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DBE Reviewer > 6. Skeletal System > Flashcards

6. Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Part of bone resorption for hematopoiesis or blood production

A

Red bone marrow

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2
Q

Hydroxyapatite is composed of

A

Calcium and phosphate

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3
Q

Part of bone resorption for fat storage

A

Yellow bone marrow

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4
Q

Total bones of adult

A

206 bones

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5
Q

Total bones in newborn

A

270-350

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6
Q

How many axial bones in adult

A

80 axial bones

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7
Q

How many appendicular bones in adult

A

126 appendicular bones

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8
Q

4 examples of axial bones (found on the central axis)

A

Skull
Vertebral
Sternum
Ribs

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9
Q

Total skull bones

A

22

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10
Q

Skull bone are divided into

A

14 facial bones and 8 cranial bones

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11
Q

Number of vertebra in adult

A

26 vertebrae

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12
Q

Number of vertebrae in children

A

33 vertebrae

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13
Q

How many pairs of ribs

A

12 pairs of ribs = 24

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14
Q

5 types of bones

A

“F.L.I.S.S.”

Flat
Long
Irregular
Short
Sesamoid
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15
Q

Carpal bones:

from proximal to distal

A

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform
Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate.

Mnemonic:
She Looks Too Pretty,
Try To Catch Her

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16
Q

Examples of Long bones

A

Radius : Ulna
Tibia : Fibula
Humerus
Femur

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17
Q

How many bones are there in an adult handwrist radiograph

A

29 bones in hand wrist

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18
Q

Flat bones of the skull are classified as _____which means spongy bone that is sandwiched by compact bone

A

Diploe

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19
Q

Spongy bone sandwiched by compact bone

A

Diploe

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20
Q

Boat-shaped carpal bone

A

Scaphoid

“sca-ptain”

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21
Q

Boat-shaped tarsal bone

A

Navicular bone

“Navigate.. ⚓️”

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22
Q

Moon-shaped carpal bone

A

Lunate

“Luna 🌙”

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23
Q

Pea-shaped carpal bone

A

Pisiform

“Pea-siform”

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24
Q

Trapezoidal carpal bones

A

Trapezium and Trapezoid

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25
Q

Largest carpal bone

A

Capitate

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26
Q

Head-shaped carpal bone

A

Capitate

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27
Q

Most commonly fractured carpal bone

A

Scaphoid

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28
Q

Hammer-shaped carpal bone

A

Hamate

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29
Q

Tarsal bones

A

Talus, Calcaneus, Navicular, 1st cuneiform, 2nd cuneiform, 3rd cuneiform, Cuboid.

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30
Q

Medial cuneiform

A

1st cuneiform

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31
Q

Intermediate cuneiform

A

2nd cuneiform

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32
Q

Lateral cuneiform

A

3rd cuneiform

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33
Q

Flat bones of the skull

A 
Occipital
Parietal
Frontal
Nasal
Lacrimal
Vomer
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34
Q

Example of irregular bones

A

Vertebrae

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35
Q

Best example of sesamoid bone

A

Patella

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36
Q

Means bone from a ligament

A

Sesamoid bone

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37
Q

Bone stem cells that undergoes mitosis; only bone cells capable of dividing

A

Osteogenic/Osteoprogenitor cells

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38
Q

Bone cells that are found in the periosteum and endosteum

A

Osteogenic/Osteoprogenitor cells

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39
Q

Osteogenic or Osteoprogenitor cells forms into

A

Osteoblast

Osteoclast

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40
Q

These are mature osteoblasts

A

Osteocytes

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41
Q

Bone cells which produces the bone matrix/osteoid

A

Osteoblast

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42
Q

Bone building cells or bone DEPOSITION

A

Osteoblasts

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43
Q

Mature bone cells that maintains the bone

A

Osteocytes

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44
Q

Bone destruction cells or bone RESORPTION

A

Osteoclasts

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45
Q

Macrophages of bone

A

Osteoclasts

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46
Q

Strongest form of bone

A

Compact bone

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47
Q

Other names of spongy bone

A

Trabecullar bone aka Cancellous bone

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48
Q

Functional unit of compact bone

A

Osteon or Haversian system

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49
Q

Immature bone that is fibrous

A

Woven

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50
Q

Other names for Alveolar bone proper

A 
Bundle bone(✨go for this✨)
Cribriform plate
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51
Q

Alveolar bone proper seen in radiograph is called

A

Lamina dura

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52
Q

Medical condition assoc with LOSS OF LAMINA DURA

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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53
Q

Dental condition assoc with loss of continuity of lamina dura

A

Periodontitis

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54
Q

Covers compact bone

A

Circumferential lamellae

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55
Q

Covering of compact bone penetrated by sharpeys fibers

A

OUTER Circumferential lamellae

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56
Q

Entrapped PDL (penetrated the bone)

A

Sharpeys bone

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57
Q

Part of compact bone(covering) that lines the medullary cavity

A

INNER circumferential lamellae

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58
Q

Immature bone located between diaphysis and epiphysis in children that is made up of hyaline cartilage

A

Epiphyseal plate

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59
Q

Shaft of the long/short bones

A

Diaphysis

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60
Q

End part of long bone that contains bone marrow

A

Epiphysis

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61
Q

Between diaphysis and epiphysis in adults

A

Metaphysis

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62
Q

Articulating surface of bone made up of hyaline cartilage

A

Articular cartilage

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63
Q

Sources of blood supply of bone

A

Periosteum

Endosteum

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64
Q

Dense irregular tissue, source of osteoprogenitor cells

A

Periosteum

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65
Q

Lining of medullary cavity; source of osteoprogenitor cells

A

Endosteum

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66
Q

Marrow cavity; contains red and yellow bone marrow

A

Medullary cavity

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67
Q

Site of hematopoiesis site in EMBRYO

A

Yolk sac (specifically: Blood islands)

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68
Q

Site of hematopoiesis site in FETUS

A

Liver

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69
Q

Site of hematopoiesis site in AFTER BIRTH

A

Red bone marrow

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70
Q

Most critical trimester of pregnancy

A

First trimester = organogenesis

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71
Q

Stage: fertilization of egg cell to implantation period

A

Zygote

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72
Q

Stage: implantation to 8th week of development

A

Embryo

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73
Q

Stage: 8th week to birth

A

Fetus

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74
Q

How many days for implantation period

A

7 days

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75
Q

Major site of hematopoiesis in children

A

Long bones

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76
Q

4 major sites of hematopoiesis in adults

A

Skull
Pelvis
Sternum
Vertebra

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77
Q

Direct bone growth

A

Intramembranous

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78
Q

Indirect bone growth

A

Endochondral

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79
Q

Type of bone formation that begins with hyaline cartilage before becoming a bone

A

Endochondral

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80
Q

Type of bone growth in MANDIBLE

A

Intramembranous

Except CONDYLE

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81
Q

All parts of mandible undergoes intramembranous formation except

A

Condyle

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82
Q

Type of bone growth in CONDYLE OF MANDIBLE

A

Endochondral

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83
Q

Bones that are endochondral

A

“ESPECOLS”

Endochondral
✔️Sphenoid
✔️Petrous part of Temporal bone
✔️ Ethmoid
✔️ Condyle
✔️ Occipital (basilar part)
✔️ Long bones
✔️ Short bones
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84
Q

Type of bone growth in CRANIAL BASE

A

Endochondral

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85
Q

Type of bone growth in CRANIAL VAULT

A

Intramembranous

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86
Q

Floor of the brain

A

Cranial base

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87
Q

Bones of CRANIAL BASE

A

“T.O.E.S.”

Temporal (Petrous part)
Occipital (basilar part)
Ethmoid
Sphenoid

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88
Q

Part of skull where foramen magnum is located

A

Basilar part of occipital bone

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89
Q

Largest foramen in the head and neck

A

Foramen magnum

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90
Q

4 bones of the Cranial VAULT

A

Frontal
Parietal
Occipital (squamous part)
Temporal (squamous part)

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91
Q

Most auperior portion of the skull

A

Vertex (in parietal bone)

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92
Q

Type of bone growth in squamous part of occipital bone

A

Intramembranous

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93
Q

Type of bone growth in basilar part of occipital bone

A

Endochondral

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94
Q

Type of bone growth in squamous part of temporal bone

A

Intramembranous

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95
Q

Type of bone growth in petrous part of temporal bone

A

Endochondral

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96
Q

Largest foramen in the body

A

Obturator foramen

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97
Q

Other name for Hip bone (where obturator foramen is located)

A

Hipbone
Pelvic bone
Coxal bone(innominate bone)

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98
Q

Type of bone growth in CLAVICLE

A

Both intramembranous and endochondral

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99
Q

First bone formed in the human body

A

Clavicle

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100
Q

Most commonly fractured in the human body

A

Clavicle

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101
Q

Most commonly fractured FACIAL BONE

A

Nasal bone

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102
Q

Most commonly fractured CARPAL BONE

A

Scaphoid

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103
Q

Bone absent in down’s syndrome(trisomy 21)

A

Nasal bone

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104
Q

Bone deficient in Down’s syndrome

A

Nasal septum

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105
Q

Other term for nose bleeding

A

Epistaxis

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106
Q

Group of blood vessels in nasal cavity damaged resulting to Epistaxis

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus (Little’s area)

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107
Q

Growth center of maxilla (controls growth)

A

Nasal septum

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108
Q

Malocclusion seen in Down’s syndrome

A

Class III maxillary deficiency

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109
Q

Condition wherein there are “absence of cartilage cells”; targets septal cartilage(nasal septum) = deficient maxillary growth

A

Achondroplasia

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110
Q

2 conditions assoc with CLASS III MX DEFICIENCY

A

Down’s syndrome

Achondroplasia

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111
Q

Achondroplasia is also assoc with a condition wherein px has short limbs and normal torso

A

Achondroplastic dwarfism

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112
Q

Longest and strongest bone in the body

A

Femur

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113
Q

Smallest bone in the body

A

Stapes / Stirrup

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114
Q

Strongest facial bone

A

Mandible

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115
Q

Strongest bone in the HEAD and NECK

A

Petrous part of Temporal bone

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116
Q

Most commonly fractured site of mandible

A

Neck of condyle

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117
Q

Commonly fractured bone during CPR

A

Xiphoid process

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118
Q

Most commonly fractured CARPAL BONE

A

Scaphoid

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119
Q

Most common dislocated joint in ADULT

A

Shoulder joint

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120
Q

Most commonly dislocated joint in CHILDREN

A

Elbow joint

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121
Q

Largest carpal bone

A

Capitate

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122
Q

Largest Tarsal bone

A

Calcaneus

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123
Q

aka Ankle bone

A

Talus

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124
Q

Nasal bone is aka

A

Bridge of the nose

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125
Q

Location of olfactory receptors in nasal cavity

A

Superoposterior portion

Superior Posteriorly

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126
Q

Nerve in nasal cavity

A

Olfactory nerve CN I

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127
Q

CN I or Olfactory nerve exits at

A

Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

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128
Q

Separates nose into right and left

A

Nasal septum

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129
Q

Has mucous that traps air pollutants

A

Conchas or turbinates

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130
Q

3 bones of nasal septum

A

“VoPeS”

Vomer
Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
Septal cartilage

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131
Q

Conchas that are part of ethmoid bone

A

Superior and middle conchas

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132
Q

Passageways located inferiorly to conchas

A

Meatus

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133
Q

4 paired air filled spaces that surrounds the nasal cavity

A

Paranasal sinuses

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134
Q

What is the epithelium of the NASAL CAVITY and PARANASAL SINUSES

A

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated with goblet cells

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135
Q

Only cells that didn’t undergo pneumatization

A

Ethmoidal cells

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136
Q

4 paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoidal(3)
Sphenoidal

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137
Q

Paranasal sinuses that drains in the infundibulum towards hiatus semilunaris of middle meatus

A

“inFAMdibulum”

Frontal sinus
Anterior ethmoidal sinus
Maxillary sinus

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138
Q

Largest paranasal sinus

A

Maxillary sinus

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139
Q

Other name for mx sinus

A

Antrum of highmore

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140
Q

Covering/lining of mx sinus

A

Schneiderian membrane

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141
Q

Opening of maxillary sinus

A

Osteum

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142
Q

Test to confirm oro-antral communication: pinched nose, exhale gently = blood and bubbles

A

Valsalva test

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143
Q

Most common tooth assoc with sinus approx

A

Lone tooth of mx 1st molar (palatal root) - no adjacent = mx sinus lowers

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144
Q

Tx for small oro-antral communication (< 2mm)

A

No treatment

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145
Q

Tx for medium oro-antral comm (2mm-6mm)

A

Figure of 8 + gel foam

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146
Q

Tx for large oro-antal comm (>6mm)

A

Oroantral closure or refer to Oral surgeon

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147
Q

2 ways for Oroantral closure

A

Palatal pedicle flap

Buccal advancement flap

148
Q

Blood supply for palatal pedicle flap

A

Greater palatine artery

149
Q

Buccal advancement flap is aka

A

Berger’s flap

150
Q

Drugs prescribed for Oroantral comm

A

✔️Co-amoxiclav (prevent infection)
✔️Decongestant (so no pressure)
✔️Antihistamines (prevent possible allergens in nasal)

151
Q

Procedure done to add bone between sinus and alveolar bone

A

Sinus lifting

152
Q

Best 2D radiograph to assess mx sinus

A

Water’s view

153
Q

Sinus not seen in water’s view

A

Sphenoidal sinus

154
Q

Technique used to open maxillary sinus through the canine fossa

A

Caldwell-Luc antrostomy

155
Q

Where to access canine fossa in Caldwell-luc

A

Apical and distal

156
Q

Where does the middle ethmoidal sinus drains

A

Ethmoidal bulla in middle meatus

157
Q

Posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the

A

Superior meatus

158
Q

Sphenoidal sinus drains into the

A

Sphenoethmoidal recess

159
Q

What drains into the inferior meatus

A

Nasolacrimal duct

160
Q

Excess tear can drain into

A 
Tear duct (face)
Nasolacrimal duct (nose)
161
Q

Sinuses that dont drain in the middle meatus

A

✔️Sphenoidal sinus

✔️ Posterior Ethmoidal sinus

162
Q

Type of bone formation of incus, malleus, stapes

A

Endochondral (because they are from cartilages)

163
Q

Stapes is from what cartilage

A

Reichert’s cartilage

164
Q

Largest and strongest FACIAL BONE

A

Mandible

165
Q

Only movable bone in the skull

A

Mandible

166
Q

Framework or “Forerunner” of the mandible

A

Meckel’s cartilage

167
Q

After the formation of the mandible, Meckel’s cartilage transforms into (2)

A

Malleus and incus

168
Q

Malleus and incus are from what cartilage

A

Meckel’s cartilage

169
Q

Other name for TMJ

A

Ginglymo-arthrodial joint

170
Q

Tmj = junction of ___ and ___

A

Mandibular condyle

Mandibular fossa

171
Q

Where is mandibular fossa located

A

Temporal bone

172
Q

Ligament that envelopes the Tmj

A

Articular capsular ligament

173
Q

Most important ligament in the TMJ

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament

174
Q

Prevents posterior displacement of mandible

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament

175
Q

Ligament that connects sphenoid and mandible

A

Sphenomandibular ligament

176
Q

Attachment for sphenomandibular ligament

A

Lingula

177
Q

Ligament that connects styloid process of temporal bone and the mandible

A

Stylomandibular ligament

178
Q

Biconcave disc made up of fibrocartilage serves as cushion between md condyle and md fossa

A

Articular disc/Meniscus

179
Q

How many synovial cavity in the Mandible

A

2 Synovial cavities (superior and inferior compartments)

180
Q

Divides the TMJ to superior and inferior compartments or synovial cavity

A

Articular disc/Meniscus

181
Q

Movements in the inferior compartment of the tmj

A

Hinge movt - limited mouth opening

182
Q

Movts in superior compartment of Tmj

A

✔️Sliding - protrusion,retrusion, rotation, and benneth movt

✔️ Excessive mouth opening

183
Q

Maximum mouth opening

A

40-60mm

(or 3-4 fingers ang kasya ✋🏼

184
Q

Side to side movement of mandible

A

Benneth movement

185
Q

Posterior portion of articular disc; highly vascularized and innervated, cause of Tmjd

A

Retrodiscal disc

186
Q

Thinnest portion of articular disc/meniscus

A

Middle portion

187
Q

Between condyle and coronoid process

A

Mandibular notch

188
Q

Attachment for temporalis muscle

A

Coronoid process

189
Q

Where is mental foramen located

A

Located between 1st and 2nd PM

190
Q

Exit for mental nerve

A

Mental foramen

191
Q

Entry for IAN

A

Mandibular foramen

192
Q

In a right condylar neck fracture, where is the deviation during opening?

A

Right side (same side of fracture) - because of left Lateral pterygoid muscle pushes mandible to the right(opp side)

193
Q

Deviation of tongue to the RIGHT, what nerve is damaged?

A

Right hypoglossal nerve (same side)

194
Q

Articular disc is seen in 3 joints

A

TMJ
Sternoclavicular joint
Knee joint

195
Q

Unhappy triad

A

“AML”

Anteriaor cruciate ligament
Medial collateral ligament
Lateral meniscus

196
Q

Most common torned ligament

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

197
Q

Inorganic component of bone

A

Hydroxyapatite (Calcium and Phosphate)

198
Q

Most complex joint

A

Knee joint

199
Q

Part of the palatine bone that forms the palate

A

Horizontal plate

200
Q

L-shaped paired bone

A

Palatine bones

201
Q

Part of the palatine bone that forms part of the FLOOR OF THE ORBIT

A

Perpendicular plate

202
Q

True or False. Palatine bones form the floor of the Orbit

A

True

203
Q

Most common congenital orofacial defect

A

Cleft lip

204
Q

Other name for cleft lip

A

Cheiloschisis

205
Q

Syndrome or trisomy assoc with cleft lip or palate

A

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

206
Q

Cleft lip tx follows RULE OF 10

A

10 weeks
10 lbs
10 g/dL Hemoglobin
>10,000 wbc

207
Q

Cleft lip is more common to what gender

A

Male

**1 syllable: lip - male

208
Q

Cleft in the midline is aka

A

Hare lip / Median cleft lip

209
Q

Cleft palate occurs between ___ to ___ of development

A

8 to 10 weeks

210
Q

Cleft palate is treated in what age

A

12-18 months (delayed for speech devt)

211
Q

Cleft palate is more common on what gender

A

Females

**2 syllables: palate - female

212
Q

Clefts are common on what side

A

Left (cLEFT)

213
Q

Cleft of the HARD palate

A

Uranoschisis

214
Q

Cleft of the SOFT palate

A

Staphyloschisis

215
Q

Primitive backbone

A

Notochord

216
Q

Vertebrae was developed from what MESODERMAL embryonic structure

A

Somites

217
Q

Total number of vertebrae in ADULTS

A

26

218
Q

Total number of vertebrae in CHILDREN

A

33

219
Q

Vertebra or joint assoc with “YES” nod movt

A

C1 and Occipital bone = Atlantooccipital joint

yes as in atlantOOccipital

220
Q

Vertebrae or joint involved with “No” movt

A

C1 and C2 (dens) = Atlantoaxial joint

*AtlantoaXial as in ekis “nope”

221
Q

Vertebra with most prominent spinous process

A

C7

222
Q

Vertebrae that has transverse foramen

A

C1 to C6

223
Q

What passes through the transverse foramen

A

Vertebral artery

224
Q

Vertebral artery is a branch of what artery

A

Subclavian artery

225
Q

5 branches of Subclavian artery

A

“V.I.T.C.D.”

Vertebral
Internal thoracic
Thyrocervical
Costocervical
Dorsoscapular
226
Q

3 branches of the ARCH OF THE AORTA

A

Brachiocephalic artery (R)
Left subclavian artery
Left common carotid artery

227
Q

Branches of the Brachiocephalic artery

A

Right common carotid artery

Right subclavian artery

228
Q

Left and right vertebral artery forms what artery

A

Basilar artery

229
Q

Left common carotid artery branches of into

A

Internal carotid

External carotid

230
Q

Terminal branches of internal carotid artery

A

Anterior cerebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

231
Q

Most common artery assoc with stroke

A

Lenticulostriate artery (branch of the middle cerebral artery)

232
Q

Terminal branches of external carotid artery

A

Superficial temporal artery

Maxillary artery

233
Q

Blood supply for ALL Teeth (Mx and Md)

A

Maxillary artery

234
Q

Heart-shaped vertebra

A

Thoracic vertebrae

235
Q

Kidney/bean-shaped vertebrae

A

Lumbar

236
Q

Largest and strongest UNFUSED vertebra

A

Lumbar

237
Q

Strongest vertebra

A

Sacrum

238
Q

How many sacrum in children

A

5

239
Q

How many coccyx in children

A

4

240
Q

Circle of willis is located in what part of the brain

A

Cerebrum

241
Q

5 arteries that form the circle of willis

A 
✔️Anterior cerebral artery
✔️Anterior communicatig artery
✔️Internal carotid artery
✔️Posterior communicating artery
✔️Posterior cerebral artery (optional)
242
Q 
All of the ff. are arteries of circle of willis except: 
Ant. Cerebral 
Ant. Communicating
Int. carotid
Post. cerebral
Post. communicating
A

Posterior cerebral artery (optional)

243
Q

Inflation of a vessel, specifically arteries.

A

Aneurysm

244
Q

Inflation of an artery specifically in circle of willis

A

Berry aneurysm

245
Q

Infants have a single curvature which is concave anteriorly

A

Primary curvature

246
Q

Adults have ____ curvatures

A

Two - primary and secondary

247
Q

Concave anteriorly

A

Primary curvature

248
Q

Concave posteriorly

A

Secondary curvature

249
Q

Vertebrae that remained as primary curvatures

A

Thoracic and sacrum

250
Q

Secondary curvatures

A

Cervical and lumber

251
Q

3 structural classifications of joints

A

Fibrous (Fiss)
Cartilagenous (Cass)
Synovial

252
Q

3 types of fibrous joint (Fiss)

A

Interosseus membrane
Sutures
Sydesmoses

253
Q

“-desmo” meaning

A

Ligaments

254
Q

Struc class: tibia and fibula

A

Fibrous joint:

Interosseous membrane

255
Q

Struc class: radius-ulna

A

Fibrous joint:

Interosseous membrane

256
Q

Struc class: skull

A

Fibrous joint:

Sutures

257
Q

Formation of bony joint by bone apposition

A

Synostosis

258
Q

Incomplete synostosis (frontal bone) = triangular head

A

Metopic suture (metopic synostosis)

259
Q

Arrange in bundles of ligaments

A

Syndesmoses

260
Q

Struc class: PDL

A

Syndesmoses: GOMPHOSIS

261
Q

Gomphosis that undergo synostosis results to

A

Ankylosis of tooth

262
Q

Struc class: Epiphyseal plate

A

Cartilagenous: Synchondroses

263
Q

Struc class: Cranial Base

A

Cartilagenous:

Synchondroses

264
Q

Bones that make up the cranial BASE

A

“T.O.E.S.”

Temporal (petrous part)
Occipital (Basilar part)
Ethmoid
Sphenoid

265
Q

Struc class: ribs

A

Cartilagenous: Synchondroses

266
Q

4 cartilagenous:

Symphyses

A

Pubic symphysis
Symphysis menti
Sternum
Intervertebral joints

267
Q

Hyaline cartilage on the surface of bone and fibrocartilage sandwiched between the hyaline cartilage

A

Symphyses

268
Q

Struc class: elbow

A

Synovial

269
Q

Struc class: Tmj

A

Synovial

270
Q

Suture between right and left frontal bone

A

Metopic suture

271
Q

How many synovial cavity in tmj

A

2 synovial cavities:
Inferior cavity - hinge move
Superior cavity

272
Q

Non movable joints

A

Synarthroses

273
Q

Slightly movable

A

Amphiarthroses

274
Q

Freely movable

A

Diarthroses

275
Q

Bone adjacent to tooth

A

Alveolar bone proper

276
Q

Other name of Alveolar bone proper

A 
Bundle bone (go for this✨)
Cribriform plate
277
Q

Rx for alveolar bone proper

A

Lamina dura

278
Q

MEDICAL condition assoc with Loss of lamina dura

A

Hyperparathyroidism

279
Q

Dental condition assoc with Loss of Lamina dura

A

Periodontitis

280
Q

Type of joint movt of sutures of skull

A

Synarthroses

281
Q

Type of joint movt of vertebrae

A

Amphiarthroses

282
Q

Type of joint movt of teeth/gomphosis

A

Amphiarthroses

283
Q

Type of joint movt of shoulder joint

A

Diarthroses - ball and socket

284
Q

Vit D deficiency or Ca deficiency AFTER epiphyseal closure (adult)

A

Osteomalacia

285
Q

4 tmj ligaments

A

✔️Lateral temporomandibular ligament
✔️Articular capsular ligament
✔️Sphenomandibular ligament
✔️Stylomandibular ligament

286
Q

Vit D deficiency or Ca deficiency BEFORE epiphyseal closure (CHILD)

A

Rickets

287
Q

Characteristic feature of rickets

A

Bowlegs

288
Q

Excessive Growth hormone after epiphyseal closure (adult) bones widen only

A

Acromegaly

289
Q

Dental malocclusion in acromegaly

A

Skeletal class III

290
Q

Excessive growth hormone before closure of epiphyseal plate (child)

A

Gigantism

291
Q

Malocclusion in gigantism

A

Skeletal class iii

292
Q

Dwarfism due to decrease cartilage dev in the body

A

Achondroplastic dwarfism

293
Q

Normal torso, short limbs

A

Achondroplastic dwarfism

294
Q

Dwarfism due to decrease growth hormone

A

Pituitary dwarfism

295
Q

Ossification affected in achondroplastic dwarfism

A

Endochondral ossification only

296
Q

Easiest bone to fracture or break

A

Clavicle

297
Q

Bone fracture with no penetration (di naexpose sa external environment)

A

Close / simple

298
Q

Bone fracture with penetration (exposed)

A

Open / compound

299
Q

Bone fracture: crushed

A

Comminuted

300
Q

What type of bone fracture in GUNSHOT

A

Comminuted

301
Q

Bone fracture similar to twig, one side broken, one side bent

A

Greenstick

302
Q

Type of bone fracture common in children

A

Greenstick fracture

303
Q

Tx for fractures

A

Reduction and fixation

304
Q

Fracture repair steps (sequence)

A
  1. Hematoma
  2. Fibrocartilagenous callus formation(soft)
  3. Bony callus formation (hard)
  4. Bone remodelling
305
Q

How long is bone remodelling

A

6 months

306
Q

Graft donor and recipient is the same

A

Autografts

307
Q

4 autografts

A

“F.I.S.T.”

Fibula
Ilium
Scapula
Tuberosity

308
Q

Most common donor site in autografts

A

Ilium or iliac crest

309
Q

Most common intraoral donor site (autografts)

A

Tuberosity

310
Q

Gold standard of grafting materials

A

Autografts

311
Q

Gold standard/baseline of narcotics

A

Morphine

312
Q

Gold standard of shade guides

A

Vita classic

313
Q

Gold standard of mouthwashes

A

Chlorhexidine

314
Q

Gold standard of resto materials

A

Amalgam and gold

315
Q

Gold standard of cements

A

Zinc phosphate

316
Q

Donor and recipient is genetically identical (twins)

A

Isograft

317
Q

Donor and recipient is part of the same species (cadaver)

A

Allograft

318
Q

Donor and recipient is not part of the same species

A

Xenograft

319
Q

Most common xenograft

A

Bovine

320
Q

Synthetic grafts

A

Alloplastic graft

321
Q

Excessive porosity of bone due to rapid resorption of bone

A

Osteoporosis

322
Q

Most common bone disorder more common to females due to dramatic LOSS OF ESTROGEN during menopausal stage

A

Osteoporosis

323
Q

Drug of choice for osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates

324
Q

Bisphosphonates are antiresorptive drugs that make bones denser. What complication can arise?

A

BIOJ

325
Q

Densed bone due to radiation exposure. Destroys IAA = no blood supply =

A

Osteoradionecrosis

326
Q

Abnormal or defective collagen resulting to hyperflexible joints

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

327
Q

Other name for Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Rubberman syndrome

328
Q

Most common form of arthritis due to ageing

A

Osteoarthritis

329
Q

Wear and tear arthritis

A

Osteoporosis

330
Q

Wear and tear pigment

A

Lipochrome / Lipofuschin

331
Q

Autoimmune disorder wherein immune cells attacks articular cartilage

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

332
Q

Excessive uric acid that builds up in the blood

A

Gouty arthritis

333
Q

Uric acid + sodium =

A

Crystallization

334
Q

What nitrogen bases involved in Uric acid formation

A

Purines: Adenine and Guanine

335
Q

Pathognomonic sign of gout

A

Tophi bodies

336
Q

Uric acid crystals in nephron are called

A

Kidney stones “Nephroliths”

337
Q

Thoracic curvature

A

Kyphosis

338
Q

Hunchback

A

Kyphosis

339
Q

Lumbar curvature

A

Lordosis

340
Q

Swayback or hollowback

A

Lordosis

341
Q

Lateral curvature or S shape spine

A

Scoliosis

342
Q

Extraoral headgear for scoliosis and developing skeletal class iii

A

Milwaukee brace

343
Q

Arthritis of the spine

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

344
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is aka

A

Marie-Strumpell disease

345
Q

2nd most common bone disorder: px complains denture or hat doesn’t fit anymore

A

Pagets disease of the bone

346
Q

Other name for Pagets disease

A

Osteitis deformans

347
Q

Drug of choice for Pagets dse/Osteitis deformans

A

Bisphosphonates

348
Q

Rx of Pagets dse

A

Cotton wool appearance

349
Q

Hx of Pagets dse

A

Jigsaw puzzle or mosaic bone pattern

350
Q

Blood chem of Pagets dse

A

Increase serum alkaline phosphatase

351
Q

2 diseases assoc with increase serum alkaline phosphatase

A

Pagets dse

Multiple myeloma

352
Q

Malignancy of plasma cells

A

Multiple myeloma

353
Q

Function of plasma cells

A

Secretes antibodies/immunoglobulins

354
Q

Nucleus with cartwheel pattern

A

Plasma cells

355
Q

Rx app of multiple myeloma

A

Punched out rx app

356
Q

2 dse assoc with PUNCHED OUT rx app

A

✔️Multiple myeloma

✔️Hand-Schuller-Christian dse

357
Q

Dse with histological app of CHINESE CHARACTERS

A

Fibrous dysplasia

358
Q

3 diseases with GROUND GLASS rx app

A

“HAF glass”

Hyperparathyroidism
Albers-Schonberg
Fibrous dysplasia

359
Q

Other names for Albers-Schonberg

A

Osteopetrosis / Marble bone disease

360
Q

**In board exam: other term for osteopetrosis, go for typo =

A

Albrights

361
Q

Bone infection due to staphylococcus aureus

A

Osteomyelitis

362
Q

Abscess assoc with osteomyelitis

A

Brodie’s abscess

363
Q

Abscess assoc with Psoriasis

A

Monroe’s abscess

364
Q

3 dses with Moth eaten rx appearance

A

✔️Osteomyelitis
✔️External root resorption
✔️Ewing’s sarcoma

365
Q

2 rx app of ewing’s sarcoma

A

Moth eaten rx app

Onion skin rx app

366
Q

Dse with intracellular cholesterol accumulation with punched out rx app

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian dse

DBE Reviewer (22 decks)

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