UWorld first half Flashcards
Dynein vs Kinesin
- Dynein is RETROGRADE transport down an axon (would be used to establish latent infection of HSV)
- Kinesin is ANTEROGRADE transport down an axon (would be used to RE-activate HSV from cell nucleus down to skin, if HSV-1, would be trigeminal, if HSV2 would be from sacral ganglion, if VZV would be from DRG)
These are receptors for what viruses?
- Cellular Integrin
- CR2 (CD21)
- CD4 and CXCR4/CCR5
- Nicotinic ACh Receptor
- ICAM 1 (CD54)
- Cellular Integrin –> Cytomegalovirus
- CR2 (CD21) –> EBV
- CD4 and CXCR4/CCR5 –> HIV
- Nicotinic ACh Receptor –> Rabies
- ICAM 1 (CD54) –> Rhinovirus (think photos of rhino)
Scapular Winging
Lesion of LONG THORACIC nerve usually seen after masectomy, axillary node dissection and stab wounds.
-Defect in SERRATUS ANTERIOR (abducts arm above horizontal plane)
Calculating Number Needed to Harm (NNH)
1/Attribuatable Risk
Calculate attributable risk: take the adverse pts/total pts for both treatment and placebo. Then take the difference of these two numbers and take 1/AR
Ex: 60/80=.75 (75%) and 38/76 =.5 (50%) then take the difference of these two .75-.5=.25. Then take 1 over this number 1/.25 =4
Trigeminal Neuralgia (tic douloureux)
Sudden severe pain the distribution of CN V that can be brought on by chewing or brushing teeth. Unknown etiology
Tx: Carbamezapine: inhibits neuronal high frequency firing (a drug used for simple, complex, and tonic clonic seizures)
Baclofen and Valproic Acid can be used but are not first line
JVD wave
A. Right atrial contraction
C. bulging of R tricuspid valve during ventrical contraction
X: R atrial relaxation
V: continued inflow of venous blood
Y: passive emptying of R atrium after tricuspid opens
DNA Polymerase I vs III
DNA Polymerase I: Degrades RNA primer, replaces it with DNA
DNA Polymerase III: elongates DNA strand by adding deoxynucleotides to 3’ end. Elongates lagging strand and proofreads. Replicates the E. Coli chromosome
“333 for eeeecoli”
Immediate vs Long-term treatment for Panic Disorder
Acute: Benzodiazapines are OK for acute relief but should not be used long term due to risk of abuse. Contraindicated if have a hx of any sort of substance abuse
Chronic: SSRI/SNRI/CBT because of the relative benign side effect profile
Primase
-Makes an RNA primer on whiche DNA Polymerase III can initiate replication
*Keep in mind Uracil is ONLY found on RNA so if it were present, know we must be talking a bout RNA and thus primase would be involved
-Primase is crucial for bacterial replication as DNA polymerase CANNOT initiate DNA synthesis without it
Staphalococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
-Caused by exotoxin mediated skin damage (exofoliatin exotoxin)
Presents with + Nokolsky sign, epidermal necrolysis, fever, pain
-Most common in infants and young children
S1 nerve root impingement
- sensory loss of buttox, posterior thigh and calf, and lateral foot
- weakness in hip extension (glut maximus), ACHILLES reflex, foot plantarflexion (gastroc), knee flexion (hamstrings)
L4 nerve root compression
- sensory loss over lower anteriomedial thigh
- weakness hip adduction, knee extension (quads), PATELLAR reflex
Loss of patellar reflex is compression at ___, loss of achilles reflex is compression at ___
Patellar –> L4
Achilles –> S1
“one/two, tie my shoe, three/four kick the door, five/six pick up sticks seven/eight shut the gate
Bacterial pneumonia AFTER infleunza infection is typically what bacteria
S. Aureus
CAAT box
highly conseved sequence that serves as a promoter of transcription in the eukaryotic genome
Chlorthalidone
- potent thiazide diuretic (inhibit Na/Cl cotransporter in DCT)
- results in hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis (via activation of the RAAS system and losing of K)
Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, cramps, rhabdomyolysis
involuntary head bobbing
-usually caused by aortic regurgitation which results in a widened pulse pressure (peak systolic - end diastolic)
DIC in pregnancy
- mediated by release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) from sites of placental injury, which initiates the clotting cascade. Clotting factors are used up and this results in profound bleeding
- An abruption that leads to fetal demise is the most common cause of DIC in pregancy
pt presents with acanthosis nigricans what is the most likely diagnosis and what is elevated in serum
- Type II DM
- Free fatty acids are elevated in serum
insulin resistance in adipose cells hinders antilipolytic effects of insulin and therefore lipolysis takes place and an increase in free fatty acid is observed. This contributes to the insulin resistance by impairing insulin-dependent glucose uptake and increasing hepatic gluconeogenesis
overdose of Beta-blocker medications
- Presents as hypotensive and bradycardic on physcial exam (due to non-selective blockage of peripheral beta adrenergic receptors causing depression of myocardial contractility, bradycardia, and varying degrees of AV block)
- Tx with glucagon (increases cAMPm which increases intracellular Ca release leading to an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility)
Colchicine mechanism
- primarily it works by inhibiting microtubular polymerization (cannot form microtubules)
- Also reduces the formation of Leukotriene B4
Adverse effects: nausea, diarrhea, abd pain
Atropine OD signs and symptoms and treatment
- restlessness, disoriented, combative
- peripherally can cause dry skin, hyperthermia, mydriasis, constipation (cant see, cant see, cant spit, cant shit)
Tx overdose with phyostigmine (not neostigmine because does not cross BBB into CNS due to quaternary structure)
Interscalene nerve block
- used for procedures involving the neck and upper arm. Good way to access the brachial plexus roots and trunks
- Causes transient IPSILATERAL DIAPHRAGMATIC PARALYSIS by anesthesizing the phrenic nerve root C3-C5
Rare but serious side effect of Trazodone
- Priaprism
- can also cause sedation, nausea, postural hypotension (remember blocks 5HT2 and A1 adrenergic
Temporary local hyperoxia (like seen in a premature infant given high doses of O2) results in what?
-Can induce VEGF in the retina resulting in neovascularizaion
=retinopathy of prematurity
What would be the use in these measurements?
- aPTT
- PT
- Bleeding time
- Fibrinogen Levels
- Fibrin Split Products
- aPTT: unfractionated heparin
- PT: Warfarin (WEPT)
- Bleeding Time: assessment of platelet function, would be increased in vWd, ASA therapy, DIC,
- Fibrinogen Levels: would be low in DIC
5 Fibrin Split Products, would be low in DIC
What is so special about the longevity of EBV
- when it infects B-cells via CD21, it stimulates them to enter the cell cycle and proliferate continuously (IMMORTAL). This happens by an EBV encoded oncogene activating proliferative and anti-apoptotic signaling pathways within the infected B-cell.
- Keep in mind the dx of EBV is the production of heterophile antibodies (meaning react with foreign antigen such as hoarse erythrocytes
PFTs in Obstructive vs Restrictive Lung Disease
Restrictive Lung Disease: Decreased FEV1 but MORE of a decrease FVC leading to an INCREASE IN THE RATIO. Decreased TLC
“Restrictive Raise”
Obstructive: Decreased FVC but decreased MORE the FEV1 leading to a DECREASE IN THE RATIO. Increased TLC as well.
“Obstructive is Obsolete”
Electrolyte Disturbances of a CF pt?
-HYPOnatremic
- They are salt wasting from sweat because sodium is NOT reabsorbed through the CFTR due to a mutation (deltaF508)
- Risk factors for a CF pt would be excessive temperature, excessive exercise and the newborn period when they are solely on breastmilk and not eating salty foods yet (all pre-dispose to hyponatremia)
- NOTE, these pts are also HYPOCHLOREMIC, but this is asymptomatic.
Where in the TCA cycle is GTP produced and what is it a subsequent cofactor for?
- Succinyl CoA –> Succinate (near the bottom of the circle)
- This is called substrate level phosphorylation and is carried out by the enzyme Succinyl CoA synthase
- The GTP is then a cofactor for PEP-CK in gluconeogenesis going from oxaloacetate to PEP.
Absence of CD18
-Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD). Defect in LFA1 integrin on CD18, leading to impaired migration and chemotaxis. CANNOT form integrins, which are essential for leukocyte adhesion
-presents with recurring skin and mucosal infections, and periodontal disease
Also see late separation of umbilical cord (>21 days)
What is the cause of the greenish color in bruises?
- Erythrocytes escape into interstitum after injury and give blue/purple color
- Erythrocyte destruction then causes release of heme molecules
HEME OXYGENASE comes along (inside macrophages) and converts Heme–>Billiverdin (which is green in color)
The Billiverdin is then further broken down to billirubin (yellow) and is then bound to albumin and taken to liver
Mechanism of abx resistance
- Penicillins
- Vancomycin
- Quinolones
- Aminoglycosides
- Tetracyclines
- Rifamycin
- PCN –> beta-lactamase, mutated PBP, mutated porin protein
- Vancomycin –> mutated peptidoglycan cell wall (d-ala, d-lac)
- Quinolones –> Mutated DNA gyrase, impaired influx/efflux
- Aminoglycosides –> bacterial transferase enzymes that acetylate, adenylate, or phosphorylate
- Tetracyclines –> influx/efflux
- Rifamycin –> mutated RNA polymerase
Spinal Muscular Atrophy=Werdnig Hoffmann Disease
Congenital degeneraton of anterior horns of spinal cord. LMN lesions resulting in “floppy baby” with marked hypotonia.
- Caused by mutations in SMN1 gene which involves assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins snRNP.
- impaired SPLICESOME fxn (removes introns from pre-mRNA)
Uses of these monoclonal antibodies
- Infliximab
- Rituximab
- Interleukin 2
- Imatinib
- Abciximab
1. Infliximab: IgG1 monoclonal antibody against TNFalpha. Use in RA, AS, Crohns
2. Rituximab: targets CD20 B-cells used in lymphoma
3. Interleukin 2: cytokine that regulates activation and differentiation of T-cells. Use in Renal Cell Carcinoma and Melanoma
4. Imatinib: tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML
5. Abciximab: against platelet GP11B/IIIa receptor, used during angioplasty for pts with ACS
Finding of green, inspissated (thickened/congealed) mass in distal ilius in newborn points towards what and what disease associated with and what will this pt ultimately die from?
Inspissated mass (dehydrated meconoium) in distal ilium points to a diagnosis of meconium ileus which is very common in CF pts.
- If you habe meconium ileus you will almost certainly be diagnosed with CF but if you have CF only about 10-20% of infants will have meconoim ileus
- Ultimately CF pts usually die of pneumonia (or cor pulmonale, bronchiectasis)
What is NOT supplied in breastmilk and needs to be supplmenented by mother?
Vitamin K and Vitamin D
-The Vitamin K is supplemented by a shot at birth
-Vitamin D is usually supplemented by some sunlight (harder to get in AA babies because of an increase in melanocytes acting as a natural sunblock)
“KD for the KiD”
Pt with Rheumatic Fever is most likely to die from what?
- Die from pancarditis (inflammation of the endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium)
- Inflammation of the mitral valve is also common and will result in a holosystolic murmur
- Severe regurgitation and myocarditis can lead to cardiac dilation, cardiac failure and DEATH in a very small number of pts
- Pt will NOT die of septic shock from the S. aureus because the disease itself of rheumatic fever with migratory arthritis is autoimmune and NOT caused by the bacteria at this point.
Supprative Parotitis
-an acute viral or bacterial infection of the parotid gland
-S. Aureus is the most common cause.
-Risk factors include dehydration, intubation, anticholinergics, salivary calculi, or recent teeth cleaning
Dx: AMYLASE, US/CT
-Think about this in a pt who has acute jaw pain post intubation in a hospital
Treatment of BV
-Metronidazole or Clindamycin
Dx: grey or clear discharge with fishy smell. Use KOH to increase the smell “Whiff Test”
-Also dx with presence of CLUE CELLS
Diagnosis of Down Syndrome in vitro is suspected by?
- Decreased maternal serum AFP
- Increased nuchal translucency
- Increased b-hCG
It is then confirmed by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
Why do you get oxalate kidney stones with Crohn’s Disease?
when the wall of the terminal ilium is inflamed, bile acids are not reabsorbed. This loss of bile acid reabsorption causes an decrease in fat absorption. These excess lipids in the bowel bind to calcium essentially performing a supponification reaction and these soap complexes are lost in the feces
-As a result, oxalate cannot be bound by calcium (like it noramally is) and is taken up in the bowel. This leads to an increase risk of kideny stones
Desflurane
- A newer agent of the halothane class that is used for anesthetics and can lead to acute hepatitis.
- It is associated with a centrilobular hepatic necrosis
- Presents 2-3 days after exposure with fever, nausea, jaundice, scleral icterus, and increased liver enzymes
Ischemic Stroke Timeline
12-24 hours
24-72 hours
3-7 days
1-2 weeks
>2 weeks
12-24 hours –> “Red Neurons” (eosinophilic cytoplasm, loss of nissel substance)
24-72 hours –> neutrophilic infiltration
3-7 days –> macrophage/microglia infiltration and phagocytosis begin
1-2 weeks –> reactive gliosis and vascular proliferation around the necrotic area (liquefactive necrosis)
> 2 weeks –> glial scar formation
Pathology of a Hashimoto Thyroiditis pt
- intense mononuclear infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes and plasma cells often with germinal centers.
- Hurthle cells surround residual follicles
22q11.2 microdeletion
-DiGeorge Syndrome, neural crest cells fail to migrate into the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches. Consequently end up with parathyroid and thymus hypoplasia. This results in hypocalcemia and T cell deficiency
-The hypocalcemia manifests as Chovstek and Troussou sign
Anencephaly
Failure of the anterior neuropore to close (can be prevented with folic acid supplementation during pregnacy)
Remnants of the Rathke Pouch could develop which tumor
-Craniopharyngioma resulting in hypopituitarism, hydrocephalus and diabetes insipitus
Post MI pt put on med with side effect of increased creatine kinase and muscle aches? what is med and what are some other side effects?
- Pt is clearly on a statin, an HMG coA Reductase inhibitor and is having stain-induced myopathy
- Statins block conversion from HMG CoA –> Mevalonic Acid, this decrease liver cholesterol leads to an increase in LDL clearance by the liver by LDL receptors. These LDL receptors endocytose the LDL and then are recycled for use again
also causes an upregaultion of HMG CoA reductase enzyme since it is all being blocked!
Latissimus Dorsi innervation and actions
Innervated by Thoracodorsal Nerve (from C6-C8 nerve roots)
Actions: Internal rotation of arm, extension, adduction of arm
A very vulnerable muscle to external injury
Refractory asthma treatment (when oral glucocorticoids and long acting beta adrenergic antagonist are NOT working)
-Omalizumab is an IgG monoclonal antibody that binds with IgE to inhibit the action of IgE on mast cells, basophils, or other cell types and decreases allergic response. (anti IgE antibody)
Canagliflozin
SGLUT-2 Inhibitor used for TII DM
Usually SGLUT-2 reabsorbs 90% of glucose from filtrate in the proximal tubule.
This drug leads to significant loss of urine glucose
Side effects: UTI’s (due to lots of glucose in urine feeding bacteria), systemic hypotension. Should be avoided in pts with moderate to severe renal impairment
-MUST CHECK RENAL FUNCTION PRIOR TO USE
3 causes for Down Syndrome
1. Nondisjunction (95%): extra chromosome 21 in EVERY cell, due to increased MATERNAL age
- Unbalanced translocation (2-3%): all or part of additional chromosome 21 attached to another chromosome
- Mosaicism (<2%): the nondisjunction event occured early on and the pt has two disctinct cell lines in their body. The proportion of cells affected are what determines severity of disease
The relationship between ACh and Alzheimer Disease
- a decrease in ACh level due to a DEFICIENCY of choline acetyltransferase. This is most notable in the basal nucleus of Mynert, which participates in memory and cognition. ALSO involves hippocampus which is obviously involved in new memory formation
- AChE-I are meds used to treat Alz =Donepezil, Galantamine
What medication experiences fast and slow acetlyation and happens with what other meds?
Isoniazid
- Slow acetylation: convert drug slowly and result in an increase in the plasma concentration…also happens with Dapsone, Hydralazine, and Procainamide
2. Fast acetylation:may require higher dose to achieve same therapeutic effect
The single most effective preventative intervention that pts can do to decrease mortality risk
- STOP SMOKING
- this is more of an effect than diet or exercise (these effect cardiovascular health but smoking has profound effect on so many different systems in the body)
Surgery to remove thyroid and now all of a sudden have sx of hypocalcemia, why?
Surgery removed parathyroid as well and now the pt is not reabsorbing the calcium in the kidneys anymore
This is called symptomatic hypoparathyroidism due to inadvertant removal of parathyroid
-phosphate reabsorption would also be decreased in these pts
alpha-galactosidase A deficiency found in what disorder and what are some of the clinical features?
- Fabry, (XL-R) results in buildup of Gb3
- neuropathic pain, and hypohydrosis are the first sx
Can also see CVA, CVD which are obviously most common cause of death
telangectasia later on
The buildup of Gb3 reuslts in proteinuria and polyuria and eventual RENAL FAILURE
Fimbriae is another word for ___and is a virulence factor for what?
Pilli
E.Coli
COPD exacerbation tx (not specific med, just mechanism)
- Beta adrenergic agonist (produce relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptor)
- This acts via Gs –> increase cAMP
- Asthma and COPD are the most frequent causes of pulsus paradoxus in the absence of signficant pericardial disease
Walk through how a tumor in outer layer of adrenal cortex presents
This tumor is affecting the zona gomerulosa which produces aldosterone. Aldosterone acts on the distal collecting duct (principal cells) to increase the absorption of Na and dump out K and H. This if a tumor were producing too much Aldo, you would see a hypokalemic, metabolic alkalosis. These would lead to parasthesias and muscle weakness
This mimics Conn Syndrome
Where does the clot come from in AFIB?
L atrial appendage
Overactive bladder pathophys and treatment
-caused by uninhibited bladder contractions (detrusor instability). Causes a sense of urgency and involuntary leakage
Best treatment is with anticholinergic drugs = oxybutynin, which antagonizes M3 receptors on bladder
What medications MUST be avoided in a pt with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
Vasodilators: (CCB, nitro, ACE-I) lead to decreased afterload and lower LV volumes
Diuretics: decrease LV filling (preload) and result in greater outflow obstruction
Actinomycosis
- slow progressive disease caused by the gram + anaerobic bacteria Actinomyces Isralii
- usually colonize mouth, colon and vagina and can be found in dental caries
- Most frequently presents with cervicofacial abscesses
- Pulm actinomycosis is rare but usually occurs because of aspiration.
Dx: filamentous branching, sulfur granules
Tx: PCN
What property of elastin allows it to stretch during active inspiration and recoil during expiration
-Interchin cross-links involving LYSINE made by lysyl oxidase (requires Copper as a cofactor). This forms desmosine cross-links between elastin monomers
Disulfide bridges are made in COLLAGEN NOT ELASTIN
Elastin is made in Alveolar Macrophages
OSA treatments
- Stimulate hypoglossal nerve (causes tongue to move forward slightly)
- CPAP
- surgery
- wt loss
Ipatroprium mechanism
-anticholinergic agent used for acute asthma attacks that blocks muscarinic receptors (M3), preventing bronchoconstriction
Side effect is increased drying
Two types of H. Infleunzae
- Nontypeable are unencapsulated and are the cause of MOST mucosal infections (otitis media, conjunctivitis, bronchitis) 90% of strains isolated from the middle ears of children are this type
- H. Influenza Type B (Hib) are responsible for the other 10% of infections. These are capsulated and there is a VACCINE for this type
All children should get this vaccine by 2 months of age to help protect from EMOP (epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia)
What are the neurological symptoms caused by in a panic attack?
-Hyperventilation leading to hypocapnia, which can cause decreased cerebral perfusion and altered mental status
Very high fever, diarrhea, confusion, and a cough that may only be slightly productive is indicative of what??
what is tx?
- Legionnaire’s Disease
- one of the most common causes of community acquired pneumonia
- commonly contaminates water sources such as tap water, air conditioners, or other water based cooling systems
tx: floroquinolones and macrolides
Lobar Pneumonia stages (4)
- Congestion (first 24 hours): area is red, heavy, boggy. Alveolar exudate contains mostly bacteria
- Red hepatization (days 2-3): Red, firm lobe (liver like consistency) Erythrocytes, neutrophils and fibrin present
- Grey Hepatization (days 4-6): Gray-brown firm lobe. RBC disintegrate,
- Resolution: restoration of normal architecture
Dyspnea, Bibasilar Crackles, and presence of S3 are indicative of what??
what does this presence of extra fluid indicate??
-Left sided heart failure
-The extra fluid increases resistance to movement and can lead to decreased lung compliance resulting in poor gas exchange and shortness of breath. Other causes of reduced compliance include pulmonary fibrosis and insufficienct surfactant
SaO2 and PaO2 cutoffs for hypoxic erythrocytosis to begin
SaO2 < 92%
PaO2 < 65 mmHG
This is a chronic process, would result in an increase RBC mass (increase retic count) due to increase EPO
Polycythemia HCT level cutoffs
- Men >52% Hct
- Women >48% Hct
Then need to differentiate if it is an absolute increase or a relative increase –> need to measure RBC mass (not just Hgb and Hct). If RBC mass is normal, indicates a plasma constriction and relative increase in Hct. If the mass is elevated, must differentiate between Primary and Secondary erythrocytosis by EPO levels (primary have low EPO (myeloproliferative disorder)) (secondary is due to chronic hypoxia from altitude, smoking, COPD)
What must you tell a pt after inhaled glucocorticoids??
- use a spacer
- Rinse mouth out
If get too much residual glucocorticoid in the mouth can predispose to Candida infection
What is a CGD pt most susceptible to and why?
Most susceptible to Catalase + organisms. CGD is missing NADPH oxidase complex, which produces superoxide, hydroxyl radicals, and hydrogen peroxide.
Pts are susceptible to:
S. Aureus
Burkholderia
Serratia
Nocardia
Aspergillus
McArdle Disease
-Deficiency in myophosphorylase
NO rise in blood lactate levels after exercise
Decrease in this enzyme results in poor exercise tolerance, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis
-Can be tolerated by drinking glucose drinks DURING exercise. Not a tx
why would a newborn with cystic fibrosis present with an intercranial hemorrhage?
-They are defienct in fat absorption, thus are defieient in ADEK vitamins, thus are more prone to life-threatening bleeding (esp from the lack of Vit K…making 2,5,7,9,C,S)
Noise induced hearing loss stems from what?
-Trauma to stereociliated hair cells in the organ of corti. High frequency hearing is lost first
Remember:
- Hearing frequency at auditory nerve is more likely schwannoma
- Cochlear Cupula is responsible for low frequency sounds
- Defects of middle ear bones (otosclerosis) affects AIR conduction over ALL frequencies
- Malformation of ROUND window is more likely congenital
- Rupture of tympanic membrane causes unilateral conductive hearing loss
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders (4)
Bone marrow diseases caused by overproduction of myeloid cells
- Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (BCR-ABL 9;22): leukocytosis with LEFT shift
- Essential Thrombocytosis (JAK-STAT): thrombocytosis
- Polycythemia Vera (JAK-STAT): erythrocytosis
4. Primary Myelofibrosis (JAK-STAT): atypical megakaryotipic hyperplasia, which stimulates fibroblast production which results in progressive replacement of bone marrow by collagen deposition. BONE MARROW FIBROSIS, SEVERE FATIGUE, HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY
Chromosomal Disorders
3
4
5
7
9
11
13
15
17
18
21
22
X
3 VHL, Renal Cell Carcinoma
4: ADPKD (w/ PKD2), Huntington
5: Cru-du-Chat, Familial adenomatous polyposis
7: CF
9: Fredreich Ataxia
11: Wilms tumor
13: Patau, Wilson’s
15: Prader Willi, Angelman
17: NF1
18: Edwards
21: Down
22: NF2, DiGeorge
X: Fragile X, X-linked Aggamaglobulinemia, Klinefelter
3 AA associated with maple syrup urine disease
(I LOVE VERMONT maple syrup! from maple trees with B1ranches)
-Isoleucine, Leucine, Valine
Due to branched chain alpha-ketocacid dehydrogenase complex (BCKDC)
Requires thiamine B1 as a coenzyme**
Where does H. Pylori live mostly?
Antrum of stomach (where there are the fewest acid secreting parietal cells)
Virulence Factor of Streptoccus Pneumonia
polysaccharide capsule (prevents phagocytosis)
- this capsule is antigenic and Ab are created against it which confers immunity against that particular strain
- the pneumococcal vaccine confers generates immunity against some common strains (capsule specific)
Most common immune cells present with Crohn’s
Th1
IL-2
INF-Y
Terminal ilium is the most common location of crohns, has cobblestone appearance. Non-caseating granulomas and an inflammatory infiltrate that involves all layers of the wall (transmural) is common
Th2 are more involved in UC!!
Most cases of hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with??
-E. Coli 0157:H7 due to production of Shiga-like toxin (so obviously can see this in Shigella TOO)
HUS: thrombocytopenia, renal insufficiency, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
HPV infections of respitatory tract affect where specifically?
-Has a prediliction for stratified squamous epithelium
In the respiratory tract, the only stratified squamous is the TRUE VOCAL FOLDS (think about the constant beating these cells take and they need to be replaced frequently)
False vocal folds, paranasal sinus, trachea: pseudostratified columnar to help protect from foreign bodies
alveoli: simple squamous
“It would truly suck to get HPV in the throat”
Innervation of ear and area around the ear
Majority of area around ear is great auricular nerve (anterior) and great occipital nerve (posterior)
ALTHOUGH, the posterior part of the external auditory canal is innervated by small auricular branch of the VAGUS NERVE
That little bit right inside your ear that is telling you to go to Vegas
Gram - sepsis caused by___
-Release of LPS from bacterial cells during division or bacteriolysis. LPS is NOT ACTIVELY SECRETED
Lipid A is the toxic component of LPS, which causes activation of macrophages leading to widespread release of IL-1 and TNF-alpha
Low dose vs high dose Dopamine administration
Low Dose: stilumates D1 receptors to increase RBF, GFR, and sodium excretion. Mesenteric vasodilation occurs at this level
High Dose: stimulate B1 adrenergic in the heart increaseing pulse pressure, cardiac contractility, and systolic blood pressure
At even higher doses: stimulates Alpha-1 to cause systemic vascoconstriction, which results in decreased CO due to increased afterload (pressor effect)
DBA looks like DoPA or DOBA
Constrictive pericarditis physical exam findings
-Thick fibrous shell that restricts ventricular volumes causes low cardiac output and R sided heart failure
-jugular venous pressure increases (normally this drops during inspiration due to increase in negative pressure) however in these pts, see a paradoxical rise in jvp (KUSSMUAL SIGN)
-Can also hear pericardial knock, which occurs earlier in diastole than S3.
Giant Cell Arteritis mediator
- IL-6 appears to closely correlate with the severity of the disease
- Remember that this temporal arteritis is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica and is the most common vasculitis in pts over 50
Cell mediated process with particular increase in
IL-6
Also see increase in ESR
Most common cause of nephropathy in the US and what is the pathophys and timeline?
Diabetic Nephropathy (for both Type I and Type II)
- The earliest changes are glomerular basement membrane thickening with resultant mesangial matrix expansion. Also see hyaline arteriolosclerosis (in the intima and media of small arteries and arterioles)
- In initial stages, loss of negative charge of GBM leads to microalbuminemia
Tx: ACE-I have been shown to decrease the protein lost in the urine and slow the progression of GBM thickening
Loss of sensation in the perineal area?
-Cauda equina syndrome, which is commonly due to epidural cord compression from a malignancy. Pts usually develop urinary incontinence late in the disease with fecal incontinence as well
Major eosinophil functions (2)
1. Parasite defense: stimulated by Il-5 (promotes class switching to IgA) via Th2 and mast cells. The parasite invades the system and is coated in IgE and IgG antibodies that bind the Fc receptors of eosinophils. This triggers release of major basic protein that destroys the parasite. This is an example of antibody dependent-cell mediated cytotoxicity
2. Type I hypersensitivity reactions: eosinophils also synthesize prostaglandins, leukotrienes and cytokines that contribute to late phase type 1 hypersensitivity and chronic allergic reactions
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome
- presence of antiphospholipid antobodies in the setting of thromboembolism and reccurent miscarriages
- This may be a primary disorder or a disorder secondary to SLE
Remember that SLE can present with a false positive RPR/VDRL test and + antiphospholipid antibodies
What does angiotensin II do to the efferent arterioles of the kidney?
-a POTENT vasoconstrictor that constricts the efferent arteriole and restores GFR
Which part of the nephron responds to vasopressin??
-MEDULLARY segment of the collecting duct and CORTICAL segment
Medullary: production of maximally concentrated urine since this region deals with the HIGHEST osmolarity in the kidney
Cortical: reduces amount of free water delivered to the medulllary collecting duct
Hypoalbuminemia causes what effect on oncotic pressure?
-LOWERS oncotic pressure and causes interstitial edema due to net plasma filtration
Is H2PO4 increased or decreased in urine of DKA pt?
-Increased
This is an acid buffer in the urine that is used to trap free H+ and keep it so the pH does not lower too much
HPO4 and NH3 are the two most important acid buffers in the lumen of the kidney –>they become H2PO4 and NH4
**NH3 is the more important of these two as the kidney can greatly increase NH3 production in chronic acidosis***
How to calculate Filtration Fraction in kidney?
FF=GFR/RPF
This is the fraction of plasma flowing through the glomeruli that is filtered across the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s Space
RPF can be determined using the PAH clearance as almost ALL of the PAH is excreted in the urine. GFR can be estimated by looking at how much creatinine because this is freely filtered (could use inulin also)
The clearance of anything can be calculated as
Cs=(urine concentration x urine flow rate)/plasma concentration
Note: that 20% is a normal FF for healthy ppl
Ethylene Glycol effects on kidney
- Leads to TOXIC, acute tubular necrosis with vacuolar degeneration and ballooning of the proximal tubular cells
- Would find high ANION GAP METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
- Calcium oxalate crystals in the urine
What part of the kidney does Lithium act on?
-The principle cells of the collecting duct is where lithium can induce diabetes insipitus as a result of lithium’s antagonizing effects on the action of vasopressin
Spike and Dome appearance of the glomerular basement membrane
Seen in Membranous Glomerulopathy
85% of these cases are idiopathic
The remaining cases are due to DM, tumors, SLE, gold, penicillamine, NSAIDS, hep B, hep C, malaria, syphilis
Chronic Kidney Disease Labs
(GFR, VitD, Phos, Ca, PTH)
Starting with a decreased GFR
Decreased 1-25 dihydroxy vitamin D –> decreased intesinal Ca absorption
Phosphate retention –> high serum phosphate
LOW serum Calcium
HIGH PTH synthesis
Secondary HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
What is the cause of Turner Syndrome
-Paternal Meiotic Nondisjunction
The loss of the X-chromosome results in loss of SHOX gene, which is resonsible for long bone growth (reason why pts with Turner have short stature)
Surgical oophrectomy if the surgeon wants to avoid excessive bleeding need to ligate what??
-Suspensory ligament of the ovary
This is what contains the ovarian artery, vein, lymphatics and nerves
**This is the SAME ligament (=infundibulopelvic ligament) that is twisted in ovarian torsion**
Which of these contains an artery? (esp in regards to removing an ovary)
- suspensory ligament of ovary
- mesosalpinx
- ovarian ligament
- Round ligament of the uterus
- Transverse cervical ligament (Cardinal ligament)
- suspensory ligament of ovary –> contains ovarian artery (need to cut for removal of ovary)
- mesosalpinx –> region of broad ligament below fallopian tubes and does NOT contain artery
- ovarian ligament –> connects ovary to side of uterus (NO blood vessels)
- Round ligament –> contains artery of Sampson (not really of consequence when removing ovary)
- Transverse cervical ligament –> from cervix to lateral fornix of vagina. Uterine artery does course in superior portion but not relevant for ovarian removal
Most common cause of septic abortion
S. Aureus (gram- bacilli too, like E. Coli and GBS but less common)
Usually an abortion resulting from any retained products of contraception in the uterine cavity
This usually presents as fever, abd pain, uterine tenderness, foul smelling discharge after pregnency termination
Pt has an enlarged uterus and complains of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea most likely has what??
Adenomyosis which is the presence of endometrial glandular tissue within the myometrium
Best way to test for trichomonas
-Saline microscopy (wet prep) looking for motile protazoan
Usually presents as thin, yellow, mucous discharge that is foul smelling
Tx: metronidazole
Prior to delivery, estrogen stimulates the upregulation of what inside smooth muscle cells?
Gap junctions to heighten myometrial excitation. Gap junctions consist of aggregated connexin proteins that allow passage of ions between myometrial cells
Gastric tumor that metastasizes to the ovary and what are the pathological findings?
Kruckenberg Tumor with classic histologic feature of signet ring cells. These cells appear this way due to a large amount of mucin that displaces the nucleus to the side of the cytoplasm
Postpardum bleeding can be controlleg by ligating what artery and still keeping fertility possible?
- The uterine arteries are the main blood supply to the uterus and are brachnes off of the internal iliac artery. Bilateral ligation of the internal iliac arteries would stop uterine blood flow and prevent the need for hysterectomy
- The uterus has collateral blood flow from the ovarian arteries so the blood supply will not be completely cut off
Episiotomy cuts where and what?
This is a cut made from the posterior vaginal opening to the perineal body to enlargen the vaginal outlet to facilitate delivery and reduce the risk for severe perineal laceration
The external anal sphincter, rectal mucosa, levator ani, ischiocavernosus muscle and transverse perineal muscle are NOT cut
During menstruation what is the process at a cellular level?
These cells undergo progesterone withdrawl, leading to a prostaglandin increase, which leads to vasoconstriction of the spiral arteries
The progesterone withdrawl also leads to increased metalloproteases by endometrial stromal cells leading to APOPTOSIS of endometrial epithelium and sloughing of the wall.
What type of tissue lines the ovary, fallopian tube, uterus, cervix vagina?
Recombination (of viruses)
- exchange of genetic information between two nonsegmented, double stranded DNA genomes. This is the exchange of genes between two chromosomes via crossing over within homolglogous chromosomes
- Unlike Reassortment, which refers to changes in genomic composition that occur when host is coinfected with 2 SEGMENTED viruses that echange whole genome segments
- The herpes virus is NOT segmented, so it cannot undergo reassortment
Cephalosporin-resistant organisms
Listeria monocytogenes (resistant PBP)
MRSA (resistant PBP)
Enterococci (resistant PBP)
Atypicals such as mycoplasma and chlamydia (no cell wall)
Treat listeria with ampicillin. Remember, listeria causes disease in those with deficient cell-mediated immunity such as pregnant ladies, young infants, or immuocompromised patients
Common diseases associated with these:
Borellia Burgdorferi
Pasturella Multocida
Actinomyces israelii
Bacilus anthracis
Rickettsia Rickettsiae
Borellia Burgdorferi: Lyme Disease
Pasteurella Multocida: oral flora of cats and dogs
Actinomyces Isralii: oral abscesses with dranining yellow pus
Bacilus Anthracis: cutaneous anthrax. Release Edema factor and Lethal factor creating a papule that eventually is covered with black eschar. Tx: Ciprofloxacin
Rickettsia Rickettsiae: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (erythematous macules that migrate centripetally toward the trunk)
Daptomycin mechanism and uses and adverse effects
- Can be used to treat MRSA (along with vancomycin and linezolid)
- The mechanism is that it disrupts the bacterial membrane by creating transmembrane channels that cuase intracellular ion leakage. The resulting cellular membrane depolarization and macromolecular (DNA/RNA/protein) synthesis inhibition leads to cell death.
- It also binds to and is inactivated BY pulmonary surfactant (so it is ineffective in treatment of pneumonia)
Adverse: increased CK levels and increase incidence of myopathy, esp in pts taking statins
How do you treat recurrence of genital HSV?
It can be suppressed or minimized with oral valacyclovir (preffered over valcyclovir as it is dosed once daily and has good bioavailability). Could use daily acyclovir or famcyclovir
-These are not great at being active against latent virus forms, but can suppress multiplication as SOON as reactivation occurs.
A short 7-10 day course of oral acyclovir doesn’t do anything for recurrence rates, it only helps with the lesional healing time and local pain.
Aspiration Pneumonia vs Aspiration Pneumonitis
Aspiration Pneumonia: lung parenchyma INFECTION. Aspiration of upper airway or stomach MICROBES (anaerobes). Presents DAYS after aspiration event. see FEVER, cough, increase sputum. CXR infiltrate in dependent lung segment (classically RLL). Can progress to abscess. ABX: Clindamycin or B-lactam and B-lactamase inhibitor
Aspiration Pneumonitis: Lung parenchyma INFLAMMATION. Aspiration of GASTRIC ACID with direct tissue injury. Presents HOURS after aspiration event. Range from no sx, to nonproductive cough, decreased O2. CXR: infiltrates resolve WITHOUT abx. Tx: supportive
HSV-1 first clinical sign
- Gingivostomatitis is the first sign and due to its painful nature, the pt opts NOT to drink fluid and often presents to the ER with dehydration
- Peak age for primary infection is 6months to 5 years
Most common microorganisms for Cat Bites, Dog Bites, and Human Bites
Cats: Pasteurella (most common) has characteristic mouse-like odor, Bartonella (lymphangitis in immunocompromised pts
Dogs: Pasteurella, Streptococci, S. Aureus
Human: Anaerobes, Streptococci, Eikenella corrodens (clenched fist injury “fight bite”)
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST) mechanism
-Acts as a superantigen that activates a large number of helper T cells
This results in release of IL-2 from T cells and IL-1 and TNF from macrophages
This immune cascade is what is responsible for TSST sx
Q Fever is caused by?
Coxiella Burnetti: usually through inhalation of air that has been contaminated by animal waste
Acute: nonspecific febrile illness (HA that are retroorbital, pneumonia, thrombocytopenia)
Chronic: Can be fatal if not treated
Left shift of oxy hemoglobin dissociation curve has what effect on RBC number?
This low oxygen level would stimulate the kidney to produce more EPO, which would result in a compensatory erythrocytosis to maintain normal oxygen delivery
What do these cells do?
CD4
CD8
CD15
CD16
CD19/CD20/CD21
CD4: helper T-cell marker
CD8: cytotoxic T cell
CD15: cell surface marker present on granulocytes. It is also present in nearly all Reed Sternberg cells and is therefore useful in the diagnosis of Hodgkins Lymphoma
CD16: low affinity Fc receptor found on the surfaces of NK cells, macrophages, and neutrophils
CD19/CD20/CD21: found on B-cells (both immature and mature)…would see low in X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
Cholesteatoma
- Overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris within the middle ear space. May erode ossicles, mastoid air cells and lead to CONDUCTIVE HEARING LOSS
- Forms a round, pearly mass behind the tympanic membrane
- Can be primary or secondary to trauma, infection, surgery.
- Painless
- Can cause small perforation in the tympanic membrane
Pt with Hepatic Encephalopathy, what is going on in his astrocytes?
- There is increased levels of ammonia and other toxins circulating around in the body due to an inability to metabolize by the liver.
- With excess amonia, this is taken up by astrocytes, increasing glutamine production. This leads to increased osmolarity inside of the astrocytes causing swelling and impaired glutamine release
- Hyperammonemia decreases the amount of glutamine available for conversion of glutamate in neurons resulting in decreased excitation
How does an RPR test actually work??
Serum is mixed with a solution of cardiolipin, lecithin, and cholesterol. If aggregation or “floccation” is seen this is indicative of antibodies against cardiolipin
-This is a non-treponomal specific test, instead it is detecting antobodies to human lipids that are released as a result of cellular destruction by Treponema Pallidum (is positive in yaws, pina, bejel)
Basic concept of diastolic heart failure (3 things involving EF, EDV, LVP)
- Normal left ventricular ejection fraction (>50%)
- Normal end diastolic volume
- Increased LV filling pressure
Chronic Bronchitis presentation
-Thickened bronchial walls with neutrophil infiltration and mucus gland enlargement (increased number of goblet cells) and patchy squamous metaplasia that is brought on by longterm smoking
Cheyne-Stokes Breathing
- Common in advanced heart failure pts
- this is a cyclical pattern that has periods of apnea followed by gradually increasing and decreasing tidal volumes that is followed by another apneic period
- It is also seen in stoke, brain tumors, and TBI’s and is often a poor prognostic sign
Types of breathing
Normal
Biot
Kussmaul
Cheyne-Stokes
Biot-periods of apnea and hyperpnea (only pathological)
Piriform recess has what function and covers what nerve?
- small cavities that lie on either side of the laryngeal orrifice. During swallowing, food is directed by the eppiglottis to the piroform recess and into the esophagus
- A thin layer of mucosa protects the internal laryngeal nerve that is a branch of the Superior Laryngeal Nerve (CNX). This contains only sensory and autonomic fibers (NO MOTOR, unlike recurrent laryngeal and external laryngeal)
- This mediates the afferent limb of the COUGH REFLEX
Gag Reflex vs Cough Reflex
Gag
afferent –> Glossopharyngeal Nerve
efferent –> Vagus nerve
Cough
afferent –> internal laryngeal nerve (branch of superior laryngeal nerve, branch off vagus)
efferent –> vagus
Treatment of oral Candida infection
Nystatin a polyene antifungal with a mechanism similar to amphotericin B. Binds to ergosterol molecules in the fungal membrane causing pores and leakage of fungal cell contents. It is NOT absorbed orally, so is given as an oral “swish and swallow”
could also use fluconazole, or caspofungin
What makes green color of pus?
-Neutrophil Myeloperoxidase a blue-green heme based enzyme that forms hypochlorus acid (bleach)
CGD is a disease that is missing what enzyme and what are you more prone to as far as infection?
Missing NADPH oxidase so more prone to catalase + organisms
C: Candida
A: S. Aureus
T:—-
A: Pseudamonas Aeruginosum
L: Listeria
A: Aspergillus
S: Serratia
E: E. Coli
(and Nocardia)
What will the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure be in someone in ARDS?
-It will be normal because the problem is noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
If the cap pressure was elevated, it is more suggestive of cardiogenic pulmonary edema
In ARDS you WOULD see:
- increased capillary permeability
- decreased lung compliance
- increased work of breathing
- oxygen diffusion capacity to decrease
- V/Q mismatch
Oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and lymphopenia in an infant is suggestive of what??
HIV infection that was passed mom–>infant
-Could have been avoided with Zidovudine (ZDV) a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (enzyme inhibitor) given to the infant for several weeks.
The mom should have had a standard HAART administration of 2 nucleotide/nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and one third drug (protease inhibitor, NNRTI, integrase inhibitor)
Theophylline Toxicity
adenosine receptor antagonist and phosphodiesterase inhibitor that is used as an alternate therapy for Asthma and COPD. It causes bronchodilation by increasing cAMP levels
-It is metabolized by hepatic cytochrome oxidases, which can be inhibited by medications such as:
-Ciprofloxacin, Cimetidine, Macrolides, Verapamil
Toxicity presents as CNS stimulation such as seizures, tremors, insomnia as well as cardiac abnormalities (arrhythmias)
Granulomas in TB vs Sarcoidosis
TB: caseating granulomas
Sarcoidosis: NON-caseating granulomas
IL-2 Functions and drug
produced primarily by helper T-cells and is a major growth factor for T-lymphocytes
IL-2 also stimulates the growth differentiation and survival of CD4 and CD8 T cells.
**Stimulate the growth of helper, cytotoxic and regulatory T cells and NK cells
IL-2 as a drug is called Aldesleukin and is used for metastatic melanoma and renal cell carcinoma
Tumor Lysis Syndrome forms what and where (in kidney)
Happens when tumors are treated with chemotherapy. The lysis of tumors causes release of K, Phosphorus, Uric acid to be released into the serum
At physiologic pH, the uric acid is soluble, but in the acidic environment of the collecting tubule, they ppt into uric acid stones
This can be prevented by treatment with Allopurinol (Inhibit xanthine oxidase) to prevent tumor lysis syndrome
Pt with hypertension, hypokalemia, high aldosterone, high renin…how do you differentiate where problem is coming from?
Hyperaldosteronism can be divided into primary and secondary
Primary (Conn): There will be hypokalemia, hypernatremia, high aldosterone, LOW renin due to feedback inhibition of renin secretion
Secondary: overproduction of aldosterone is SECONDARY to excess renin production (renal artery stenosis, diuretic use, malignant hypertension, renin-secreting tumor
Nonaldosterone causes: CAH, deoxycortisone producing adrenal tumor, Cushing syndrome, exogenous mineralcorticoids. Would present with LOW aldo, LOW renin
Pt with MS has what type of bladder abnormalities?
-Spastic bladder: urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to the presence of an upper motor neuron lesion (is common in pts developing acute lesions in the spinal cord)
-The bladder does not destend/relax properly due to loss on inhibitory control from UMN
Multiple myeloma calcium happenings
Hypercalcemia due to osteolysis induced by tumor cells, which release osteoclast-activating factor.
This elevated serum Ca leads to decreased PTH production. The low levels of PTH lead to increased loss of Ca in urine (hypercalciuria)
The hypercalcemia and light chain cast nephropathy cause progressive renal failure. This leads to loss of 1-alpha hydroxylase resulting in low 1-25 Vit D.
Side effects of Foscarnet
-hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia due to it being a pyrophosphate analog. It can chelate calcium
May lead to a reduction in PTH release, which would contribute to the hypocalcemia
Both hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia can contribute to seizures!
Acetazolamide use outside of kidney
Used in acute angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase modulates HCO3 formation in aqueous humor, so inhibition of CA will decrease aqueous humor production
Polyuria that responds to DDAVP? and what is the action of DDAVP on the kidney (2 things)
Must be central diabetes insipidus (because nephrogenic does not respond at all and central the problem is you just are not producting ADH)
Keep in mind that V2 acts on the kidney to increase aquaporin channels to bring water back in. UREA is also brought back in in the collecting duct in response to V2 in the inner medullary collecting duct, which increases the osmotic gradient in the medulla, which allows for the production of MAXIMALLY concentrated urine
Label this graph of tubular concentrations as you go along the PCT
What is the origin of Renal Cell Carcioma within the kidney?
and some other fun facts
The epithelium of the proximal renal tubules
It looks like polygonal clear cells filled with accumulated lipids and carbohydrates, often golden-yellow due to high lipid content (on macroscopic view)
Risk factors are smoking and obesity
Manifests clinically as hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass (triad that is not always presenting as triad)
Associated with paraneoplastic syndromes (ACTH, EPO, PTHrp, renin)
Tx: Aldesleukin (IL-2)
Dobutamine
B-agonist predominantly B1>B2 that is a simpathomimetic used in heart failure used in management of refractory heart failure associated with LV dysfunction and cardiogenic shock
+inotrope
weakly + chronotrope (this increases HR and thus increases myocardial O2 consumption). Although this can trigger or exacerbate myocardial ischemia, it is weighed against the benefit of end organ perfusion and improvement of cardiac output vs the drawback of cardiogenic shock
Zenker Diverticulum formation
abnormal spasm or deminished relaxation of crycopharyngeal muscles during swallowing is thought to be the mechanism behind Zenker Diverticulum
- Results in an early oropharyngeal dysphagia that presents as a feeling of food obstruction in the neck area
- Pts develop halitosis/regurgitation
- Pulmonary aspiration is common as well leading to pneumonia
NOT A TRUE DIVERTICULUM (not all layers)
Olanzapine side effects (and Clozapine)
Olanzapine=Obesity
This is a second generation antipsychotic. Commonly used first line since it does not have any of the extra-pyramidal side effects that first gen antipsychotics (haloperidol) have.
Olanzapine and Clozapine both have the highest metabolic side effects and it is wise to check fasting glucose and lipid pannel several months down the road when pts are on these drugs
Clozapine can also have agranulocytosis (requires weekly WBC monitoring) Must watch CLOZAPINE CLOZELY
At what point in the breath cycle is pulmonary vascular resistance LOWEST?
-It is lowest at the functional residual capacity (right at the bottom level of the tidal volume)
-Increased lung volumes increase PVR due to longitudinal stretching of the alveolar capillaries by stretching the alveoli
-Decreaed lung volumes increase PVR due to decreased radial traction from adjacent tissues on the large extra-alveolar vessels.
Give examples of:
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
Type 2 Hypersensitivity
Type 3 Hypersensitivity
Type 4 Hypersensitivity
Type 1 (immediate, IgE): anaphalysis, allergies
Type 2 (cytotoxic, IgG and IgM autoantibodies): Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia, Goodpastures
Type 3 (immune complex, antigen-antibody complex) with complement activation: PSGN, Lupus, Serum Sickness
Type 4 (delayed type, T-cells and macrophages): Contact Dermatitis, TB skin test
What nerve supplies Deltoid and Teres Minor
Axillary, originates from posterior cord and carries fibers from C5 and C6
Filtration fraction calculation (and normal %)
FF=GFR/RPF =20% is normal
RPF=RBF (1-hct)
Contraindications of buproprion
- Seizure pts
- Anorexia pts
Bicuspid Aortic valve risk?
Risk of aortic stenosis at age 50!!! due to calcifications and premature atherosclerosis. This is 10-15 years before the normal tricuspid aortic valve starts to see it from normal senile calcific stenosis
A lesion involving the superior orbital fissure has what effect?
-Would eliminate the sensory portion of the corneal reflex that is a branch of the Trigeminal Nerve (the nasociliary branch of the first division of the trigeminal nerve). This enters skull at superior orbital fissure
-Eye adduction via medial recuts muscle that is innervated by the occulomotor nerve (CN3) that enters via superior orbital fissure as well
Fibromyalgia
widespread muscular pain with associated fatigue.
- effects women 20-55 most commonly
- Unknown etiology but likely involves abnormal central processing of painful stimuli
Can be exacerbated by excercise although can be aleviated by incremental aerobic exercise.
Can be treated with TCA, SNRI
4 steps of leukocyte accumulation
- Margination: increased vascular leakage improves contact of neutrophils with endothelial lining
- Rolling: roll on endothelium via lose binding of Siacyl Lewis X to E-selectin, P-selectin on macrophages, L-selectin on neutrophils
- Activation: slow rolling allows neutrophils to sample the chemokines associated with the inflammed tissue
- Tight adhesion: CD18 to ICAM1
- Transmigration: via integrin attachment and adherence to PCAM-1. This protein is found at the peripheral intercellular junction of endothelial cells
Fibrates (gemfibrozil and fenofibrate) actions
- used to lower triglycerides
- Activate PAR-alpha which leads to decreased hepatic VLDL production and increased LPL activity. This decreases triglycerides by 25-50% and increases HDL by 5-20%
- Fish oil also decrease VLDL production and inhibit synthesis of Apolipoprotein B
Advantages of polysaccharide vaccine for Streptococcus pneumoniae
-23 valent polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax) protects against a wider range of serotypes but antibody levels decrease over 5 years.
decreased incidence of replacement strains due to lack of mucosal immunity