Surgical Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 classifications of people in the OR?

A

Sterile and nonsterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is part of the sterile team?

A

Surgeon, surgical assistant, physician assistant, scrub nurse, CST(Certified surgical tech)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is part of the non sterile team?

A

Anesthesia provider, circulator, radiographer, others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What clothing/items may be worn in surgery?

A

protective eyewear, masks, shoe covers, caps, gloves, radiation and ID badges, lead aprons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of wearing specific things in surgery?

A

To maintain a sterile environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a person is sterile there are parts of them that are sterile and parts that are not. You need to be able to describe these parts.

A

Their back, shoes, everything waist down is nonsterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some rukes you should follow in the OR if you are not sterile to keep from breaking sterile field?

A

Don’t reach over a sterile field, cover nonsterile items, move back to back with sterile persons, watch front of clothing don’t lean over and let it get close to anything sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What must be done if a sterile field is broken?

A

The field will have to be made sterile again. Basically start the process over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the steps of making an IR sterile and unsterile?

A

To make an IR sterile:
Step 1: A sterile person (CST) will open a sterile bag.
Step 2: You (a non-sterile person) will carefully place the IR in the bag. DO NOT touch any part of the bag with the exception of the inside!!!
Step 3: The CST will carefully wrap the bag around the IR.
Getting the exposed IR back:
Step 1: The radiographer puts on gloves!
Step 2: The radiographer carefully takes the IR in the bag.
Step 3: The radiographer carefully removes the IR so as not to get body fluids/blood on themselves or the equipment.
Step 4: Properly dispose of the contaminated bag.
Step 5: Use a hospital approved disinfectant to wipe down the outside of the IR before leaving the OR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Be able to name some things that increase the risk of a sterile field becoming contaminated

A

long procedure, crowded room, poor lighting, staffing levels(too high or too low), don’t place anything sterile on the floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why should a radiographer be familiar with the equipment they will use in the OR?

A

Smoother flow and less mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some types of equipment used in surgery?

A

C_arms, portable, In room urologic equipment (not mobile), Stereotactic equipment (not mobile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you clean the surgery equipment used in surgery?

A

hospital approved cleaner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often should surgical equipment be cleaned

A

after each surgical case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How far should the radiographer stand from the radiation source?

A

As far as possible. Minimum of 6ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where should the tube of the C arm be placed in respect of the patient?

A

Under the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who in the surgical suite should wear lead and radiation doses

A

Everyone other than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where in respect to the primary beam is there less scatter radiation?

A

right angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 2 parts of the digestive system?

A

Accessory glands and alimentary canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the accessory glands?

A

Liver and gall bladder, pancreas, salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The alimentary canal extends between what two structures

A

Mouth and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 layers of the alimentary canal?

A

fibrous, muscular, submucosal, mucosal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The junction where the esophagus meets the stomach is termed as

A

cardiac sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the cardiac antrum?

A

terminal end of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The esophagus is ____ the spine.

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four parts of the stomach

A

cardia, fundus, body, pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is ruggae?

A

folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the lesser curvature?

A

right border of stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What’s the greater curvature?

A

left border of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is chyme?

A

food after the stomach has processed it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter?

A

Between the stomach and small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the cardiac sphincter?

A

Between esophagus and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The small intestine extends from what two points?

A

Pyloric sphincter to ileocecal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Absorption of nutrients occurs in what part of the alimentary canal?

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what’s the length of the small intestine is?

A

22 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are villi??

A

finger-like projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the three parts of small intestine?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are gyri?

A

free moving loops in the jejunum and ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The head of the pancreas is cradled in the ____ of the duodenum.

A

C loop or 2nd portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The duodenal bulb is what part of the duodenum?

A

first of the four parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the hepatopancreatic ampulla? Where is it located?

A

It is where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct meet on the 2nd portion of the duodenum

42
Q

What are the 4 parts of the large intestine?

A

cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal

43
Q

How long is the large intestine?

A

5 feet long

44
Q

What is the haustra?

A

pouches within the large intestine

45
Q

What is the ileocecal valve?

A

located between small intestine and large intestine

46
Q

What is the vermiform appendix?

A

Attached to cecum

47
Q

What are the subdivisions of the colon?

A

Ascending, right colic flexure, left colic flexure, transverse, descending

48
Q

What is the largest organ of the body?

A

liver

49
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

produces bile and stores it in the gall bladder

50
Q

What divides the liver into right and left halves?

A

falciform ligament

51
Q

What is the smallest lobe of the liver?

A

caudate lobe

52
Q

BE able to describe how the ducts converge in the biliary system?

A

The right and left hepatic ducts combine together to create the common hepatic duct which combines with the cystic duct to create the common bile duct.

53
Q

What is the sphincter of Oddi?

A

muscle that controls bile at the hepatopancreatic ampula

54
Q

What is the gall bladder?

A

thin walled pear shaped sac that holds bile until cholecystokinin stimulates release of bile for digestion

55
Q

____ stimulates the gall bladder to contract and release bile.

A

Cholecystokinin

56
Q

Does the pancreas aid in digestion?

A

Yes it creates digestive enzymes

57
Q

What are the parts of the pancreas?

A

Head, neck, body, tail, uncinate process

58
Q

What are the parts of the urinary system?

A

2 kidneys, 2 ureters, urethra, urinary bladder

59
Q

What is the smallest functioning unit of the urinary system?

A

nephron

60
Q

Where do the kidneys and ureters lie?

A

in the retroperitoneium

61
Q

Urinary system functions?

A

Removes waste, maintains fluid balance, controls blood pressure and other body functions

62
Q

What are the draining branches of the urinary system?

A

calyces

63
Q

Where is the renal pelvis located?

A

Immediately before ureter

64
Q

What is the renal capsule?

A

outer covering

65
Q

What is the renal cortex?

A

outer tissue

66
Q

What is the renal medulla?

A

inner tissue contains collecting tubules

67
Q

Renal pyramids are located where?

A

In the renal medulla

68
Q

What is the uretropelvic junction?

A

Located between the ureter and the renal pelvis. Common place for stones to lodge.

69
Q

What’s the ureterovesical junction?

A

Where the ureter joins the bladder (part of trigone)

70
Q

What’s the trigone?

A

Two ureteral openings and internal urethral orifice

71
Q

The urethra passes through what organ on a male?

A

Prostate

72
Q

Does the bladder have rugae?

A

Yes

73
Q

When is surgical cholangiography performed?

A

during biliary tract surgery

74
Q

What does surgical cholangiography show? Be specific.

A

The ducts in and out of the liver(intrahepatic and extrahepatic)

75
Q

Can surgical cholangiography be done in the presence of obstruction?

A

NO

76
Q

What things might the doctor be looking for in surgical cholangiography ?

A

Tiny calculi that may not otherwise be seen, neoplasms within the duct, stricture of dilation of the ducts, function of the ampulla of vater/sphincter of oddi

77
Q

surgical cholangiography is usually done in conjunction with what other surgical procedure?

A

Cholecystectomy

78
Q

surgical cholangiography is usually performed these days by?

A

By using a T-tube, needle, or small catheter

79
Q

In surgical cholangiography the patient may need to be tilted in a certain position to aid in filling of the ducts.. What position is it?

A

Trendelenburg

80
Q

What is ERCP used to diagnose?

A

Biliary and pancreatic pathology

81
Q

Can ERCP be done when biliary ducts are dilated or obstructed?

A

NO

82
Q

How do you do surgical ERCP?

A

How is it done?
A fiberoptic scope is passed down the patient’s throat and down into the duodenum.
Fluoroscopy is used to guide its way.
No food or drink 1 hour post procedure since the pharynx is paralyzed from the anesthetic.
Food may be held up to 10 hours to decrease irritation to stomach and small bowel

83
Q

What is cystography?

A

A bladder examination

84
Q

What is cystourethrography?

A

bladder examination includes inspection of urethra

85
Q

What is retrograde urography?

A

Contrast is introduce against the normal flow of urine

86
Q

What type of contrast is utilized for these studies?

A

Same as IVU may use reduced concentration
Denser=ducts well seen, but stones may be missed.
Diluted=stones better seen

87
Q

What type of lab test should be done prior to these studies?

A

Kidney function/diabetic

BUN and creatine

88
Q

Prep?

A

NPO after midnight

89
Q

How do they inject the contrast for these studies?

A

Catherization-contrast is injected directly into the pelvicaliceal system

90
Q

What are some indications for retrograde urography?

A

Vesicoureteral reflux
Recurrent lower urinary tract infections
Posterior urethral valves(only happens in males)

91
Q

What are some contraindications for retrograde urography?

A

If the patient has a reason they cannot be catheterized

92
Q

What position is the patient in for retrograde urography?

A

modified lithotomy position

93
Q

What images are taken for retrograde urography?

A

AP scout, AP pyelogram, AP ureterogram

94
Q

In retrograde urography what might need to be done to better fill the pelvicalceal system? What if you want to better see the ureters?

A
  • Head of bed may need to be lowered 10-15 degrees to keep contrast within the kidneys and not let it go down into the ureters– AP pyleogram
  • Head of table may be raised 35-40 degrees for the ureters to be well filled and the kidneys to be allowed to move. – AP ureterogram
95
Q

An AP ureterogram demonstrates what 2 things?

A

tortuosity of ureters and mobility of kidneys

96
Q

In cystography what projections are taken?

A

AP, AP axial, AP Oblique(60 degree rotation), Lateral

97
Q

AP Bladder or AP Axial Urinary Bladder
Patient Position:
CR:
Structures Seen:

A

Patient Position: Supine on table with legs stretched out.
CR: 10-15 degrees caudal; enters 2” above the pubic symphysis. –or- Perpendicular same entrance.
Structures Shown: AP Axial projection –or- AP projection of the bladder filled with contrast. If reflux is present then the distal ureters are also visualized.

98
Q

AP Oblique Projection

A

Patient Position: Rotated in an RPO or LPO position (40-60 degree rotation).
Central Ray: Perpendicular; enters 2” above the pubic symphysis and 2” medial the up ASIS.
Structures Shown: Oblique projections of the bladder filled with contrast. If reflux is present then the distal ureters will be seen too.

99
Q

Lateral Projection

A

Patient Position: Lateral Recumbent
Central Ray: Perpendicular; 2” above the pubic symphysis on MCP.—can use greater trochanter
Structures Shown: Lateral contrast filled bladder. Distal ureters when reflux is present. Lateral and Posterior bladder walls and the base of the bladder

100
Q

Males: AP Oblique Projection (RPO/LPO)

A

Patient Position: Patient rotated 35-40 degrees so that the urethra can be seen without superimposition.
The radiographer will take the image as the physician is injecting contrast so that the urethra can be fully seen.

101
Q

Female: AP Voiding Projection

A

Patient Position: Supine
Angle tube 5 degrees caudal to see bladder neck elongated.
The physician will fill the bladder with contrast and images are taken as the patient voids.