Moxarella-axenfeld diplobacillus

511
Q

Discharge of Vernal conjunctivitis

A

Thick syrupy discharge

512
Q

Tear secretion

A
  1. 2% water

0. 8% solid

513
Q

Pigmented elevated tumor located at bulbar conj

A

Nevi

514
Q

4 stages of trachoma (mcCallan)

A
  1. Formation of follicles
  2. Presence of papillary hypertrophy and transformation of follicles into “sago grain” struc
  3. Beginning of scarring
  4. Period of cicatricization when all inflammatory activity end
515
Q

Infection of lacrimal g due to pyogenic organisms which may lead to Suppuration

A

Dacryo-adentitis

516
Q

Mucous gland is found on epithelium of..

A

Bulbar and tarsal portion of palpebral conj

517
Q

Lymphatic reaction with neoformation of lymphoid tissue with peripheral vascularization

A

Follicle

518
Q

Recurrent condi affecting upper palpebral conj of both eyes during summer

A

Vernal conjunctivitis

519
Q

The internal common puncta may be preceded by dilation

A

Sinus of maier

520
Q

Vascular reaction charac by neoformation of blood vessels at the center surrounded by lymphoid infiltration

A

Papilla

521
Q

Clinical condi with dryness of eye

A

Xerophthalmia
Sjögren’s syndrome (keratoconjunctivitis sicca)
Steven-Johnson syndrome - erythema multiforme
Riley-day syndrome

522
Q

Most common org producing mucopurulent discharge

A

Hemophilus aegyptius

523
Q

Has big papillae arranged on cobblestone appearance

A

Vernal conjunctivitis

524
Q

Due to disease or injury in the neighborhood of lacrimal sac and duct producing interference of tear passage

A

Secondary dacryocystitis

525
Q

Trachoma is caused by what organism

A

Chlamydia trachoma

526
Q

Acquired from venereal contact and swimming in nonchlorinated pool

A

Inclusion blenorrhea

527
Q

If secondary dacryocystitis is duet to trauma of duct, as in fracture, what is the management?

A

Dacrycystorhinostomy

528
Q

Chronic primary dacryocystitis is caused by

A

Streptococci

Pneumococci

529
Q

Bacterial growth can be prevented by

A

Low temp
Antibacterial action of lysozyme in tears
Mechanical effect of blinking
Production of antibiotics by some bacteria present in conj
Flushing action of Tear flow

530
Q

Indications for keratoplasty

A

Improvement if visual func of opaque or diseased cornea
Correction of severe altered struc
Replacement of active diseased cornea
Improvement if cosmetic appearance of cornea

531
Q

Multiple minute epith erosion which stains with Fluoroscein

A

SPK

532
Q

Corneal staphyloma has no recoverable vision and is painful

A

True

533
Q

Softening of cornea

A

Keratomalacia

534
Q

Viral keratitis is most common due to what virus

A

Herpes simplex

535
Q

If Hassan Henle bodies changes centrally

A

So renal gluttata

536
Q

Tunic coat mainly for protection, covered by tenons capsule and conjunctiva

A

Sclera

537
Q

Embryological origin of stroma and endothelium

A

Para-axial mesoderm

538
Q

Opaque ring within cornea scleral junction charac by lipid deposits demonstrating fat stain

A

Arcus senilis

539
Q

Classif, of corneal scared as to density:

Large enough to be seen as gray spot

A

Macula

540
Q

Lower lid bulges when pt looks down

A

Munson’s sign

541
Q

With history of trauma with vegeteble matter

A

Fungal keratitis

542
Q

Characterized with presence of vesicles or bless accompanied by foreign body sensation and pain

A

Bullous keratopathy

543
Q

Bilateral, begins as endothelial degeneration ff by stromal and epithelial edema and appearance of bulbar.

A

Endothelial (fuch’s) dystrophy

544
Q

Most common agent in bacterial corneal ulcer abroad

A

Pneumococcus (most common)
Poor axels
P. Aeruginosa

545
Q

Microcornea

A

<10mm

546
Q

Treatment for band keratopathy

A

O.4-1.8% Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid (EDTA) as cheating agent ff by scrapping of Ca deposits

547
Q

Small excrescences in periphery of descemet’s mem.

A

Hassan Henle bodies

548
Q

Most common malnutrition blindness in India

A

Kereatomalacia

549
Q

Superficial punctuate keratitis (SPK) is caused by what virus

A
Adenovirus
Inclusion Cytomegalic virus
Measles
Mumps 
Trachoma
550
Q

Cornea is rich in _____ this pain is the most common symptom

A

Sensory nerve supply

551
Q

Non inflammatory protrusion if center of cornea due to gradual thinning of apex

A

Keratoclonus

552
Q
Inflammation of deeper portion of sclera 
Bluish red in color 
Most common symptom: severe pain
Recurrence ipsi common
Young adults
A

Scleritis

553
Q

Coin like corneal opacities common in farmers and agricultural workers

A

Padi keratitis

554
Q

Megalocornea

A

> 13.5

555
Q

Classif, of corneal scared as to density:

Faint cloud like seen with oblique illum

A

Nebula

556
Q

Classif, of corneal scared as to density:

Dense and white scar

A

Leukoma

557
Q

When iris become
S attached to scar tissue resulting to visual disturbance becoz of diffusion if light and irreg refraction esp located within optical centre of cornea

A

Adherent leukoma

558
Q

Org that cause diffused inflammation of cornea

A

Adenovirus
Vaccinia
Chlamydia

559
Q

Cornea is a vascular thus dependent on ___ for nutrition

A

Air, tears and aqueous humor

560
Q

Clear transparent ocular medium of the eye which is anterior portion of external coat of eye

A

Cornea

561
Q

Central corneal opacity which gradually tapers towards periphery. Opacity starts Posteriorly and drags ally involve more anterior layers. Asso with consumption of black rice.

A

Mindoro corneal opacity

562
Q

Superficial inflammation of sclera
Lesion appears as flat or raised hard immovable nodule surrounded by far red or purple congestion
Usually at temporal side
Young adults

A

Episcleritis

563
Q

Most freq predisposing cause

A

TB

564
Q

Sign of active corneal inflammation

A

Cellular infiltration of stroma
Edema
Neovascularization
Necrosis

565
Q

Final outcome of severe inflammation in corneal opacity asso with measles

A

Blindness

566
Q

Corneal ulcer may end up

A

Heal without scarring
Penetrate into stroma
Penetrate deeply to expose descemet’s mem
Perforate - Panophthalmitis

567
Q

Replacement of partial or full thickness of diseased cornea with donor tissue

A

Keratoplasty

568
Q

Progressive disease of cornea starting at periphery and progresses centrally

A

Mooren’s ulcer

569
Q

Derived from endothelium

A

Descement’s capsule

570
Q

Most common agent in bacterial corneal ulcer in Philippines

A

P. Aeruginosa (most common)
Staph aureus
D. Pneumonia

571
Q

Derived from corneal subs appearing at end of 5th month

A

Bowman’s capsule

572
Q

Hereditary bilateral corneal lesion showing hyaline like deposits in stroma

A

Familia dystrophy

573
Q

Calcific degeneration of bowman’s mem. A sequela. Of uveitis, keratitis and long standing glaucoma

A

Band keratopathy

574
Q

Appears as white or gray-white elevated hard ulcer with dot like satellite opacities

A

Fungal keratitis

575
Q

5 layers of cornea

A
  1. Epith - 5 cells thick
  2. Bowman’ mem
  3. Stroma / substantia propria - 90% collagen; 5% cells and mucopolysaccharide
  4. Descemet’s mem
  5. Endothelium - for corneal hydration
576
Q

Charac by bulging cicatricix of cornea as a result of perforation and iris becomes adherent to back surface if cornea

A

Corneal staphyloma

577
Q

The scarring process on corneal opacities is due to

A

Collagen formation (which contracts as it matures)

578
Q

Org that cause fungal keratitis

A

Fusarium
Aspergillus
Mycelia sterila

579
Q

Embryological origin of corneal epithelium

A

Surface ectoderm

580
Q

Unfavorable factor in keratoplasty

A

Presence of vascularization

581
Q

Thinning of apex

A

Corneal hydrops

582
Q

Gives rise to superficial ulcer forming branch-like extension (dendritic ulcer) when stained with Fluoroscein

A

Viral keratitis

583
Q

Marginal opacification of some superficial peripheral vascularization ff by loss of corneal subs

A

Senile marginal degeneration (terrien ulcer, gutter degeneration)

584
Q

Organisms that cause focal central inflammation of cornea

A

Herpes simplex
Hypes zoster
Bacteria
Fungi

585
Q

Padi keratitis is caused by

A

Virus

586
Q

2 ocular media

A

Cornea and lens

587
Q

Refractive power of cornea

A

43 D (38-47)

588
Q

Deviation of eye in presence of epicanthis or presence of drooping upper eyelid laterally

A

Pseudo-strabismus or false squint

589
Q

Branch of cn7 that supplies the lower portion of OO

A

Zygomatic branch

590
Q

Shatter proof lenses. Ordinary lenses given to patient are made of

A

Crown glass

591
Q

Objective method if refraction that catches the rays of light reflected at the pt’s retina whose source comes from a mirror near the examiner’s eye

A

Retinoscope

592
Q

Deviation that can be corrected by fusion mechanism. Elicited when fusion is partly interrupted.

A

Heterochromia

593
Q

Cn3 palsy

Cerebellar ataxia

A

Nothnagel’s syndrome

594
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For invol conjugate movement

A

Vestibular nucleus

595
Q

An extreme condi of myopia with hyper pigmentation

A

Myopic crescent

596
Q

Astigmatism is hereditary

A

True

597
Q

Develops due to any interruption of development of binocular vision

A

Strabismus

598
Q

Management for astigmatism

A

Cylindrical lense

599
Q

Measurement for corneal astigmatism

A

Keratometry

600
Q

Para/sympa system: affects the pupil and iop

A

Sympathetic system

601
Q

Cn6&7 palsied

Contralat hemiplegia

A

Muller-gambler syndrome

602
Q

Concomitant pulling effect that may happen becoz of change of position of eyeball from primary position

A

Secondary action

603
Q

Esotropia with high hyperopia (great degree of convergence) and deviation greater when fixing at near than far.

A

Accommodative esotropia

604
Q

Astigmatism due to corneal scar or faulty surgical incision

A

Irreg astigmatism

605
Q

Additional protection can be given by ___ them which is made possible thru additional heating if ordinary lens ff by cooling

A

Hardening

606
Q

Measurement of refraction

A

Diopter

607
Q

Cn that closes the lids

A

Cn7

608
Q

Intraocular lens is removed after ___ to avoid complication

A

15 yrs

609
Q

Method of refraction that administers drugs that paralyze accom

A

Cycloplegic refraction

610
Q

Process by which the media alters the course of light

A

Refraction

611
Q

Too long eyeball or too strong RP

A

Myopia

612
Q

2 images coming from each eye are perceived by brain as one

A

Fusion

613
Q

Lesion that involves corticobulbar pathways and upper facial ms is spared

A

UMN lesion

614
Q

Lesion that involves the nucleus or facial nerve and the entire half of face is paralyzed.

A

LMN lesion

615
Q

Stimulation of nuclei turns the eye to opposite direction (slow component of nystagmus). But cortex sensing this abnormal condi rights them by making he eyes move back to other direction (quick)

A

Cn8

616
Q

Inflammation of optic nerve (optic neuritis) localized in optic disc ( sudden blurring if 1 eye)

A

Pappilitis

617
Q

Due to too short or too weak RP

A

Hyperopia

618
Q

Swollen disc due to some interference of optic nerve circulation

A

Papilledema or choked disc

619
Q

Cn6 palsy

Contralat hemiplegia

A

Raymond’s syndrome

620
Q

Inflammation of optic nerve (optic neuritis) localized beyond the globe (no ophthalmoscopic finding)

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

621
Q

Optic nerves don’t have neurolemal sheath (Schwann)

A

True

622
Q

Ametropia is hereditary

A

True

623
Q

Management for hyperopia

A

Convex

624
Q

Convergent squint
Ant chamber is shallow
Pupil is smaller
Disc is smaller

A

Hyperopia

625
Q

Divergent squint
Ant chamber is deep
Wider pupil
Bigger optic disc

A

Myopia

626
Q

Used by persons exposed to excessive UV or infra-red rays

A

Colored lens

627
Q

Ophthalmic branch

A

Frontal branch - supra orbital, supratrochlear n
Lacrimal branch
Nasociliary branch - infra torchbearer

628
Q

Chiasmal lesions are commonly caused by

A

Pituitary tumors ans craniopharyngioma

629
Q

Primary position

A

Straight forward

630
Q

Oculomotor paralysis
Contralat hemiplegia
Paralysis of tongue and lower part of face

A

Weber’s syndrome

631
Q

Mos that fix at an obj for 1-2min

A

6 mos

632
Q

Cn that Elevates upper lid, constricts pupil and incites accommodation

A

CN3

633
Q

Normal ms balance, when either eye show no deviation when fusion is partly or completely suspended.

A

Orthophoria

634
Q

In papilledema, there is visual disturbance and visual field is abnormal

A

False

635
Q

Regular/irreg astigmatism: most common, there are only 2 focal lines produced

A

Regular

636
Q

Amt that the lenses can help correct When accom is active, it is the diff between latent and total ametropia

A

Manifest ametropia

637
Q

Visual acuity at 1year

A

6/30

638
Q

Deviation manifested where in the fusion mechanism can not keep the eyes in parallel alignment.

A

Heterotropia

639
Q

Hyperemic disc with blurred margin
Dilated blood vessels
Elevated disc
Macular star

A

Optic neuritis

640
Q

Semilunar ganglion of cn5 receives 3 main branches

A

Ophthalmic branch
Maxillary branch - infra orbital n
Mandible branch

641
Q

Cn5 receives fibers from ___ located outside brain

A

Gasserian ganglion

642
Q

Management for myopia

A

Concave lens

643
Q

Mos that hold obj

A

3 mos

644
Q

Refractive power of lens

A

17 D (12-22)

645
Q

Branch ophthalmic common in lesion

A

Frontal branch

646
Q

In optic atrophy, when nerve fibers are destroyed , they are replaced by ___ and the finer blood vessels ___

A

Neuro glial tissue and blood vessels closes

647
Q

Cn3&4 paralysis
Contralat hemianesthesia
Hemiataxia

A

Claude’s syndrome

648
Q

Also caused by centicular sclerosis as in incipient cataract.

A

Myopia

649
Q

Deviation due to excessive ms tone or excessive accom

A

Comitant heterotropia

650
Q

Lower/Upper portion of optic radiation is involved in temporal lobe tumors and otitis abscess

A

Lower

651
Q

CN that do not decussate

A

CN 6

652
Q

Exotropia with high myopia (minimal degree of convergence) and deviation greater when fixing at far than near.

A

Accommodative exotropia

653
Q

Most common strabismus

A

Comitant esotropia

654
Q

Mos that follow large obj

A

2 mos

655
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For lateral gaze

A

Pons

656
Q

Exotropia due to excessive ms tones of LR.

Either recessed LR or Resected MR

A

Non accommodative exotropia

657
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For ff movement of eye

A

Occipital lobe

658
Q

Scleral lens whose edges arrest beyond the cornea.
Corrects cornea not higher than 1D
More comfortable to wear and tolerable longer
Hard to sterilize becoz of too many pores

A

Soft lens

659
Q

Convergence present at what month

A

6 mos

660
Q

Visual cortex

A

Bowmann’s area 17

661
Q

Light rays are not focused at a pt but at 2 planes. One or both if which are not at same level as plane of retina.

A

Astigmatism

662
Q

Drugs to be uses for cycloplegic refraction for persons >38 y/o

A

Holm atropine
Cyclopenyolate
Topicamide

663
Q

Deviation due to paresis or paralysis of one or more EOM

A

Non-Comitant or paralytic heterotropia

664
Q

Visual acuity at birth

A

6/180

665
Q

Lower/Upper portion of optic radiation is involved in CV accident

A

Upper

666
Q

Total refractive power

A

60 D

667
Q

Tests for cn 5

A

Corneal reflex
Blinking reflected
Sensation of touch, pain and temp in lids

668
Q

Another way is to use ___ which do not break and are of light weight but appears thicker and scratch easily

A

Plastic lens

669
Q

Test for cn 3,4,6

A
Levator function test
Duction test
Vergence test
Pupillary reaction
Accom test
Diplopia test
670
Q

It’s vestibular division has connection to medial longitudinal fasciculus for control of conjugate eye movement in relation to movement of head

A

Cn8

671
Q

Drugs to be uses for cycloplegic refraction for children <6 y/o

A

Atropine

672
Q

Branch of cn7 that supplies the upper potion of OO

A

Frontal branch

673
Q

Corneal lens becoz it is smaller than the diameter of cornea.
Corrects corneal astigmatism.
Cheaper and easier to clean
Needs build up period for tolerance

A

Hard lens

674
Q

Decreased or loss of power of accom

A

Presbyopia

675
Q

Measures angle do deviation in strabismus, 2 dissimilar targets are placed at end of 2 tubes and can be observed separately by 2eyes thru corresponding eyepiece

A

Amblyoscope

676
Q

Astigmatism with no accompanying spherical correction

A

Simple astigmatism

677
Q

Most common symptom of ametropia which is bilateral situated in frontal or temporal area, and most common in people with small RE.

A

Headache

678
Q

Useful in decreasing illum becoz half of light rays are diverted under wards. Consists of 2 laminated lenses.

A

Polarizing lenses (Polaroid)

679
Q

Indiv with ametropia complain of blurred vision which is improved with

A

Pinhole

680
Q

Esotropia that occurs in 1 y/o, MR is recessed (weakened) or LR is Resected (strengthened)

A

Non-accommodative esotropia

681
Q

Stimulation of sympathetic system induces pupillary dilation/constriction

A

Pupillary dilation

682
Q

Binocular vision is not present at birth

A

True

683
Q

Refractive error of ___ are physiologic variation

A

<5 D

684
Q

Various nuclei are connected cn 6 to higher center responsible for various eye movements thru medial longitudinal fasciculus:
For vol conjugate movement

A

2nd frontal gurus

685
Q

Visual acuity at 3 yr

A

6/6

686
Q

Hard lens is worn only for

A

8-12hrs with comfort

687
Q

Amt that accom can help

A

Latent ametropia

688
Q

Where optic nerve fuse

A

Optic chiasm

689
Q

Total amt of disparity between the length of eye and RO of eye if accom is suspended

A

Total ametropia

690
Q

It is due to optical fatigue rather than excessive lighting

A

Glare

691
Q

Corresponds to plane of pull of that particular ms

A

Primary action

692
Q

One eye can not move in any direction without concomitant movement if the other. In order for both eyes to move in same direction, it will involve the action of at least one ms in each eye.

A

Yoke ms

693
Q

Pis lateral oculomotor paralysis

Contralat intention tremors

A

Benedik’s syndrome

694
Q

First branch of ophthalmic artery

A

Central retinal artery

695
Q

Venous engorgement
Retinal hemorrhage
Hyperemic disk with blurring of margin
Hotdog catsup appearance

A

CRVO

696
Q

Common cause of CRVO in young

A

Phlebitis

697
Q

Posteriorly, retina converges towards the ____ to form intra ocular portion of _____

A

Posteriorly, retina converges towards the OPTIC DISK to form intra ocular portion of OPTIC NERVE

698
Q

Photoreceptors which func at low level of illumination or night vision (scotopic vision).

A

Rods

699
Q

Layer of retina where the axons of the ganglion cells converge toward posterior pole of the eye to eventually from the optic nerve.

A

Nerve fiber layer

700
Q

Lipoidal infiltration of white streak at side of blood column is seen and called

A

Pipe stem sheathing (vascular sheathing)

701
Q

Center of acute vision

A

Fovea centralis

702
Q

Seeing flashes of light

A

Photopsia

703
Q

Where does retinal detachment occur?

A

Between pigment epith and the rest of the retina, which has embryological basis.

704
Q

In region of fovea, the bipolar cells and other elements of inner layer of retina are pushed to the sides, the axons and dendrites in outer plexiform layer take an oblique or tangential course. This unique portion of outer plexiform is called..

A

Nerve fiber layer of Henle

705
Q

In arteriosclerosis, when the median streak completely covers the entire bld column, the artery is called

A

Copper wire artery

706
Q

Rods and cones layer is composed of outer and inner segments. What segment can you find the light-sensitive photo chemicals?

A

Outer segment
Has transverse disk which contain the visual pigment concerned in photochemistry of visual process converting light energy into chemical energy of nerve impulse.

707
Q

How many capillary networks are there in the retina? Where is It located?

A

Two. One in nerve fiber layer and one in inner nuclear layer.
They are closely interconnected.

708
Q

Principal symptom of retinal patho

A

Visual disturbance

709
Q

Layer of retina in which ganglion cells usually form a monocellular layer throughout most of the retina

A

Ganglion cell layer

710
Q

Most common intraocular tumor

A

Retinoblastoma

711
Q

As the retinal artery enters the eye, it loses its ____ , and the medial muscular coat becomes ____.

A

As the retinal artery enters the eye, it loses its INTERNAL ELASTIC LAMINA and the medial muscular coat becomes INCOMPLETE.

712
Q

The retina gets its bld supply from 2 sources

A

choriocapillaries supply the outer layer

Retinal arteries supply the inner layer

713
Q

Effect of iop is ultimately manifested in

A

Optic disk

714
Q

Aqueous has access to the anterior chamber angle all the time because there is no ore existing ocular or systemic disease that can be tagged as causative agent. It is symptom-free chronic, slowly progressive condi.

A

Primary open angle glaucoma

715
Q

The artery and vein have a common adventitial sheath at their crossings, an important factor in the production of AV crossing changes in what diseases?

A

Arteriosclerotic and hypertensive retinopathies

716
Q

Cats eye reflex

A

Leucocoria

717
Q

Retinal detachment due to disease process of retina or the vitreous and choroid

A

Secondary retinal detachment

718
Q

In arteriosclerotic retinopathy, a Whitish plaque of lipid seen in the wall of retinal artery

A

Atherosclerosis

719
Q

Stage of retinoblastoma with soapy white mass in retina

A

Intraocular stage

720
Q
Retina artery is very much constricted
Optic disc is pale
Rest of eye ground is white (due to coag necrosis)
Cherry red spot 
Box car appearance
A

Crao

721
Q

In Glaucomatous stage of retinoblastoma, what is the only resor it save the life of the pt

A

Enucleation

722
Q

Stage of retinoblastoma with tumor extending out of eyes into orbit via ocular emissaria or thru optic nerve

A

Extra ocular stage

723
Q

Glaucoma asso with hereditary or familial disease are not always present at birth

A

True

724
Q

The anterior or peripheral portion of the retina is marked by ____ where retina is transformed into nonpigmented epith of ciliary body

A

The anterior or peripheral portion of the retina is marked by ORA SERRATA where retina is transformed into nonpigmented epith of ciliary body

725
Q

In what region does the bipolar cells and other elements of inner layer of retina are pushed to the sides, where the axons and dendrites in outer plexiform layer take an oblique or tangential course.

A

In region of fovea

726
Q

Photoreceptors which func at high level of illumination or daytime vision (photopic vision).

A

Cones

727
Q

Edema of macular region

A

Central serous retinopathy

728
Q

Retinal capillaries contains ___ that are located in the basement membrane.

A

Mural cells

729
Q

If pigment epith is derived from outer layer of optic cup, then the rest of the retina Comes from

A

Inner Layer

730
Q

Glaucoma asso with hereditary disease, a syndrome of arachnodectyly, cardiac anomalies, lens subluxation

A

Marfan’s syndrome

731
Q

Layer of retina which is composed of axons of bipolar cells and dendrites of ganglion cells.

A

Inner plexiform layer

732
Q

The treatment of Secondary angle closure glaucoma is directed to ocular condition that gives rise to it

A

Principle of therapy is the same as primary angle closure type

733
Q

Treatment of primary open angle glaucoma

A

Medical

734
Q

Retinoblastoma metastasize to __ via

A

Long bone via hematogenous spread

735
Q

Photopsia may be experienced in ___ which causes traction in the retina (Moore’s lightning streaks).

A

Vitreous detachment

736
Q

Acute/chronic glaucoma:

Gradual closure of angle and gradual increase in iop, symptoms may be absent

A

Chronic glaucoma

737
Q

Photopsia may be experienced in ___ where the retina is mechanically stimulated as it floats or moves in the vitreous.

A

Retinal detachment

738
Q

The retina is firmly attached to 2 portions

A

Ora serrata

Optic disk

739
Q

Large image

A

Macropsia

740
Q

Treatment of infantile glaucoma

A

Surgical (goniotomy)

741
Q

Disturbance to floe of protoplasm contributes to glaucoma

A

True

742
Q

Rods/cones are concentrated in Fovea centralis

A

Cones

743
Q

Photoreceptors for color vision

A

Cones

744
Q

Increased iop in glaucoma is due to

A

Abnormal aqueous outflow
Rarely due to over production
Most rarel py due to nice venous back pressure

745
Q

External limiting membrane is Formed by junctional attachment between..

A

membranes of Muller cells and the inner segment of photoreceptors

746
Q

This is an early stage of silver wire artery where the artery is seen as a solid white cord with no bld column showing through.

A

Pipe stem sheathing

747
Q

Layer of retina which constituted by the axons of photoreceptors and the connecting dendrites of bipolar cells

A

Outer flexiform layer

748
Q

Elevated retina
Grayish retina
Retinal vessels appear constricted and darker

A

Retinal detachment

749
Q

Retinal edema in hypertensive retinopathy is seen as shining reflex from the retinal surface not unlike a wet surface and is called

A

Retinal sheen

750
Q

Innermost layer of the eye

A

Retina

751
Q

Principle of management of primary angle closure glaucoma

A

Lower iop
Analgesic
Referral to ophthalmologist

752
Q

Main cells in retinal periphery

A

Rods

753
Q

Drugs used in primary open angle glaucoma

A
  1. Miotics - increase outflow
  2. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - decrease aqueous production
  3. Epinephrine - enhance exit of aqueous
754
Q

This disease arises because if an inherited a atomic defect that causes a shallow anterior chamber

A

Primary angle closure glaucoma

755
Q

Acute or chronic glaucoma:
Severe ocular pain, sudden diminution if vision, seeing haloes around light, ciliary injection, Lacrimation, pupillary dilation

A

Acute glaucoma

756
Q

The pigment epith is composed of single layer of ____ cells! with micro villi projecting into the interspace between outer segments of rods and cones.

A

Polygonal cells

757
Q

Most common symptom of retinal detachment

A

Photopsia

758
Q

Distorted image

A

Metamorphopsia

759
Q

Caused by disturbance in the alignments and position of the visual cells, esp macular area as in macular edema, central serous retinopathy or flat retinal detachment

A

Disturbance of image shape or size

760
Q

Rods and cones layer is composed of outer and inner segments. What segment contains usual cyto and cytoplasmic organelles esp mito which amplifies the weak impulse into a transmitted current?

A

Inner segment
Which is connected to the outer by a constriction containing the cilia, which thought to transmit electrical impulse to the finely granular inner segment

761
Q

Refers to impairment of vision at night or in dim illumination and is present mainly in disturbances of rod func as in pigmentary degeneration of retina and vit A deficiency

A

Nyctalopia

762
Q

Glaucoma produces irreversible blindness

A

True

763
Q

Common complication of CRVO

A

Glaucoma (3 mos after onset) has rubeosis iridis

764
Q

Photoreceptors concerned with peripheral vision

A

Rods

765
Q

Pigment epith is derived from

A

Outer layer of optic cup

766
Q

Grading of severity in arteriosclerosis

A
  1. Slight widening of median reflex with slight compression
  2. More widening , with more marks of compression
  3. Copper wire artery
  4. Silver wire artery
767
Q

Common cause of CRVO in elder

A

Endothelial proliferation

768
Q

Treatment for crao

A

Dilators - paracenthesis, inhalation of co2 (carbogen)

Drugs - amyl nitrate inhalation, retrobulbar acetylcholine, prescoline

769
Q

S&s of infantile glaucoma

A
Lacrimation
Blepharospasm
Photophobia
Corneal enlargement 
Glaucomatous cuppping
770
Q

Iop regarded as suspect for glaucoma

A

21mmHg

771
Q

It is caused by any stimulus on the eye which results in only one retinal response, and that is seeing light.

A

Photopsia

772
Q

Layer of retina which is a fenestrations membrane composed of terminal bars

A

External limiting membrane

773
Q

Layer which is source of metabolic enzymes, as well as vit.A needed by visual cells, which is imp in the phagocytosis of degenerated fragments of outer segments.

A

Pigment epith

774
Q

Closure of angle brought about by condi in eye that causes the iris to move towards the mesh work. (Eg exaggeration of pupillary block such as uveitis, lens dislocation, bulging hyaloid face)

A

Secondary angle closure glaucoma

775
Q

Bld supply of retina

A

Central retinal artery and vein which enters the eye thru optic disk

776
Q

In arteriosclerosis, when the sclerosis reaches the advance stage abs reflects back all the light falling on its surface, the artery is called

A

Silver wire artery

777
Q

Layer of retina which is composed of the nuclei of the photoreceptors.

A

Outer nuclear layer

778
Q

Retinal detachment that is always asso with break in retina

A

Primary retinal detachment

779
Q

Visual disturbance may be manifested as..

A
Visual blurring
Photopsia
Sector visual field defect 
Disturbance of image shape or size 
Nyctalopia
780
Q

2 sources of symptoms of glaucoma

A

Increased iop

Disturbance of optic nerve func

781
Q

Layer of retina which consists if nuclei if several cells, namely bipolar cells, Muller’s cells, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells.

A

Inner nuclear layer

782
Q

Layer of retina which is the cuticular derivative of Muller’s cells and serves to delineate the retina from the overlying vitreous.

A

Internal limiting membrane

783
Q

Cells the serves as the storehouse of glucose in the form of glycogen

A

Muller’s cells

784
Q

The retina is dependent on a continuous supply of ___ for its metabolism.

A

Glucose

785
Q

Grading in hypertensive retinopathy

A
  1. Narrowing of arteries to 3/4 to 1/2 of corres vein with occasional focal constriction of terminal arterioles
  2. Narrowing of arteries to 1/2 to 1/3 of corres vein with several focal constriction of terminal arterioles
  3. Grade 2 + cotton wool exudates with flame shaped hemo
  4. Grade 3 + mild to mod edema of disk
786
Q

Visual loss or impairment may involve (central/peripheral vision) if extra macular area (esp rods) is involved.

A

Peripheral vision

787
Q

Visual loss or impairment may involve (central/peripheral vision) if macula is involved.

A

Central vision

788
Q

Regulation of IOP by

A

Anterior segment of eye

789
Q

Usual loos of arterial obstruction

A

Emboli from a cardiac thrombus

790
Q

Stage of retinoblastoma with increased iop, ocular congestion nod corneal edema and vitreous filled with tumor mass

A

Glaucomatous stage

791
Q

Glaucoma asso with hereditary disease, a syndrome of corneal Arcus (post embryotoxon), ectopia, polycoria, hypoplasia of anterior iris.

A

Axenfeld syndrome

792
Q

Only non transparent portion of retina

A

Blood columns and pigment epithelium

793
Q

Iop increased because aqueous could not flow to trabecular mesh work due to apposition of iris to the anterior chamber angle

A

Primary angle closure glaucoma

794
Q

Layers of retina

A

(From outer to inner)

  1. Pigment epith
  2. Rods and cones
  3. External limiting membrane
  4. Outer nuclear layer
  5. Outer flexiform layer
  6. Inner nuclear layer
  7. Inner flexiform layer
  8. Ganglion cell layer
  9. Nerve fiber layer
  10. Internal limiting membrane
795
Q

Some retinal condi which can produces sector visual field defect

A

Partial retinal detachment
Large retinal hemorrhage
Branch occlusion of retinal vessels

796
Q

Actual loss of a part of the field of vision or a sensation of a curtain or a fog covering the involved portions of the field of vision

A

Sector visual field defect

797
Q

Treatment of choice for primary angle closure glaucoma

A

Surgery

798
Q

Small image

A

Micropsia

799
Q

Endophthalmitis causative agent

A

Meningococcal neisseria

800
Q

In management of contusion, hyphema is left alone

A

True. Unless glaucoma sets in

801
Q

Adenovirus type responsible for pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Adenovirus 3,4,7

802
Q

In iris and ciliary body, the contusion results in

A

Hyphema

803
Q

Anti inflammatory drug that Inhibit action of fibrinolysin

A

Salicylate

804
Q

Used to treat corneal edema and bullous keratopathy

A

Dehydrating agents

805
Q

Anticholinesterase cholinergic drugs

A
Physostigmine 
Neostigmine
Diisopropyl fluorophosphate (DFP)
Alkyl-phosphate 
Demercarium bromide
806
Q

Dilute/concentrated acids produces coagulation necrosis

A

Concentrated acid

807
Q

When blood sugar is highe, there is the tendency to be myopic/hyperopic

A

Myopic

808
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drugs that dilates the retinal artery during CRAO

A

Acetylcholine

809
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction to drugs like salicylates and is charac by generalized maculopapular rash, severe stomatitis, ans purulent conjunctivitis

A

EM, Steven Johnson syndrome

810
Q

Common source of chemical injuries in the eye

A

Insecticide and aerosol spray

811
Q

CONTRAINDICATION to intraocular surgery

A

Beta hemolytic strep

812
Q

New formed blood vessels that extends to vitreous, fibrous tissue appears

A

Retinitis proliferans

813
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum, purulent discharge in adult and nongranulomatous uveitis causative agent

A

GONOCOCCAL neisseria

814
Q

Foreign body in conj is removed by

A

Wiping it out with wet cotton pledget

815
Q

Anti cholinergic or prasympatholytic drug use to treat Mydriasis without cycloplegia

A

Eucatropine

816
Q

Dilute/concentrated acids produces slight pain, conj congestion and edema of lids, conj and cornea.

A

Dilute acids

817
Q

Anti cholinergic or prasympatholytic drug substitute for atropine, has shorter duration

A

Scopolamine.

818
Q

Treatment for measles

A

Vaccination

819
Q

Drugs used in treatment of contusion which dilates the pupil with aim of removing the pupillary block

A

Atropine

820
Q

Foreign body embedded in cornea is removed by

A

Spud or long hypodermic needle

821
Q

The effects of radiation to eye parts according to their order of frequency

A
Lens
Conj
Cornea
Uvea
Retina 
Optic nerve
822
Q

Contagious venereal disease which appears as vesicle or ulcer in the genitals. It has regional adenitis. May lead to parinauds ocular syndrome.

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum

823
Q

Produces pallor of conj, pale fundus and pale tortuous retinal blood vessels

A

Anemia

824
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drugs

A

Acetylcholine 1:1000
Metacholine 10-20%
Carbachol
Pilocarpine

825
Q

Sympatomimetic adrenergic drug used to treat glaucoma in combi with pilocarpine

A

Epinephrine

826
Q

Sympatomimetic adrenergic drug of choice for pupillary dilatation

A

Phenylephrine

827
Q

Endocrine exophthalmos is not affected by many medical therapy and appears after thyroid surgery

A

True

828
Q

Hordeolum/stye causative agent

A

Staph aureus

829
Q

Vitreous hemorrhage are removed by

A

Vitrectomy

830
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drug demonstration the hypersensitivity of the pupil to this drug in Adie’s syndrome

A

Metacholine

831
Q

Adult type of chronic inflam and degenerative changes in the joints. The findings of subcutaneous nodules are characteristic and may appear similar to miliary TB

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

832
Q

Retinal hemorrhage are left alone

A

True.

833
Q

The early ocular changes due to diabetics are the results of

A

Osmotic changes

834
Q

In primary lesion of hopes simplex , what is absolutely COntraindicated?

A

Steroids

835
Q

Sub conjunctival hemorrhage should be diff with the hemorrhage by skull fracture. Which has bright red in color and anteriorly located?

A

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

836
Q

Lid wounds are repaired ASAP to avoid contraction of ms and necrosis of skin at wound edged

A

Vertical wounds should be sutured eve in they are small for they cause traction and notching of lid.
Horizontal wounds are repaired if they are >1mm.

837
Q

What is the effect of contusion in the eye if the eyelids are struck first

A

Ecchymoses or black eye

838
Q

Anti cholinergic or prasympatholytic drugs

A
Atropine
Scopolamine
Homatropine
Eucatropine
Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide
839
Q

First sign of Lupus erythematosus

A

Lid edema
Then hyperkeratosis, seborrhea
Finally atrophy of skin

840
Q

It produces dilation of conj and uveal arterioles, miosis and increased permeability of blood aqueous barrier

A

Parasympathetic cholinergic drugs

841
Q

Para/sympa drugs only limited to glaucoma

A

Parasympathetic cholinergic drugs

842
Q

Osmotic agent that is safe for diabetic pt

A

Isosorbide

843
Q

Adenovirus type responsible for epidemic conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus type 8

844
Q

First step in management of foreign body

A

Locating the foreign body

845
Q

Washing agents

A

Water
Normal saline solution (0.9%)
Boric acid (2-4%)

846
Q

Drugs applied in conjunctival sac penetrate mainly thru the cornea by selective diffusion

A

Drugs having Low surface tension, high lipoid solubility ans rapid degree of electrolyte dissociation penetrate more.

847
Q

Steroids should not be used for a long time

A

True. For they can suppress immunologic host response and may produce glaucoma

848
Q

Adrenergic system acts on sympathetic nerve ending or destroys what enzyme

A

Amine oxidase

849
Q

Steroids are not given in cases of intraocular viral or fungal infection

A

True

850
Q

Vitamin that keeps the itergrity of epithelium of skin and mucous membrane.

A

Vit A

851
Q

Dyes are used to stain the breaks in the continuity of epith of cornea and conjunctiva.

A

Sodium fluorescein 2% - green
Rose Bengal 1%
Methylene blue 2-5%

852
Q

In acute stage of measles, there is non purulent type of conjunctivitis with red dots surrounding by white areas called

A

Koplic’s spot

853
Q
Color identification of ophthalmic drugs: 
Antimicrobial
Steroids 
Anesthetic
Miotic
Mydriatic
A
Antimicrobial-blue
Steroids -white
Anesthetic-yellow
Miotic-green
Mydriasis-red

Bam, yanes, ws, gremi, remy

854
Q

Drugs used in treatment of contusion which constricts the pupil thus opening the anterior chamber

A

Pilocarpine

855
Q

Steroid of choice

A

Methyl prednisolone

856
Q

Stimulation and blockage of cholinergic system

A

Stimulation - miosis and increase accom

Blockage - Mydriasis and cycloplegia

857
Q

Anti cholinergic or prasympatholytic drug used to treat post synechiae and cycloplegic refraction

A

Atropine

858
Q

Pseudomem type of conjunctivitis causative agent

A

Beta-hemolytic strep

859
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drug needed if there is pilocarpine tolerance

A

Carbachol

860
Q

Treatment of choice for primary lesion of herpes simplex

A

Iododioxyuridine (IDU)

861
Q

Used to treat open angle and aphakic glaucoma

A

Anticholinesterase cholinergic drugs

862
Q

Management of chemical injuries

A

Neutralization

863
Q

Virus that produces self limited conjunctivitis. The danger occurs if it attacks pregnant women during her first trimester.

A

Rubella

864
Q

Produces vesicular Exenthema in eyelid, conj and cornea

A

Varicella -chicken pox

865
Q

The most significant ocular manifestation of graves disease

A

Exophthalmos

866
Q

In foreign body injury, the eye has to be patched for __ hrs to immobilize the lids so that the regeneration of epithelial defect will not be hindered by blinking

A

24hrs

867
Q

Anticholinesterase cholinergic drug for myasthenia gravis that elevates the upper lid temporarily

A

Neostigmine

868
Q

The type of toxoplasmosis disease accom by CNS involvement including calcification.

A

Congenital type

869
Q

Utilized to lower the iOp in glaucoma tours eyes by decreasing the aqueous formation in ciliary body

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

870
Q

Stimulation and blockage of adrenergic system

A

Stimulation - Mydriasis

Blockage - miosis

871
Q

Importanct cause of corneal blindness in underdeveloped countries.

A

Rubeola (measles )

872
Q

Osmotic agents

A

Urea
Mannitol
Glycerol
Isosorbide

873
Q

New formed blood vessels on retina

A

Rubeosis iridis

874
Q

Most frequent form of mechanical injury of the eye

A

Foreign bodies of the eye

875
Q

Earliest sign of vit A deficiency

A

Bight blindness and prolonged dark adaptation

876
Q

Systemic effects of parasympathetic cholinergic drugs

A

Hypotension
Vasodilation
Bronchospasm
Increase tone of GI and urinary ms

877
Q

Contusion may cause deposition of pigment on the surface of anterior lens capsule appearing as a bron ring called

A

Vossius ring

878
Q

Use to neutralize histamine or inhibit effects of inflammation

A

Corticosteroids

879
Q

In contusion in retina, a milky white area appears at the macula and around the optic disc called

A

Berlin’s edema

880
Q

Addison’s syndrome has no effect on vision.. Only hyper pigmentation of skin of lids, conj and uvea

A

True

881
Q

Sympatomimetic adrenergic drugs

A

Epinephrine

Phenylephrine

882
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drug used to treat accommodative esotropia

A

Pilocarpine

883
Q

can inhibit vascularization, decrease capillary permeability and prevent immunological reactions

A

Steroids

884
Q

Viruses that attacks the nerves tend to produce

A

Optic neuritis and EOM palsies

885
Q

Sub conjunctival hemorrhage should be diff with the hemorrhage by skull fracture. Which has purplish in color and Posteriorly located?

A

Hemorrhage caused by skull fracture

886
Q

Helpful in preventive vascularization of cornea

A

EDTA

887
Q

Daily requirement of vitamin A

A

5000 IU

888
Q

Cholinergic system acts on parasympathetic nerve ending or destroys what enzyme?

A

Cholinesterase

889
Q

Anti cholinergic or prasympatholytic drug exclusively used to treat refraction

A

Cyclopentolate

L

890
Q

The general color of fundus on polycythemia is

A

Dusky red or cyanotic

891
Q

Treatment for endocrine exophthalmos

A

Orbital decompression

892
Q

New formed blood vessels which later circle the macula

A

Retinitis circinata

893
Q

Severe dehydration, sunken eyeball, bluish appearance of lids causative agent

A

Cholera vibrio

894
Q

Viruses producing petechiae hemorrhage may manifest with

A

Subconj hemo and ecchymoses

895
Q

The sign and symptoms are marked when the foreign body is on

A

Cornea because of rich nerve supply

896
Q

An early indication of vit A deficient is the formation go greasy yellowish plaque in temporal conjunctiva called

A

Bitot’s spot

897
Q

Parasympathetic cholinergic drug that is widely used for glaucoma. Produces incd permeability of trabecular mesh work and miosis.

A

Pilocarpine

898
Q

Chronic vit A deficient sign

A

Dry mucous mem and tear secretion stops