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Med Prep > microbio - intro > Flashcards

microbio - intro Flashcards

0
Q

Requires living host cells for growth thus they are the only obligatory intracellular organism among bacteria

A

Rickettsia and chlamydia

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1
Q

Replicate only within cells
Inner core of either DNA or RNA but no cytoplasm
Depends on host cells for protein synthesis and energy generation
Fast mutation

A

Virus

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2
Q

Ribosome subunit of bacteria

A

70s (50s and 30s)

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3
Q

Ribosome subunits of fungi, Protozoa, helminths, animals and humans

A

80s (60s + 40s)

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4
Q

Tetracycline inhibits what ribosomal unit?

A

30s

Buy AT 30, SEll at 50

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5
Q

Erythromycin inhibits what ribosomal subunit of bacteria?

A

Inhibits 50s

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6
Q

A single circular molecule of loosely organized DNA lacking a nuclear membrane and mitotic apparatus

A

Nucleiod

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7
Q

Prokaryotes, especially bacteria doesn’t have true nucleus, rather they have..

A

NUCLEOID

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8
Q

Single, covalently closed circle or a loop of double stranded DNA

A

Bacterial chromosome

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9
Q

(+) peptidoglycan

(-) sterols

A

Prokaryotes

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10
Q

(-) peptidoglycan

(+) sterols

A

Eukaryotes

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11
Q

(+) sterols

Smallest bacteria

A

Mycoplasma

Mycoplasma genitalium (468 genes)

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12
Q

They have chitin, which is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine

A

Fungi

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13
Q

They are determined by its rigid cell walls

A

Bacterial shape

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14
Q

Determined by orientation and degree of attachment of bacteria at the time of cell division

A

Bacterial arrangement

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15
Q

Murein or mucopeptide
Structural support and maintains the characteristic shape
Able to withstand media of low osmotic pressure

A

Peptidoglycan

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16
Q

Backbone of peptidoglycan

A

Alternating n-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid molecules

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17
Q

Bacteria that has thick peptidoglycan

A

Gram (+) bacteria

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18
Q

Peptidoglycan synthesis is inhibited by..

A

Penicillin and cephalosporin

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19
Q

Involved in cross-linking

A

D-alanine

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20
Q

D-ala-D-ala is targeted by what antibiotic?

A

Vancomycin

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21
Q

Enterococci is resistant to vancomycin because of different cross-linking sequence in the cell wall of the bacteria

A

D-ala-lactate

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22
Q

Tears, saliva, and mucus has natural antimicrobial property

This enzyme cleaves the peptidoglycan backbone by breaking GLYCOSYL BOND

A

Lysozyme

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23
Q

(+) teichoic acid; exotoxin

A

Gram positive

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24
Q

(-) teichoic acid; endotoxins

A

Gram negative bacteria

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25
Q

Site of beta-lactamases

A

Periplasmic space

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26
Q

Acid-fast bacteria

A

Mycobacteria

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27
Q

Mycobacteria is an acid fast bacteria, resisting decolorization with an acid alcohol after being stained by carbolfuchsin.
What component contributes to this property?

A

Mycolic acid

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28
Q

True or false: pathologic effects of endotoxins are similar irrespective of organism

A

True

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29
Q

Responsible for toxic effects of endotoxins. Found in LPS in OM.

A

Lipid A

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30
Q

Found in the outer layer of gram positive bacteria
Antigenic, induce ab that are SPECIES-SPECIFIC
mediates the adherence of staph to mucosal cells

A

Teichoic acid

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31
Q

Teichoic acid is a polymer of (2)

A

Glycosyl phosphate and ribitol phosphate

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32
Q

Invagination of cytoplasmic membrane

A

Mesosome

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33
Q

Functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell on half and as the binding site of DNA bacterial ribosomes

A

Mesosome

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34
Q

Basis of the selective action of several antibiotics

A

Differences in ribosomal RNAs and proteins

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35
Q

Reserve of high energy stored in the form POLYMERIZED METAPHOSPHATE.

A

Volutin granules

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36
Q

Gelatinous layer covering the entire bacterium

Composed of polysaccharide

A

Capsule

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37
Q

Capsule of bacillus anthracis is not composed of polysaccharide, it is composed of..

A

Glutamic acid

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38
Q

Functions of capsule

A

Virulence
Identification
Adherence
Antigen in vaccine

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39
Q

One of the ways to visualize capsules, where it swells in the presence of homologous antibodies

A

Quellung reaction

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40
Q

The energy for flagellar movement provided by ATP

A

Proton-motive force

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41
Q

Flagellum-like structure that provides undulating motion for spirochetes

A

Axial filament

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42
Q

Axial filament.
Counterclockwise rotation - ?
Clockwise rotation -?

A

Counterclockwise rotation - directed motion

Clockwise rotation - tumbling

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43
Q

A polysaccharide coating secreted by many bacteria

Adhere to various structures such as on the surface of teeth by strep.mutans

A

Glycocalyx or slime layer

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44
Q

Highly resistant structures formed in response to adverse conditions

A

Spores

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45
Q

Spore-forming bacteria

A

Clostridium and bacillus

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46
Q

Occurs when nutrients (c and n) are depleted

A

Sporulation

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47
Q

Spores contains their own DNA

What structure Coats the spores?

A

Dipicolinic acid (calcium chelator)

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48
Q

Spores can be destroyed by this steam heating

A

Autoclaving at 121C for 30 min, psi of 15

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49
Q

Bacterium that is an obligate parasite

A

Treponema PALLIDUM

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50
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite of plants

A

Viroids

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51
Q

Bacteria produced by this process in which one parent cell divides to form 2 progeny cells

A

Binary fission

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52
Q

Major determinant of growth of bacteria

A

Nutrients

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53
Q

4 phases of bacterial growth cycle

A

1) lag phase
2) log phase
3) stationary phase
4) death phase

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54
Q

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle occurs a vigorous metabolic activity where cells do not divide yet.

A

Lag phase

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55
Q

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is rapid cell division

A

Log phase

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56
Q

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is nutrient depletion or toxic products slow down growth until the number of new cells produced balances the cells that die
(Living=death)

A

Stationary phase

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57
Q

In what phase in bacterial growth cycle when there is a marked decline on the number of viable bacteria.

A

Death phase

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58
Q

Oxygen generates 2 toxic molecules

A

Hydrogen peroxide

Superoxide radicals

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59
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

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60
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A 
Corynebacterium
L monocytogenes
Mycoplasma
B. Anthrax
Staphylococcal
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61
Q

Microaerophilic

A

Campylobacter, helicobacter
Spirochetes (borrelia and treponema)
Streptococcus

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62
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Nosy nagging pets must breathe lots of oxygen

Nocardia
Neisseria
Pseudomonas 
Mycobacteirum, mycoplasma pneumoniae
Bordatell, brucella, bacillus cereus 
Legionrlla,  leptospira
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63
Q

Growth at 4C

A

Y. Enterocolitica

L. Monocytogenes

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64
Q

Bacteria that grows in amoeba in streams

A

Legionella

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65
Q

Bacteria that grow well in tap and distilled water

A

Psedomonas

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66
Q

Virioids has naked RNA or DNA?

A

RNA

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67
Q

Jumping genes

A

Transposons

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68
Q

Produce igA protease

A

N. gonorrheae and meningitidis

H. Influenzae type B

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69
Q

Mobile genetic elements.

Dna pcs that move readily from one site to anothrr eitrhr within or bw dna of bacteria, plasmids and bacteriophahe

A

Transposons

Hence codes for drug resistance and mutations

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70
Q

Naked proteins with the same aa sequence but have folded differently

A

Prions

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71
Q

Prion is a normal part of brain. They have alpha helical structure. It become pathologic if

A

Beta sheet and forms amylod fibrils

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72
Q

Appearance of vacuolated neurons with loss of function and lack of imminr response or inflammation

A

Spongiform encephalopathies

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73
Q

To prevent prion dse, how to disinfect it properly?

A

5% hypochlorite soln
1. 0M Na hydroxide
Autoclave 15 psi for 1 hr

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74
Q

Membrane disrupting exotoxins

A

Pore-forming cytolysin

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75
Q

Pore forming cytolysin

A

Alpha toxin by staph aureus

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76
Q

A membrane disrupting bacterial exotoxins which contain lecithinase showing a double zone of hemolysis.

A

Cl. Perfringens alpha toxin

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77
Q

Exotoxins that binds to MHC II receptors

Non specifically activates large number of T cells

A

Superantigen exotoxins

78
Q

Superantigen exotoxins examples

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST) by staph aureus

Strep pyogenes exotoxin A (SPE-A)

79
Q

Component of exotoxin which internalize and inhibits a specific critical intracellular function causing damage to the cell. It is the active toxic portion of toxin

A

A component

80
Q

Component of exotoxin that binds to specific cell surface receptors and initiates internalization of the A component. It determines what cell type each toxin damages.

A

B component

81
Q

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis (5)

A 
Diptheria toxin
Exotoxin A
Shigella toxin
Shigalike toxin 
Verotoxin
82
Q

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Diptheria toxin

A

EF-2 inhibitor

83
Q

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Shiga toxin

A

Of shigella dysenteriae type I

A component cleaves 60s ribosomes

84
Q

A-B toxin that inhibits protein synthesis:

Verotoxin

A

Of e.coli serotype O157:H7
Inactivates protein synthesis by removing adenine from the 28s rRNA
Causes bloody diarrhea

85
Q

A-B toxin that increase cAMP

A

Labile toxin
Anthrax toxin
Pertussis toxin
Choleragen

86
Q

Toxin of enterotoxic e.coli

Internalize A component to ADP-ribosylates Gs, which activates an adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP

A

Labile toxin

87
Q

Components of anthrax toxin

A 
Protective Antigen (PA) that serves as B component
Edema factor (EF) that activates adenylcyclase 
Lethal factor (LF) kills cell
88
Q

Toxin that inhibits Gi which is the negative regulator of adenylcyclase thru ADP ribosylation thus increasing cAMP

A

Pertussis toxin

89
Q

Toxin of vibrio cholerae
Catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of Gs protein ECG activates adenylcyclase that produces high level of cAMP, thus increases water and acid secretion

A

Choleragen

90
Q

Neurotoxin of Cl. Tetani which act on cns, inhibiting the inhibitory transmitter GABA

A

Tetanospasmin

91
Q

Neurotoxin of Cl. Botulinum that acts on peripheral synapses, blocking the release of neurotransmitters

A

Botulinum toxin

92
Q

Bacteria that escapes macrophage and grow inside them

A 
RuMBLeS
Rickettsia
mycobacteria
Brucella
listeria
shigella
93
Q

Bacteria that invades the Peyer’s patches thru the phagocytic M cells

A

Shigella

94
Q

Linear pcs of DNA

A

Exogenates

95
Q

Exchange of two nearly identical pcs of DNA

A

Homologous recombination

96
Q

Homologous recombination requires what protein

A

Rec A protein

97
Q

Processes of DNA transfer on bacteria

A

Conjugation, transformation, transduction

98
Q

Transfer of naked forms of DNA which occurs in same sp of bacteria

A

Transformation

99
Q

Bacteria infected by virus

A

Bacteriophage

100
Q

Transfer of DNA directly from one living bacterium to another.
Bacterial sex.
Major mechanism for transfer of antibiotic resistance.

A

Conjugation

101
Q

Transfer of bacterial genes via phage vectors

A

Transduction

102
Q

It a liquid or gel designed to support the growth of microorganisms or cells.

A

Growth medium or culture medium

103
Q

Different types of media for growing different types of cell

A 
Differential media
Enriched media
Nutrient media
Transport media
Selective media
104
Q 
Growth media used for the growth of only selected microorganisms.
An antibiotic (by which the selective microorganisms is resistant) is added to the medium in order to prevent other cells, which do not posses the resistance, from growing.
A

Selective media

105
Q

Growth media that distinguishes one microorganism type to another.
This uses biochemical characteristics of the microorganism growing in the presence of specific nutrients or indicators

A

Differential or indicator media

106
Q

Examples of differential media

A 
Blood agar
Eosin methylene blue EMB
MacConkey 
Mannitol salt agar MSA
X-gal plates
107
Q

Differential media that is used in strep test, contains bovine heart blood that becomes transparent in the presence of hemolytic streptococcus

A

Blood agar

108
Q

Differential media for lactose and sucrose fermentation

A

EMB

109
Q

Differential media for lactose fermentation

A

Macconkey

110
Q

Differential media mannitol fermentation

A

Mannitol salt agar

111
Q

Differential media for lac Operon mutants

A

X-gal plates

112
Q

Criteria of transport media (5)

A

1) temporary storage of specimens
2) maintains specimen’s viability without altering their conc
3) contains buffers and salt only
4) lacks C, N and other GF so as to prevent microbial multiplication
5) in isolating anaerobes, must be free from molecular oxygen

113
Q

Examples of transport media

A

Thioglycolate
Stuart transport medium
Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

114
Q

Transport media that uses broth for strict anaerobes

A

Thioglycolate

115
Q

Transport media that has a non-nutrient soft agar gel containing a reducing agent to prevent oxidation, charcoal to neutralize

A

Stuart transport medium

116
Q

Transport media for vibrio cholera

A

Venkat-ramakrishnan medium

117
Q

Growth media commonly used to harvest as many different types of microbes as are present in the specimen.
Contains nutrients required to support the growth of wide variety of organisms.

A

Nutrient media

118
Q

Examples of nutrient media

A

Blood agar

Chocolate agar

119
Q

Enriched media in which nutritionally rich whole blood supplements is the basic nutrient.

A

Blood agar

120
Q

Enriched media that contains heat-treated blood (40-45c) which turns brown

A

Chocolate agar

121
Q

Growth media which is the source of AA and N (beef,yeast extracts)
An undefined medium because AA source contains variety of cmpds with the exact composition being unknown
Contains all the elements that most bacteria needed for growth and are non selective

A

Nutrient agar

122
Q

Undefined medium (aka basal or complex medium) contains: (3)

A
  1. C source
  2. Water
  3. Various salts
123
Q

Defined medium (aka chemically defined medium or synthetic medium) contains:

A
  1. All chemical used are known

2. No yeast, animal or plant tissue present

124
Q

Examples of defined media

A

Nutrient agar medium
Peptone
Agar

125
Q

Nutrient agar medium composition

A

Beef extract- 0.3g (mineral and carbo)

126
Q

Peptone composition

A
  1. 5g protein and N source

0. 5g NaCl as electrolyte

127
Q

Agar composition

A

1.5g solidifying agent
100ml distilled water
pH 7

128
Q

Growth media that contains minimum nutrients possible for colony growth.
Often used to grow wild type microorganism.
Used to select or used against recombinants or exconjugants

A

Minimal media

129
Q

Minimal media contains

A

Carbon source (succinate)
Salts (Mg, N, P)
Water

130
Q

Type minimal media the contains a single selected agent, usually AA or sugar.
This allows the culturing of specific lines of auxotrophic recombinants

A

Supplementary minimal media

131
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Buffered charcoal-yeast extract (BCYE) agar

A

Legionella

132
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus and neisseria for sterile area

133
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

EMB or MacConkey

A

Enteric bacteria

134
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Hektoen enteric agar

A

Salmonella and shigella sp

135
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Loeffler’s and tellurite medium

A

Corynebacterium diptheria

136
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Lowenstein Jensen

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

137
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Thayer-Martin or New York City agar

A

Neisseria with area of normal flora

138
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

Regan-Lowe

A

Bordetella pertussis

139
Q

Selective and differential bacterial media:

TCBS (alkaline medium)

A

Vibrio cholerae

140
Q

Catalase (+)
Coagulase (+) forms golden yellow colonies
Mannitol (+)

A

Staph aureus

141
Q

Major protein in the cell wall of staph aureus which binds to Fc portion of IgG

A

Protein A

142
Q

Mediates the adherence and phage typing in staph aureus

A

Teichoic acid

143
Q

Staph aureus is a normal flora of..

A

Nose

144
Q

Typical lesion of staph aureus

A

Abscess

145
Q

Toxins of staph aureus and its manifestations

A

Enterotoxin: vomiting, watery and nonbloody diarrhea
TSST: asso with tampon use, superantigen
Exfoliatin: phage II staph, scalded skin syndrome, superantigen
Alpha toxin: skin necrosis

146
Q

Diseases caused by staph aureus (6)

A 
Mastitis
Blepharitis 
Cellulitis
Osteomyelitis
Food poisoning
TSS
147
Q

Coagulase (-)

A

Staph epidermidis and staph saprophyticus

148
Q

Staph epidermidis is the normal flora of…

A

Skin and mucus membrane

149
Q

Staph epidermidis is ____ sensitive

A

Novobiocin

150
Q

Disease caused by staph epidermidis

A

IV catheter infections

Endocarditis on normal prosthetic heart valves

151
Q

Treatment for staph epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

152
Q

Treatment for staph aureus

A

Prp
Vancomycin (if methicillin or nafcillin resistant)
Clindamycin
Nafcillin or cloxacillin (if beta lactamases resistant)

153
Q

Staph that causes UTI in sexually active women

2nd to e.coli

A

Staph saprophyticus

154
Q

Treatment for strep saprophiticus

A

Quinolones

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

155
Q

Lancet shape diplococci

A

Strep pneumoniae

156
Q

Hemolytic activity of strep pneumoniae

A

Alpha hemolytic

157
Q

Strep pneumonia does not live in the presence of…

A

bile and optochin

158
Q

Strep pneumoniae is encapsulated thus exhibits what reaction

A

Quellung reaction

159
Q

Strep pneumoniae produces this enzyme causing mucosal colonization

A

IgA protease

160
Q

Green zone, incomplete hemolysis

A

Alpha hemolytic

161
Q

Clear zone, complete hemolysis

A

Beta hemolytic

162
Q

Enzymes of beta hemolytic

A

Streptolysin o and S (hemolysin)

163
Q

No hemolysis

A

Gamma hemolytic

164
Q

Determines group of beta hemolytic strep

A

C carbo

165
Q

Most important virulence factor of streps

Provides type specific immunity

A

M protein

166
Q

Test in lancefield classification

A

Precipitin test

167
Q

Group a strep

A

Strep pyogenes

168
Q

Strep pyogene is sensitive to..

A

Bacitracin

169
Q

Strep pyogenes causes what disease.

A

Pharyngitis

170
Q

Strep pyogenes has what type of capsule

A

Hyluronic acid capsule

171
Q

A selective differential agar used to isolate and identify member of enterococcus

A

Bile esculine agar

172
Q

Most common bacterial resident of large intestine

A

Bacteroides

173
Q

Most common resident of upper respiratory tract

A

Alpha hemolytic strep and neisseria

174
Q

Normal flora of conjunctiva

A

Diptheroids, staph epidermidis and non hemolytic strep

175
Q

What is the type of sex pili used for bacterial conjugation

A

Type VII

176
Q

Cross linking enzyme on the surface of bacteria which is targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics

A

Transpeptidase

177
Q

Is cell wall or cell membrane antigenic?

A

Yes

178
Q

transport enzyme and oxidative phosphorylation

A

Plasma membrane

179
Q

Contains gene for toxins and antibiotic resistance

A

Plasmid

180
Q

Inclusion bodies formed when source of N, S, P are depleted and there is excess C

A

Poly beta hydroxybutyric acid (PHB acid)

181
Q

Cytokines that cause fever

A

TNF, IL-1, IL-6

182
Q

Breaks down the beta 1->4 bonds between NAM and NAG

A

Lysozyme

183
Q

Partial cell wall lysozyme digestion

A

Spheroplast

184
Q

Complete cell wall lysozyme digestion

A

Protoplast

185
Q

Inhibits enolase

A

Fluoride ion

186
Q

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O2 + O2

A

Superoxide dismutase

187
Q

Enzyme reaction that produces H2O + O2

A

Catalase

188
Q

Enzyme reaction that produces ClO + H2O

A

Myeloperoxidase

189
Q

Enzyme reaction that produces O2 + H + NADP

A

NADPH oxidase

190
Q

Non SI unit for sedimentation rate

A

Svedberg unit

191
Q

Svedberg unit is a measure of time, wherein a given particle of a given size and shaape travel to the bottom of the tube under centrifugal force. It is defined exactly how many seconds?

A

100 fs or 10^-13s

192
Q

All bacteria have no sterol, instead they have peptidoglycan.
What is the only bacteria which has Sterol?

A

Mycoplasma.

No cell wall

193
Q

Thermally dimorphic fungi

A

Molds at culture medium and room temperature

Yeast at infected tissue

Med Prep (52 decks)

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