20 - MS Flashcards

1
Q

What symptoms demyelination result in?

A

numbness, weakness, fatigue, cognitive difficulties, ataxia, optic neuritis, bowel/bladder abnormalities and neuropathic pain

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2
Q

What country has highest prevalence of MS? What regions?

A

Canada

-Atlantic and Prairies

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3
Q

Could be linked to low Vitamin ___

A

D

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4
Q

Treatment for relapsing remitting MS

A

DMT initiated at diagnosis

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5
Q

Treatment for secondary progressive MS

A

DMT has no effect, except in relapses

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6
Q

Treatment for primary progressive MS

A

ocrelizumab

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7
Q

What is the McDonald diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

At least 2 attacks, each attack lasting > 24 hours, at the attacks have to be separated by > 30 days

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8
Q

non-pharms for MS?

A

physiotherapy, stretching, fluid intake restriction & pelvic floor exercises, respiratory training, smoking cessation

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9
Q

What can we use for acute relapses?

A

IV methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone

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10
Q

____ reduce rate of relapses in RRMS

A

DMTs

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11
Q

What does DMT stand for?

A

Disease Modifying Therapy

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12
Q

PML has been reported with most of DMTs, especially ______

A

natalizumab

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13
Q

What is PML?

A

Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy

  • opportunistic infection
  • rare brain disease caused by infection or re-activation of JC virus
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14
Q

List the 1st line DMTs

A
  • dimethyl fumarate
  • glatiramer
  • interferon beta
  • ocrelizumab
  • teriflunomide
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15
Q

List the 2nd line DMTs

A
  • alemtuzumab
  • cladribine
  • daclizumab - not approved anymore
  • fingolimod
  • mitoxantrone - off-label
  • natalizumab
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16
Q

What is the adjunctive treatment that improves walking?

A

fampiridine (blocks K+ channels, improves walking)

17
Q

How does dimethyl fumarate work?

A

activates Nrf2 pathway which is involved in cellular response to oxidative stress

18
Q

s/e of dimethyl fumarate

A

flushing, n/v/d, ab pain

can decrease lymphocytes, cause proteinuria, increase liver enzymes

19
Q

MOA of glatiramer

A

immunomodulator, inhibits myelin reactive T cells, decreased T cell proliferation and decreases interferon-gamma secretion

20
Q

s/e of glatiramer

A

rare, acute transient post injection reaction = flushing, chest tightness, palpitations and dyspnea

21
Q

avoid what with dimethyl fumarate?

A

live vaccines

22
Q

Interferon beta may cause ?

A

Nabs (neutralizing antibodies)

23
Q

How does ocrelizumab work?

A

depletes CD20 B cells

24
Q

ocrelizumab has slight risk of _____

A

neoplasm (abnormal growth of tissue)

25
How does teriflunomide work?
reduces T and B cell activity
26
_____ has no cases of PML reported
teriflunomide
27
How does Alemtuzumab work?
MAB that binds to CD52 on activated lymphocytes and targets their destruction
28
How does cladribine work?
temporarily depletes B and T lymphocytes, followed by lymphocyte reconstitution, thus not causing continuous immune suppression
29
Cladribine has s/e of high grade lymphopenia which is linked to ____
HSV
30
How does Fingolimod work?
blocks activated lymphocytes from circulating into blood stream from lymphoid tissues.
31
s/e of fingolimod?
-macular edema -bradycardia -VZV infection -skin cancer -reversible hepatic dysfunction PML
32
Describe mitoxantrone
off-label | -suppresses immune cell activity
33
s/e of mitoxantrone
cardiotoxicity, leukemia
34
MOA of natalizumab
blocks attachment of T cells to the BBB *highest risk of PML
35
_____ is a known teratogen
Teriflunomide
36
If someone's on teriflunomide and gets pregnant, you need to stop it and wash it out with ______
cholestyramine
37
Mainstay of care in pregnancy and breastfeeding for MS?
- These states decrease risk of relapses - stop drugs for MS - if need be, use corticosteroids in breastfeeding for acute relapses
38
All MS patients need how much of vitamin D/day?
1000 IU/day